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      江西省赣州市于都县2025-2026学年七年级下学期6月期末考试英语试卷(含答案)

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      江西省赣州市于都县2025-2026学年七年级下学期6月期末考试英语试卷(含答案)

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      这是一份江西省赣州市于都县2025-2026学年七年级下学期6月期末考试英语试卷(含答案)试卷主要包含了听力测试,单项选择,完形填空,阅读理解,补全对话,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
      2025~2026 学年度第二学期
      七年级英语期末考试听力材料与参考答案 一、听力测试
      A)请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选
      出与内容相符的选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有 10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一
      小题。每段对话读两遍。
      1. W: I want a pet. What abut a cat
      M: A cat But I think a dg is better. Dgs are very clever.
      2. W: Tm, can we shut in the classrm
      M: N, we must keep quiet. We als need t keep the flr clean.
      3. W: Tm, hw ften d yu exercise
      M: I usually exercise three times a week. It's gd fr my health.
      4. W: Li Ming, what d yu usually have fr breakfast
      M: I usually have rice and vegetables. Smetimes I have bread and juice.
      5. W: What's the weather like in Beijing tday
      M: It's windy. The weatherman says it may rain this afternn.
      B)请听下面 4 段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选
      出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你都将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小
      题给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
      请听第 1 段对话,回答第 6、7 小题。
      W: Lk at this little dg! It's s cute.
      M: Yes, it is. D yu want t keep it as a pet
      W: I already have a cat at hme. What abut yu
      M: I want a dg, but my mm says we must take care f it every day.
      W: That's easy. We can feed it and take it fr a walk every day.
      M: Gd idea! Let's ask ur teacher if we can keep it in the schl.
      请听第 2 段对话,回答第 8、9 小题。
      W: What are yu reading, Tm
      M: I'm reading an interesting stry abut animals.
      W: Animals What kind f animals
      M: It's abut a dg that saves its wner frm danger.
      W: That sunds great! Why d yu like it
      M: Because it's bth interesting and educatinal. It teaches us t be kind t animals.
      请听第 3 段对话,回答第 10 至 12 小题。
      W: Gd mrning, Tm. What's wrng with yu
      M: Gd mrning, dctr. I ften feel tired these days.
      W: Hw many glasses f water d yu drink every day
      M: Only abut tw glasses.
      W: That's nt enugh. Yu shuld drink mre water, at least eight glasses a day. Als, yu shuld
      eat mre fruit and exercise mre.
      M: OK, dctr. Thank yu fr yur advice.
      请听第 4 段对话,回答第 13 至 15 小题。
      W: Hi, Peter. Did yu have a gd time yesterday
      M: Nt really. The weather was rainy yesterday.
      W: That's t bad. What did yu d yesterday mrning
      M: I stayed at hme and watched a mvie with my mther.
      W: Did yu g ut in the afternn
      M: N, it was still raining. I helped my mther ck dinner instead.
      W: That sunds nice. At least yu had a gd time with yur family.
      C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过 3 个单词。听独
      白前你将有 50 秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
      My name is Mike. My friends and I are spending the winter hliday in different cuntries.
      Nick is in Canada nw. It's snwing there. He is skating with his cusin nw. Jack is in the US
      nw. The weather is windy and cld there. He is reading bks in a library.Where is Sarah She is
      in China nw. It's cludy. She is having dinner in a restaurant. What abut me I'm building a
      snwman with my brther in the UK. All f us have a happy winter hliday.
      参考答案
      一、听力测试(20 分)
      1-5.BABBC 6-10. ACCAB 11-15. CBBBC
      16. skating 17. cld 18. China 19. dinner 20. brther
      二、单项选择(8 分)
      21-28.CDBA BCBA
      三、完形填空(26 分)
      29-33. BACAB 34-38. CCACD 39-43. AACCC
      44.fx 45. S 46. life 47. teeth 48. eat 49. what
      50. agreed 51. quickly 52. free 53. silly 54. him
      五、阅读理解(46 分)
      55-57. BCA 58-62. BDACB 63-67. CBDBA 68-72. BDBBC
      73-77. BFAEG
      六、补全对话(5 分)
      78-82. DEBGA
      七、书面表达 (15 分)
      One pssible versin:
      Tday is Saturday. Mr. Li tk us t g n a schl trip t a science museum. It was a
      sunny day. The temperature was 20℃. We went there by bus. It tk us 1 hur t get there. It
      was very interesting.
      We enjyed the beautiful sights alng the way. On the bus,we talked and laughed
      happily.We als sang English sngs .At the museum, I learnt a lt abut rbts. I played
      chess with rbts, talked with rbts in the museum. I didn't knw they culd play chess with
      us. It was s cl! Then the teachers taught us hw t make a mdel rbt. I was very
      interested in making it. I als tk a lt f great phts t. After that, We had lunch. We ate
      delicius fd .Then I went t the gift shp and bught sme lvely gifts fr my family and
      friends. They weren’t expensive.
      All in all, it was an interesting and useful trip fr us. It was really a day t remember.2025~2026 学年度第二学期期末检测卷
      七年级英语
      时间:120 分钟 满分:120 分
      一、听力测试(每小题 1 分,共 20 分)
      A)请听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出与内
      容相符的选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有 10 秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每
      段对话读两遍。
      ( ) 1. What animal des the by want t keep as a pet
      A. A cat. B. A dg. C. A rabbit.
      ( ) 2. What must the students d in the classrm
      A. Keep quiet. B. Clean the blackbard. C. Water the flwers.
      ( ) 3. Hw ften des Tm exercise
      A. Every day. B. Three times a week. C. Once a mnth.
      ( ) 4. What des Li Ming usually have fr breakfast
      A. Eggs and milk. B. Rice and vegetables. C. Bread and juice.
      ( ) 5. What des the man mean
      A. It’s sunny in Beijing. B. It’s snwy in Beijing. C. It may rain in Beijing.
      B)请听下面 4 段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最
      佳选项。听每段对话前,你都将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题给出 5
      秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
      请听第 1 段对话,回答第 6、7 小题。
      ( ) 6. Where are they talking
      A. At a pet shp. B. At hme. C. In the library.
      ( ) 7. What d they decide t d
      A. Buy a dg. B. Feed the animal. C. Ask the teacher.
      请听第 2 段对话,回答第 8、9 小题。
      ( ) 8. What is the by reading
      A. A stry abut schl rules. B. A stry abut a trip. C. A stry abut animals.
      ( ) 9. Why des the by like the stry
      A. It’s interesting. B. It’s pwerful. C. It’s shrt.
      请听第 3 段对话,回答第 10 至 12 小题。
      ( ) 10. What is the relatinship between the tw speakers
      A. Teacher and student. B. Dctr and patient (病人). C. Friends.
      ( ) 11. Hw many glasses f water des the by drink every day
      A. Abut tw. B. Abut five. C. Abut eight.
      ( ) 12. What des the dctr advise him t d
      A. Sleep mre. B. Drink mre water. C. Read mre.
      请听第 4 段对话,回答第 13 至 15 小题。
      ( ) 13. What was the weather like yesterday
      A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cludy.
      ( ) 14. What did Peter d yesterday mrning
      A. He went t the park. B. He stayed at hme. C. He visited his grandmther.
      ( ) 15. What can we knw abut Peter
      A. He gt wet in the rain. B. He enjyed the mvie. C. He helped his mther ck.
      C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过 3 个单词。听独白前你
      将有 50 秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
      16. Nw Nick is ________ with his cusin in Canada.
      17. The weather is windy and ________ in the US.
      18. Sarah is in ________ nw.
      19. Sarah is having ________ in a restaurant.
      20. Mike is building a snwman with his ________ in the UK.
      二、单项选择(每小题 1 分,共 8 分)
      请阅读下面各个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选
      项。
      ( ) 21. — Did yu see the sign (标志) n the wall
      — Yes. It says “N __________.” We can’t shut in the library.
      A. fd B. water C. nise D. phts
      ( ) 22. — Why is Tm __________ t the bus stp
      — Because he gets up late.
      A. treating B. hlding C. wrking D. rushing
      ( ) 23. — I ften feel tired after schl.
      — Yu shuld exercise mre. Playing sprts makes peple __________.
      A. lucky B. healthy C. silly D. pr
      ( ) 24. — What did yu have fr breakfast
      — Nthing (没有什么). I’m nt __________ this mrning.
      A. hungry B. thirsty C. happy D. busy
      ( ) 25. — Why were yu all wet
      — It rained __________ and I didn’t take my umbrella.
      A. hardly B. suddenly C. quickly D. exactly
      ( ) 26. — Lk at the cluds! It __________ rain sn.
      — Let’s take an umbrella with us.
      A. shuld B. can’t C. must D. need
      ( ) 27. — __________ did yu d last weekend
      — I visited my grandparents in the cuntryside.
      A. Wh B. What C. Why D. Hw
      ( ) 28. My brther can help my mum d the husewrk __________ he is nly 4 years ld.
      A. althugh B. if C. because D. s
      三、完形填空(每小题 1 分,共 26 分)
      A)先阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入
      相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
      My name is Li Wei. I’m a student in Class 2, Grade 7. Last week, ur schl had a “Kindness Day” activity. I
      wanted t d smething special.
      In the mrning, I helped my neighbr, Mr. Zhang. He is an ld man and 29 alne (独自). He has a
      beautiful garden, but he culdn’t 30 in it because f his bad leg. S I watered his 31 and cleaned
      the yard. He was very thankful and gave me a cup f tea.
      At nn, I went t the schl 32 . I helped clean the tables and chairs. The wrkers said I was very
      33 . Then in the afternn, I visited the Animal Care Center with my classmates. We helped 34 the dgs
      and cats there. Sme f them were s cute!
      That night, I was 35 , but I felt very happy. I learned that being 36 t thers can make us feel
      gd t. I want t d mre gd things in the future.
      One day, I saw a little girl 37 near the schl gate (大门). I went t her and asked if (是否) she
      needed help. She said she culdn’t find 38 mther. I tk her hand and walked arund the schl t lk
      fr her 39 . After abut ten minutes, we fund her mther in the schl ffice. The little girl was s excited
      and hugged (拥抱) her mther 40 . Her mther thanked me 41 said I was a gd child.
      That was a 42 day. I think helping thers is nt nly gd fr them, but als makes us feel happy. I
      will 43 this day frever. Being kind desn’t take much time, but it can make a big difference in smene’s
      life.
      ( ) 29. A. picks B. lives C. leaves D. acts
      ( ) 30. A. wrk B. grw C. ride D. litter
      ( ) 31. A. dumplings B. cffee C. flwers D. muttn
      ( ) 32. A. library B. classrm C. playgrund D. gym
      ( ) 33. A. unhappy B. helpful C. pr D. silly
      ( ) 34. A. water B. play C. feed D. finish
      ( ) 35. A. excited B. hungry C. tired D. afraid
      ( ) 36. A. kind B. bad C. terrible D. awful
      ( ) 37. A. singing B. eating C. crying D. cking
      ( ) 38. A. my B. his C. their D. her
      ( ) 39. A. mther B. father C. sister D. brther
      ( ) 40. A. happily B. slwly C. brightly D. heavily
      ( ) 41. A. r B. but C. and D. s
      ( ) 42. A. tiring B. bring C. meaningful D. playful
      ( ) 43. A. frget B. hate C. remember D. practise
      B)先阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题
      卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。
      s silly free quickly him agree what tth life eat fx
      Once upn a time, there was a tiger. One day, it caught a 44 in the frest. The tiger didn’t eat anything
      all day. 45 he was very hungry.
      The fx was afraid but he didn’t want t lse his 46 . Then he had an idea t save himself. When the
      tiger pened his muth (嘴) full f sharp (锋利的) lng 47 t eat the fx, the fx said, “Yu can’t 48
      me. I’m the king f all the animals in the frest!”
      The tiger didn’t believe 49 the fx said. The fx said, “Just fllw me. I will shw yu hw ther
      animals are afraid f me.”
      The tiger 50 and then he fllwed the fx. As they walked in the frest, all the animals went away
      51 . The tiger thught the animals were afraid f the fx. Then he decided nt t eat the fx. At last, he set the
      fx 52 . Hw 53 the tiger was! He didn’t understand that the animals were afraid f 54
      instead f the fx. D yu knw the name f the stry
      44. _________ 45. _________ 46. _________ 47. _________ 48. _________
      49. _________ 50. _________ 51. _________ 52. _________ 53. _________ 54. _________
      四、阅读理解(每小题 2 分,共 46 分)
      A)阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      【Chinese Traditinal Culture Fair (博览会)】
      Time: May 15th-May 17th, 9:00 am. - 5:00 pm.
      Lcatin: City Museum, 2nd Flr
      Cme and experience Chinese traditinal culture!
      Activities:
      ·Paper Cutting (剪纸): Learn t cut beautiful patterns with paper
      ·Chinese Calligraphy (书法): Try writing with brush and ink
      ·Tea Ceremny (茶艺): Watch and taste different kinds f Chinese tea
      ·Face-changing Shw (变脸): See the amazing perfrmance
      Free admissin (免费入场) fr students under 18!
      Fr mre infrmatin, call 123-4567.
      ( ) 55. When can peple visit the Chinese Traditinal Culture Fair
      A. On May 14th. B. Frm 9 am. t 5 pm. n May 15th-17th.
      C. Every day in May. D. Only n weekends.
      ( ) 56. What can visitrs NOT d at the fair
      A. Watch a tea ceremny. B. Learn paper cutting.
      C. Buy traditinal Chinese paintings. D. See a face-changing shw.
      ( ) 57. Hw much shuld a 16-year-ld student pay
      A. 0 yuan. B. 16 yuan. C. 10 yuan. D. 18 yuan.
      B
      My grandfather is seventy years ld, but he lks very yung fr his age. He has a secret t staying healthy.
      Grandpa gets up early every mrning at six ’clck. First, he drinks a glass f warm water. Then he ges t
      the park t practice Tai Chi fr an hur. He says Tai Chi is gd fr bth bdy and mind.
      Fr breakfast, Grandpa usually has sme prridge (粥) with eggs and a piece f bread. He never eats t much
      r t little. “Eating the right amunt (量) is imprtant,” he always says.
      Grandpa als likes reading. He reads newspapers and bks every day. He says reading keeps the mind active
      (活跃的). Smetimes, he reads t me stries abut ancient Chinese heres. I lve listening t him.
      In the evening, Grandpa ften plays chess with his friends in the cmmunity center. He says playing chess
      helps him think carefully. He wins mst f the games, but he never basts (吹嘘) abut it.
      Grandpa is my her (英雄). I hpe I can be as healthy as him when I grw up.
      ( ) 58. What time des Grandpa get up every mrning
      A. At 5:00. B. At 6:00. C. At 7:00. D. At 8:00.
      ( ) 59. What des Grandpa usually have fr breakfast
      A. He has vegetables. B. He has rice.
      C. He has milk and bread. D. He has prridge, eggs and bread.
      ( ) 60. What des Grandpa usually d in the evening
      A. He usually plays chess. B. He usually practices Tai Chi.
      C. He usually reads bks. D. He usually watches TV.
      ( ) 61. Why des the writer call Grandpa his her
      A. Because Grandpa wins all the chess games.
      B. Because Grandpa lks yung.
      C. Because Grandpa is healthy and has gd habits.
      D. Because Grandpa reads stries.
      ( ) 62. What is the main idea f the passage
      A. Grandpa’s daily diet (日常饮食). B. Grandpa’s secret t staying healthy.
      C. Grandpa’s favrite activities. D. Grandpa’s childhd stries.
      C
      D yu knw that animals can help peple in many ways Sme animals are ur friends and helpers.
      Dgs are the mst cmmn helper animals. They can guide (引导) blind peple t walk safely n the street.
      They can als help peple wh cannt hear sunds. These special dgs are called guide dgs. They are trained (训
      练) t help their wners in different situatins (情况).
      Cats are gd at catching mice. On farms, cats help prtect grain (谷物) by keeping mice away. At hme, they
      can make peple feel relaxed. Studies shw that watching cats can lwer (降低) peple’s stress (压力) levels.
      Hrses can carry heavy things and help farmers wrk in the field. In sme places, hrses are still used fr
      transprtatin (交通). They can als help children with special needs. Riding hrses can be a kind f therapy (疗法)
      fr them.
      Dlphins are knwn fr their intelligence (智力). They can help dctrs wrk with sick children. Swimming
      with dlphins can make the children feel happy and relaxed.
      We shuld prtect animals and never hurt them. They are ur friends n this planet (星球).
      ( ) 63. What can guide dgs help blind peple d
      A. Catch mice. B. Lwer stress levels.
      C. Walk safely. D. D therapy.
      ( ) 64. The underlined wrd “they” in Paragraph 3 refers t (指的是) ________.
      A. mice B. cats C. grain D. farms
      ( ) 65. Hw can hrses help children with special needs
      A. By carrying heavy things. B. By wrking in the field.
      C. By being used fr training. D. By riding as a kind f therapy.
      ( ) 66. What is the main idea f the last paragraph
      A. Animals are useful. B. We shuld prtect animals.
      C. Animals are ur family. D. We shuld never hurt dgs.
      ( ) 67. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure (结构) f the passage
      A. B.
      C. D.
      D
      Last summer, my family went n a trip t the cuntryside. It was ne f the mst unfrgettable experiences
      (经历) in my life.
      We left early in the mrning. The air was fresh and the sun was shining brightly (阳光普照). After a tw-hur
      bus ride, we arrived at a small village. The village was surrunded by green hills and clear rivers. Everything was
      s peaceful (平静的) and beautiful.
      Our first stp was a tea farm. I learned hw tea leaves were picked and prcessed (加工). The farmer shwed
      us the traditinal way f making Chinese tea. I even gt t taste sme fresh green tea. It was really delicius!
      In the afternn, we visited an ld temple (寺庙) n the hill. It was ver tw hundred years ld. My father
      tk many phts there. We als had a picnic by the river. My mther made sandwiches and my sister brught
      sme fruits.
      The best part f the trip was the night. We stayed in a farmhuse. There were n city lights, s we culd see
      thusands f stars in the sky. My grandfather tld us stries abut the stars and the mn. I had never seen such a
      beautiful night sky befre.
      This trip taught me t appreciate (欣赏) the nature. It als brught my family clser tgether. I will always
      remember thse happy days in the cuntryside.
      ( ) 68. Hw lng did the bus ride take
      A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs. D. Fur hurs.
      ( ) 69. What did the writer d at the tea farm
      A. He picked strawberries. B. He met sme plicemen.
      C. He bught sme tea. D. He learned abut tea making and tasted tea.
      ( ) 70. The underlined wrd “unfrgettable” means ______.
      A. Smething yu want t frget. B. Smething yu will always remember.
      C. Smething very bring. D. Smething very scary.
      ( ) 71. Why was the night the best part f the trip
      A. Because they stayed in an ld temple. B. Because they culd see many stars.
      C. Because their grandfather tld stries. D. Because there was n city light.
      ( ) 72. What can we infer (推断) frm the passage
      A. The writer didn’t enjy the trip.
      B. The writer wants t live in the cuntryside.
      C. The writer had a wnderful family trip.
      D. The writer desn’t like nature.
      B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容,从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五
      个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,一空一句。
      Fur cws lived in a frest near a meadw (草地). They were gd friends. 73 They walked arund
      tgether, ate grass tgether and stayed tgether day and night. Because they were always tgether, they were able t
      prtect (保护) each ther frm tigers and lins. 74
      But ne day, the fur friends gt int a big argument (争吵). They culdn’t wrk it ut and all decided t
      leave and g their wn way. Then they each fund a new meadw t live in. 75 He thught that this culd
      be a gd chance t kill the cws and enjy a gd meal. One by ne, the lin hunted the cws and killed them.
      76 What the cws did nt understand is that there is strength (力量) in numbers. This is true even fr
      humans (人类). If we stay clse t ur friends and family, they can give us the strength t get thrugh hard times.
      77 D yu agree
      A. But a lin sn fund them.
      B. They did everything tgether.
      C. We shuld prtect animals.
      D. I think friends are imprtant in ur lives.
      E. The stry gives us smething t think abut.
      F. These animals may want t kill them fr fd.
      G. And we can als help them when they are in truble.
      73. _________ 74. _________ 75. _________ 76. _________ 77. _________
      五、补全对话(每小题 1 分,共 5 分)
      请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、
      合理,意思完整。一空一句。
      Amy: Hi, Mike! What d yu usually d after schl
      Mike: (78) ______________
      Amy: That’s gd fr yur health! What sprt d yu like best
      Mike: I like basketball best. (79) ______________
      Amy: I dn’t play sprts ften, but I have a pet dg at hme.
      Mike: A pet dg (80) ______________
      Amy: Its name is Lucky. It’s very cute and smart.
      Mike: Lucky sunds like a gd friend. (81) ______________
      Amy: Yes, it des. We ften play tgether in the park.
      Mike: That sunds fun! (82) ______________
      Amy: That sunds great! Let’s g t the park tgether after schl tmrrw!
      Mike: Great! See yu tmrrw!
      A. I’d lve t play with Lucky t.
      B. What’s its name
      C. D yu walk it every day
      D. I usually play basketball.
      E. What abut yu
      F. Hw ften d yu exercise
      G. Des it like playing with yu
      78. _________ 79. _________ 80. _________ 81. _________ 82. _________
      六、书面表达。(15 分)
      今天是星期六,在 Mr. Li 的带领下 Chen Jie 和同学们一起参观了科学博物馆。请根据下面思维导图中
      的写作要点帮助 Chen Jie 完成今天的英文日记。
      要求:
      1.字数 80 词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
      2.语句通顺,语法正确,可适当发挥;
      3.文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。
      Saturday, 30 June
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________

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