2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中英语模拟卷含答案（安徽专用）

这是一份2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中英语模拟卷含答案（安徽专用），共14页。试卷主要包含了What are thse?等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1．本试卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2．考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡上填写自己的考号、姓名、试室号、座位号，用2B铅笔把对应该号码的标号涂黑。
3．选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试题上。
4．非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔、涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5. 难度系数：0.65。
6．考生务必保持答题卡的整洁，考试结束时，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题:每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1．Where is the ball?
A．B．C．
2．Which is nt in the lst and fund case?
A．B．C．
3．Is Jack’s radi in his bkcase?
A．Yes，it is.B．N，it isn’t.C．We dn’t knw.
4．What’s Alice’s phne number?
A．538-0918B．538-9908C．358-9908
5．What are thse?
A．They’re ranges.B．They’re apples.C．They’re eggs.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答下列各小题。
6．Hw many students are there in Mike’s class?
A．35B．45C．55
7．What’s n the teacher’s desk?
A．A cmputer game.B．A bk.C．A cmputer.
听下面一段对话，回答下列各小题。
8．Whse(谁的) family pht is it?
A．Emma’s.B．Peter’s.C．Anna’s.
9．What clr are Anna’s eyes?
A．Black.B．Brwn.C．Blue.
10．Where is Emma’s father?
A．In the middle.B．Behind her uncle.C．Behind Emma.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11．What class is Zhang Lei in?
A．Class 3B．Class 4C．Class 5
12．Wh’s Zhang Lei’s Chinese teacher?
A．Miss GaB．Mary’s mtherC．Mary
13．Where is Mary frm?
A．the UKB．the USAC．China
14．Wh are Zhang Lei’s gd friends?
A．Helen and MaryB．Helen and Miss GaC．Mary and Miss Ga
15．Are Zhang Lei and Mary in the same schl?
A．N, they aren’tB．Yes, they areC．We dn’t knw
IV. 信息转换(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词，短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分30分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的人B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21．—Hlly, are these yur __________?
—Yes. I like reading（喜欢阅读）them.
A．keysB．bksC．mapsD．rulers
22．My teacher Miss Ga helps me every day. I must __________ thanks t her.
A．sayB．knwC．callD．find
23．—Happy（快乐）Teachers’ Day, Miss Wang! This nice hanfu is __________ yu.
—Thank yu, Qian Juan.
A．fB．nC．abutD．fr
24．—Kate, yur pen is n the sfa. What abut __________?
—Oh, it’s in the pencil bag.
A．IB．meC．mineD．my
25．The library isn’t very __________. We can see bks are n chairs, under the desks and next t the sfa.
A．tidyB．niceC．welcmeD．gd
26．Steve cmes t see Kim. Kim’s family __________ fine and nice t him.
A．amB．beC．isD．are
27．—__________ are Tm and Tim?
—Oh, they’re in the teacher’s rm nw.
A．HwB．WhereC．WhatD．Wh
28．— Excuse me, Gina. Are these yur __________ phnes?
— Yes, they are.
A．parentB．parent’sC．parentsD．parents’
29．—Is yur English name Matt?
—__________. My English name is Tny.
A．Yes, it isB．N, it isn’tC．Yes, I amD．N, I’m nt
30．—These are yur lst keys. Here yu are.
—__________.
A．That’s gdB．Yu’re welcmeC．Thank yuD．Yes, please
VI. 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
I have a gd friend. 31 name is Peter. We study in Hngxing Middle Schl. We are in the same class. He sits in frnt f 32 . His 33 lessn is music. He has many CDs. He likes listening t music very much. He likes playing 34 t. After schl we ften play ftball in the 35 . He is very helpful. We ften 36 each ther.
Peter is nt Chinese. He is frm 37 . He cmes t Beijing 38 his family. His father is a dctr and his mther is a nurse. They wrk frm Mnday t 39 . At weekends, his mther likes shpping and his father likes fishing. Smetimes they g t the park. They all like Chinese fd. They 40 very happy.
31．A．HeB．HisC．SheD．Her
32．A．IB．myC．yuD．me
33．A．favriteB．fineC．badD．tired
34．A．basketballB．musicC．ftballD．swimming
35．A．classrmB．libraryC．playgrundD．bkshp
36．A．playB．helpC．standD．read
37．A．EnglandB．ChineseC．EnglishD．American
38．A．frmB．nC．withD．fr
39．A．SaturdayB．SundayC．WednesdayD．Friday
40．A．beB．amC．isD．are
B
D yu have breakfast every day? It’s imprtant t drink and eat smething in the 41 . All the fd can help yu start (开始) a new 42 . Breakfast is very imprtant, 43 sme students d nt like t have breakfast.
What is breakfast? There are tw 44 in “breakfast”—“break”and “fast”. At night yu 45 and dn’t eat anything, s yu shuld 46 smething in the mrning and break yur fast. Yu can get energy (能量) 47 the fd and get ready (准备) fr the day. If (如果) yu dn’t have breakfast, yu’re nt full f energy and yu may feel hungry (饥饿的). Then yu cannt d 48 in yur lessns and yu can nt listen t the 49 carefully in class. It is bad fr yur health if 50 g t schl withut breakfast.
41．A．nightB．mrningC．afternnD．evening
42．A．yearB．weekC．nightD．day
43．A．butB．andC．sD．r
44．A．namesB．lettersC．wrdsD．maps
45．A．drinkB．sleepC．eatD．stand
46．A．eatB．penC．sayD．play
47．A．tB．atC．frmD．fr
48．A．clB．badC．fatD．well
49．A．studentsB．teachersC．parentsD．uncles
50．A．weB．yuC．heD．she
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题，满分45分)
VII. 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从下面选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A:Hell, this is Grandma.
B: 51 This is Linda.
A: Hi, Linda. Is yur mther there?
B: 52 She’s n the farm.
A: On the farm? 53
B: N, it is really ht here. She ges swimming with my aunt.
A: Is yur father there?
B: 54
A: What’s he ding?
B: He is playing chess n the cmputer. D yu want t talk t him?
A: 55 Just say “hi” t him fr me.
B: Sure.
A．It’s cld tday.
B．Yes.
C．N, thanks.
D．N, she isn’t.
E．Tday is Sunday.
F．Hell, Grandma.
G．I’ve gt lts f fruit.
VIII. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
This is a map f Maria’s schl. It’s 2:30 in the afternn nw. Maria is having an English class with her classmates. They like it. And they think English is very imprtant.
56．Hw many playgrunds are there in Maria’s schl? ________
A．One.B．Tw.
C．Three.D．Fur.
57．Where is Maria nw? ________
A．In the schl hall.
B．At the suth gate.
C．In the classrm building.
D．In the dinning hall (餐厅).
58．What can we knw frm the map? ________
A．The dinning hall is n the left f the library.
B．The science building is in frnt f the nrth gate.
C．The ffice building is behind the classrm building.
D．The schl hall is between the science building and the gym.
B
Mr. Brwn is 75 years ld. He lives in a village (村庄). Mr. Brwn has three sns: David, Jeff and Stefan. They have jbs in big cities. And they dn’t cme t see Mr. Brwn very ften.
The sns feel srry fr their father, s they build a big huse fr Mr. Brwn. And they give him a lt f mney. But Mr. Brwn isn’t happy abut it. He always feels lnely because n ne is with him.
There is a schl next t Mr. Brwn’s huse. Sme students ften cme and visit Mr. Brwn. Mr. Brwn is happy t see them.
Befre Mr. Brwn dies (死亡), he wants t give his huse and mney t the schl. He says, “I dn’t want mney. I want lve. And the students give it t me. Lve is nt mney. Lve is cmpany (陪伴).”
59．Hw many sns des Mr. Brwn have?
A．1.B．2.C．3.D．4.
60．What d Mr. Brwn’s sns build fr him?
A．A huse.B．A farm.C．A htel.D．A schl.
61．What des the underlined wrd “lnely” mean?
A．开心的B．失望的C．活跃的D．孤单的
62．What can we learn frm the passage?
A．Mr. Brwn lives with his sns.
B．Mr. Brwn desn’t like his huse.
C．Sme students ften cme and visit Mr. Brwn.
D．Mr. Brwn is happy t have a lt f mney.
C
The wrld has many clrs. The basic (基本的) clrs are red, green, blue, black and white.
The sea is blue. The grass is green. The clud is white. Many cuntries in the wrld like green. But peple frm England and Japan dn’t like it. Red is a favrite clr in China. Because Chinese peple think it can bring gd luck (运气)! S at Chinese Spring Festival, peple always wear red clthes, put mney int red paper and give it t children. But in Thailand, it is a bad clr. It means smene is dead (死亡的). In Australia, peple like the black cat very much. In America, peple think the white cat can bring them gd luck.
63．Which ne isn’t the basic clr?
A．Red.B．Blue.C．Yellw.D．Green.
64．Wh desn’t like green?
A．Peple frm England and Japan.
B．Peple frm England and Thailand.
C．Peple frm Japan and Australia.
D．Peple frm Japan and America.
65．Hw d Americans feel abut seeing the white cat?
A．Sad.B．Happy.C．Srry.D．Angry.
D
My name is Jenny. I am twelve years ld. I have sme friends. They are Mike, Jack, Mary and Kate. We are middle schl students. Mike and Jack are in Class 2 Grade 1. Mary, Kate and I are in Class Three. This is Mr. Green. He is ur English teacher. This is ur new classrm. In the classrm yu can see 45 desks and chairs. They are green. A blackbard, a clck and a map are n the wall. On a desk yu can see three pencils. The red ne is mine (我的). The green ne is Kate’s. The yellw ne is Mary’s. Mike’s pencil isn’t there. His pencil is in his bag.
66．Hw many friends des Jenny have?
A．1.B．2.C．3.D．4.
67．Wh is Mr. Green?
A．He is Jenny’s friend.B．He is Jenny’s teacher.
C．He is Mary’s friend.D．He is Jenny’s father.
68．Which ne is nt n the wall?
A．A blackbard.B．A clck.C．A map.D．A ruler.
69．Where is Mike’s pencil?
A．In the classrm. B．In his bag.C．On the chair.D．On the desk.
E
We g shpping n Sundays. I ften g t the supermarket with my mther n Sunday mrning. My father likes apples very much. We buy sme red apples fr him. Mum likes yellw bananas, but they’re green. S she desn’t buy any. “Lk! The strawberries are very nice, mum. D yu like them?” “Yes.” Mum says and buys sme fr herself. The ranges are very nice. My mther buys sme fr me.
We need sme vegetables. The vegetables in the supermarket are very gd. We buy sme tmates and carrts. I dn’t like tmates, but my parents like them. I like carrts.
After shpping, mum and I have sme hamburgers, milk and ice cream. And then we g back hme with the fruit and vegetables.
70．Mther desn’t buy bananas because (因为) ________.
A．the bananas are greenB．she desn’t like bananas
C．I dn’t like bananasD．the bananas are yellw
71．My mther buys sme strawberries fr ________.
A．meB．fatherC．herselfD．my grandparents
72．After my mther and I buy sme fruit and vegetables, ________.
A．we eat sme apples and tmatesB．we have sme salad
C．we dn’t g hmeD．we g back hme
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
D yu ften play hide-and-seek (捉迷藏) with thers? Mst f the children ften play this game and lve it a lt. Hide-and-seek is a very ld game. Maybe yur father and mther like playing it. Maybe yur grandfather and grandmther like it, t.
But hw d peple knw abut this game? Old stries tell us abut hide-and-seek. Very ld picture s als shw the game. Tday, bys and girls play many games and they always like them. Older children shw little children hw t play them. Then thse games g n (延续).
73．Wh ften plays hide-and-seek and lves it? (不超过5个词)

74．Can yu see the game hide-and-seek in very ld pictures? (不超过5个词)

75．Hw d thse games g n accrding t the passage? (不超过10个词)

第四部分 写作(共两大题，满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76．Bys and girls, (打开) yur English bk, please.
77．A (秋天) is my favrite seasn in a year.
78．There are f （四十）teachers in ur schl.
79．My father desn’t g t wrk every S (星期六).
80．The dishes in the restaurant are （美味的）.
X. 书面表达(共1小题；满分20分)
81．假设你是李华，与学校合作的一所英国学校派团于下周到你的学校参观。请你根据有关学校的提示，写信向英国朋友们介绍你的校园。
1.概况：干净漂亮，绿树环绕；操场在学校的中央，有教学楼，办公室，图书馆和餐厅等；有约60位教师，900名学生；
2.活动：放学后可以在图书馆读书、在操场运动等；
3.谈谈你对学校的感受。
要求：
1.词数 60-80，不能出现真实个人信息；
2.可适当增加细节，使行文连贯；
3.开头已写好，不计入总词数。
Dear friends,
Welcme t ur schl!Let me intrduce ur schl t yu nw.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
答案
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：120分）
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满20分)
16．radi 17．yellw 18．cmputer 19．schlbag 20．bks
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分30分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
VI. 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题，满分45分)
VII. 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从下面选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
51．F 52．D 53．A 54．B 55．C
VIII.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
73．Mst f the children. 74．Yes, we can. 75．Older children shw little children hw t play the games.
第四部分 写作(共两大题，满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76．()pen
77．(A)utumn
78．(f)rty
79．(S)aturday
80．delicius
X. 书面表达(共1小题；满分20分)
81．例文：
Dear friends,
Welcme t ur schl! Let me intrduce ur schl t yu nw. Our campus is clean and beautiful. Green trees surrund here. The playgrund is in the center f the schl. There are teaching buildings, ffices, libraries, and restaurants. There are abut 60 teachers and 900 students. After schl, we can read bks in the library, exercise n the playgrund, and s n. I am very happy here every day. I like ur schl and enjy the schl life very much.
Yurs,
Li Hua
Bed
The bed is blue. A 16 is n it.
Table
Clr： 17 . An English bk, a clck, and a 18 are n it.
Chair
The chair is under the table. Anna’s 19 is n the chair.
A bkcase
Between the bed and the table. Sme 20 and her tape player are in it.
题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
答案
B
C
A
B
A
B
C
A
C
C
题号
11
12
13
14
15
答案
B
A
B
A
B
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
B
A
D
C
A
D
B
D
B
C
题号
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
答案
B
D
A
C
C
B
A
C
D
D
题号
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
答案
B
D
A
C
B
A
C
D
B
B
题号
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
答案
B
C
D
C
A
D
C
C
A
B
题号
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
答案
D
B
D
B
A
C
C