湖南省永州市宁远县2021-2022学年九年级上学期期中考试英语试题(word版 含答案)
展开温馨提示:
1.本试卷包括试题卷和答题卡,考试结束后,将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
2.考生作答时,选择题和非选择题均须按答题卡中注意事项的要求答题,在试题卷上作答无效。
本试卷满分120分,考试时量90分钟。由听力技能、阅读技能、知识运用和写作技能四个部分组成,其中听力材料朗读两遍。
4. 本试卷共8页。如有缺页,请申明。
第一部分 听力技能(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5分,每小题1分)听下面5段材料。每段材料后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,并划或写在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1. What did Ben have fr breakfast this mrning?
A. B. C.
2.When will the cncert start?
A. B. C.
3. Hw is the weather in Beijing tday?
A. B. C.
4. What des Bb want t be after he finishes cllege?
A. B. C.
5. What’s Linda’s secret t learn English?
A. B. C.
第二节(共15分,每小题1分)听下面6段材料,每段材料后.各有几个小题,从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第一段材料,回答第6~7小题。
6. What is Dale ding?
A. He’s ging camping. B. He’s shpping. C. He’s spending his vacatin.
7. Has Dale bught a gift fr Mary?
A. Yes, he has. B. N, he hasn’t. C. I dn’t knw.
听第二段材料,回答第8~9小题。
8. What clr is Tina’s hair nw?
A. Red. B. Black. C. Yellw.
9. What did Bb use t be like?
A. Fat. B. Thin. C. Strng.
听第三段材料,回答第10~11小题。
10. Where des the wman want t g?
A. Cinema. B. Hspital. C. Bkstre.
11. Hw may she g there?
A. By taxi. B. On ft. C. By bus.
听第四段材料,回答第12~14小题。
12. Where des the wman want t take her parents fr a trip?
A. Sydney. B. New Yrk. C. Lndn.
13. Hw lng will the man stay n the beach?
A. Fr ne week. B. Fr tw weeks. C. Fr three weeks.
14. What will the man d t save mney?
A. Teach English. B. Sell bks. C. Cllect waste paper.
听第五段材料,回答第15~17小题。
15. Des the girl ever g t the English crner?
A. Yes, she des. B. We dn’t knw. C. N, she desn’t.
16. What’s the mst imprtant thing fr the girl?
A. She shuld jin an English club.
B. She shuld make friends with thers.
C. She shuld pen her muth and speak up.
17. What des the man advise the girl t d first?
A. Find a pen friend. B. Speak alud t herself. C. Talk with friends.
听第六段材料,回答第18~20小题。
18. When did the speaker spend Dragn Bat Festival?
A. This Wednesday. B. Last Wednesday. C. Next Wednesday.
19. What was Qu Yuan?
A. A pet. B. A teacher. C. A musician.
20. Wh is the letter frm?
A. Anne. B. Anna. C. Xia Qiang.
第二部分 阅读技能(共两节,满分50分)
第一节 阅读选择(共40分,每小题2分)阅读下面的材料,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
(A)
21. This is a fd guideline fr students’ nutritinal .
A. breakfast B. lunch C. supper
22.Accrding t the guideline, we shuld eat mre.
A. vegetables B. meat C. eggs.
(B)
23. Thanksgiving Day ften cmes n ________.
A. Octber 31st B. December 25th C. the furth Thursday in Nvember
24. Of all the festivals abve, ________ cmes last in a year.
A. Christmas DayB. Thanksgiving Day C. Hallween
25. Frm the frm we knw that By’s Day is celebrated in ________.
A. Western cuntries B. the USA C. Japan
(C)
One mrning, a blind by sat n the steps f a building with a hat by his feet. He held a sign which said, “I am blind. Please help me.” There were nly a few cins in the hat. A man was walking by. He tk ut a few cins frm his pcket and drpped them int the hat. He then tk the sign and turned it ver, and wrte sme wrds n it. He put the sign back s that everyne wh walked by culd see the new wrds.
Sn the hat began t fill up. Mre and mre peple were giving mney t the blind by. That afternn the man came t see hw things were. The by recgnized his ftsteps and asked, “Are yu the ne wh changed my sign in the mrning? What did yu write?” The man said, “ I nly wrte the truth. I said what yu said, but in a different way.” What he had written was, “Tday is a beautiful day, but I cannt see it.”
Of curse bth signs tld peple the by was blind. But the first sign simply tld peple t help by putting sme mney in the hat. The secnd sign tld peple that they were able t enjy the beauty f the day, but the by culd nt enjy it because he was blind.
We’re very lucky because we can nt nly see the beautiful wrld but als help thers. S, enjy what yu have wned tday!
26.Where was the by’s hat?
A. On his head. B. Beside his feet. C. On the sfa.
27.What happened after the by held the sign written by himself?
A. There were many cins in his hat.
B. Nbdy drpped cins int his hat.
C. Peple drpped nly a few cins int his hat.
28. What did the man write n the sign?
A. Tday is a beautiful day, but I can’t see it.
B. Help this blind by, please!
C. We are s lucky tday.
29. Accrding t the passage, which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. The first sign tld peple it was beautiful that day.
B. The secnd sign wrked better than the first nel.
C. The by wanted t get enugh mney t g t schl.
30. Which is the best title fr this stry?
A. Be kind t the blind!
B. Give mre mney t the blind!
C. Treasure(珍惜) what yu have.
(D)
As a student, I was mst afraid t answer questins in class, and I fund that the students arund were just like me. At the beginning f each class, when the teacher asked a questin, I always lwered my head because I was afraid that the teacher saw me.
One day, in a freign language class, Mr. Black gave us a lessn. He wanted us t be active in class, s he asked us sme questins, but n ne answered. “Let me tell yu a stry first,” he said.
“When I came t the United States t study, the university ften invited famus peple t make speeches. Befre the beginning f every speech, I fund an interesting thing. The students arund me always tk a cardbard flded(折叠的) in half, wrte their names in bld with the mst eye-catching clr, and then placed the cardbard n the seat. S when the speaker needed the answers frm the students, he culd see and call a listener’s name directly.”
“I culdn’t understand that. My classmate tld me the speakers were all tp peple, wh meant chances. When yur answer was t his surprise, it meant he might give yu mre chances. In fact, I really saw a few students gt great chances because f that.”
After listening t the stry, I understd that the chance will nt find yurself. Yu must shw yurself all the time s that yu can find a chance n the card.
31. What did Mr. Black want the students t d in his class?
A. Read ludly. B. Be active. C. Take ntes carefully.
32. Hw did the writer’s classmates behave when they were asked questins?
A. They raised their hands.
B. They shk their heads.
C. They lwered their heads.
33. Hw did the speaker get t knw the students’ names?
A. He gt them frm the cmputer.
B. He saw the cardbards n the seats.
C. He gt them frm the name list n the teacher’s desk.
34. What des the underlined wrd “eye-catching” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A.引人注目的B.眼睛疼痛的C.目光呆滞的
35. What des the writer mainly tell us?
A. Ding as thers d is necessary.
B. Answering questins bravely is easy.
C. Shwing yurself bravely can win chances.
(E)
Sccer is the wrld’s favrite sprt. It has arund 3 billin fans-nearly half the wrld’s ppulatin! And abut 300 millin peple play this game. That’s 4 percent f the wrld’s ppulatin!
It’s hard t say where sccer’s birthplace is. Many peple in ld days played early frms(形式)f this mdern game. Cu ju(蹴鞠), a ball-kicking game in China, was reprted as early as 2500 B.C.
Arund the same time in Greece. Peple were als playing a similar ball game withut using their hands.
But mdern sccer didn’t becme fficial(官方的)until 1863.An Englishman called Cbb Mrley intrduced the idea f a sccer assciatin(联盟). He als wrte the sprt’s fficial rules. Frm then n, ther assciatins in the cuntries were set up. They came tgether t make up the FIFA, which rganizes the Wrld Cup.
It’s nt easy t tell what makes sccer s ppular. But ne reasn is hw simple the sprt is.
Sccer needs nly tw feet and a ball. This makes it a sprt that develping cuntries can easily play.Sme f the sprt’s best players cme frm these pr natins.
Sccer perfrmances are pleasing t the eyes. The sprt’s n-hands rule makes beautiful dance-like mvements n the field. What’s mre, this sprt excites the heart. Teams might scre nly a few times each match, s matches can turn arund suddenly.
N ne knws wh will win at the next Wrld Cup. But ne thing is certain: The wrld will be watching.
36. Hw many peple like watching ftball games?
A. Abut 300 millin peple.
B. Abut 3 billin peple.
C. The peple all ver the wrld.
37. Which game is like ftball?
A. Cu ju. B. Basketball.C. Vlleyball.
38. When did mdern sccer becme fficial?
A. Befre 1863.B. After 1863.C. Befre 2500 B.C.
39. Sccer players can’t use their hands during the ftball match, can they?
A. Yes, they can.B. Yes, they can’t.C. N, they can’t.
40. What is the mst ppular sprt in the wrld?
A. Basketball.B. Sccer.C. The Wrld Cup.
第二节 阅读匹配(共10分,每小题2分)阅读下面的短文,从所给的A~F六个选项中,选出正确的答案填空,使短文通顺,内容完整,并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑,其中选项中有一项是多余的。
41. It’s a city with a lng histry. Kunming has a ppulatin f mre than 7,000,000. Thugh the weather in Yunnan changes frm place t place. 42. It’s neither t ht in summer nr t cld in winter. That’s why mre and mre peple like t travel and even t live there.
At weekends r n hlidays, 43. In winter, peple, especially ld peple, wuld like t climb the Western Hills. Frm the tp f the hills, yu can have a gd lk at the beautiful scenery f Kunming. Far frm the hills, yu can enjy the Sleeping Beauty amng the hills. After dinner, families take a walk alng the bank f Dianchi Lake. The Glden Temple and EXPO Garden are tw famus places f interest in the nrth f the city. EXPO Garden is knwn t peple bth at hme and abrad. 44. A little farther away frm the sutheast f the city, a special frest welcmes yu. It is nt a tree frest, but a stne frest. S it is called the Stne Frest.
45. They ften invite their friends hme t try delicius fd, like rice ndles. If yu want t knw mre abut Kunming and taste her fd, please visit her yurself.
第三部分 知识运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 词语填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)通读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
There is a man 46 Rubik wh invented a special cube. He called it Magic Cube(魔方). It has becme ne f 47 puzzle games(益智游戏)all ver the wrld.
Rubik was brn in Hungary(匈牙利) 48 Wrld WarⅡ.Rubik’s family was very interesting. His mther was a pet. She was a free thinker wh put her thughts f life t paper. His father was an aircraft engineer. When Rubik was a child, his thughts had t be very special and exact. Rubik was 49 by his parents. He lved sculpture(雕刻), and went t cllege t study art and sculpture. After 50 , he wasn’t 51 .He went back t cllege and studied architecture(建筑学).
Rubik 52 his famus cube in 1974.It was nt his plan t create a new ty. He was nly 53 in hw t design things himself. Rubik said, “It was wnderful t see hw the clrs became mixed after nly a few turns. After a while, I thught it was time 54 back, s I want t put the clrs back in 55 .And it was at that mment that I faced the big challenge: What was the way hme?” Thus, the first Magic Cube was invented.
46. A. name’sB.named C. names
47. A. ppular B. the mre ppularC. the mst ppular
48. A. during B. f C. at
49. A. taken care B. taken after C. taken care f
50. A. graduateB. graduatin C. educatinal
51. A. happyB. pleasant C. satisfied
52. A. inventedB. fundC. discvered
53. A. interest B. interested C. interesting
54. A. gB. ging C. t g
55. A. timeB. turn C. rder
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)阅读下面的材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(限1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式,使句子通顺完整。
56.I read English stry bks fr half hur every day.
57.Yellw gives the wrld hpe and (warm).
58. Yu can g t the (tw) flr t buy clthes fr yur sn.
59. It is imprtant t knw hw t ask fr help (plite).
60. We shuld avid (make) any nise in the reading rm.
61. This kind f plant is knwn the sweet smell.
62.My mm desn’t allw me (hang) ut with my friends n Sundays.
63. Lk! The little dg (lie) n the flr.
64. He used t cause prblems fr (he) and his family.
65. what yu d , yu must be very careful.
第四部分 写作技能(共三节,满分30分)
第一节 回答问题(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)阅读下面的短文,然后根据短文内容回答问题,并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Mst peple drink tea in the wrld. But tea des nt mean the same thing t different peple. In different cuntries, peple have different ideas abut drinking tea.
In China, fr example, tea is ften served when peple get tgether. Chinese peple drink it at hme r in tea huses at any time f the day. They ften use ht water t bil tea leaves.
Tea is als imprtant in ther Asian cuntries. Peple in these cuntries have a special way f serving tea. They hld a tea ceremny in their huses when imprtant guests cme. It is very ld and full f meaning. Everything must be dne in a special way in the ceremny. There is even a special rm fr it in their huses.
In the United States, peple usually drink tea at breakfast r they drink it after meals. Americans usually use tea bags t make tea. This way is faster and easier than the way f making tea in teapts. In summer, mst Americans drink iced tea. They like t put sme ice in their tea.
66. D mst peple drink tea in the wrld?
67. What d Chinese peple ften use t bil tea leaves?
68. What des the underlined wrd “It” mean?
69. When d peple usually drink tea in the USA?
70. What kind f tea d mst Americans drink in summer?
第二节 语篇翻译(共4小题;每小题2分,满分8分)阅读下面的短文,然后将画横线的句子译成汉语或英语,并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Many Western cuntries celebrate Easter. 71.This hliday is always n a Sunday between March 22nd and April 25th. It celebrates the beginning f new life. Hens lay eggs, giving birth t life, 72. 因此一个鸡蛋就是新生命的象征。 A ppular activity during Easter is t hide eggs arund yur hme r garden fr friends r relatives t find. 73.These can be real eggs, but they are mre ften chclate eggs. Nt nly d peple spread them arund in different hiding places fr an egg hunt, but they als give ut these treats as gifts. S just like Christmas, 74.复活节给超市和巧克力店创造了好的生意。
71.
72.
73.
74.
第三节 书面表达(1个大题,满分12分)
张明在学校参加了一个英语俱乐部,从那以后,他改变了很多。请你结合下面表格所给的提示,写一篇英语短文。
要求: 1. 覆盖要点,可适当增加情节;
2. 不少于80词,开头与结尾已经给出,不计入总词数。
Jining a club smetimes changes a persn greatly.
Peple sure change all the time, right? What we shuld d is t learn frm Zhang Ming. Change urselves and chse t be the best f urselves.
2021年下期期中质量监测试卷九年级英语
参考答案
第一部分 听力技能(20分,每小题1分)
1-5 ACBAB 6-10 CBABC 11-15BCAAC 16-20 CBBAC
第二部分 阅读技能 (50分,每小题2分)
21-25 BACAC 26-30 BCABC 31-35BCBAC 36-40 BABCB
41-45BDFEC
第三部分 知识运用(20分,每小题1分)
46-50BCACB 51-55CABCC
56.an 57.warmth 58.secnd 59.plitely 60.making
61.fr 62.t hang 63.is lying 64.himself 65.N matter
第四部分 写作技能(30分)
第一节 回答问题(10分,每小题2分)
66. Yes, they d.
67. They ften use ht water t bil tea leaves.
68. The tea ceremny. /
They hld a tea ceremny in their huses when imprtant guests cme.
69.They usually drink tea at breakfast r they drink it after meals.
70. Iced tea.
第二节 语篇翻译(8分,每小题2分)
71.这个节日总是在3月22日到4月25日之间的某一个星期日。
72.s an egg is a symbl f new life.
73.这些可能是真正的鸡蛋, 但它们更经常是巧克力蛋。
74.Easter creates gd business fr supermarkets and chclate stres.
第三节 书面表达(12分)
(略)
评分细则
语法填空(第56-65小题):
不符合题意的单词不给分;书写不全,不给分。
回答问题(第66~70小题):
全对记2分;个别单词错误,漏写或多写单词,有不符合英语表达习惯的省略结构,记1分;不写或有一半以上错误或全错,记0分。
语篇翻译(第71~74小题):
①英译汉:中文信息完全一致,记2分;中文信息个别错误或残缺或多余,记1分;有不影响理解的中文错别字不扣分。
②汉译英:全对记2分;个别单词错误,记1分;漏写或多写单词,记1分;句子整体结构性错误,有一半以上错误或全错或不写 ,记0分。
书面表达(第75小题):
1.无词或有与主题不相关的语句,记0分。
2.没有表达正确的句子,但有较多与主题相关词汇,记1~3分。
3.有部分表达正确的句子,但有较多不影响理解的错误,记4~6分。
4.句子基本表达正确,主题明确,有部分不影响理解的错误,记7~9分。
5.语句完整,意思连贯,主题明确,语法正确,字数足够,句式多样,记10~12分。
6.没有达到要求规定词数,或书写潦草、涂改且看不清楚的,酌情扣1~2分。
A fd guideline(指南) fr students’ nutritinal(营养) lunch
Fruits: 100g Vegetables:150-200g
Meat:50-60g Fish:15-30g Eggs:10-20g
Grains(谷物):100-150g Beans and nuts:10-15g
Symbl
Name
Thanksgiving Day
By's Day
Hallween
Christmas Day
Date
The furth Thursday in Nvember
May 5th
Octber 31st
December 25th
Cuntry
the USA
Japan
the USA
Western cuntries
A. D yu knw where Kunming is ?
B. Kunming is the capital f Yunnan.
C. Peple in Kunming are really friendly.
D. Kunming is famus fr her beautiful weather.
E. Yu can spend a whle day visiting the wrld-famus garden.
F. Peple like t relax themselves in different places and in different ways.
In the past
Nw
Persnalities
(性格)
shy, quiet,get nervus easily, nt dare t(不敢)speak in public
Brave(勇敢的),utging,kind f active…
Hbbies
reading, watching TV
reading,singing, dancing, making friends, playing badmintn…
Abilities
ding well in reading
be gd at reading, dancing, singing, cmmunicating and sprts
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