天津市河东区2025 - 2026学年第二学期初一期末练习卷（英语） 英语试卷含答案

这是一份天津市河东区2025 - 2026学年第二学期初一期末练习卷（英语） 英语试卷含答案，共51页。试卷主要包含了请注意你周围不同种类的植物等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。第Ⅰ卷第1页至第8页，第Ⅱ卷第9页至第12页。试卷满分100分。考试时间90分钟。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共五大题 共65分）
注意事项：
1．答第Ⅰ卷前，考生务必先将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔填在“答题卡”上；然后再将准考证号、考试科目用2B铅笔涂在“答题卡”相对应的信息点上。
2．每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把“答题卡”上对应题目的答案的序号的信息点涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。
3．用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将Ⅱ卷答案答在答题纸上。
4．考试结束后，监考人员将答题纸和试卷一并收回。
一、听力理解（本大题共16小题，满分20分）
第一节（共3小题；每小题1分，满分3分）
在下列每小题中，你将听到一个或两个句子并看到供选择的A、B、C三幅图画。选出与你所听句子内容相匹配的图画。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后都有1个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
4. Where is the wman ging?
A. T England.B. T China.C. T Australia.
5. Wh lves animals?
A. Mary’s father.B. Mary’s mther.C. Mary’s aunt.
6. When did Grace take the pht f the Great Wall?
A. Last Mnday.B. Last Saturday.C. Last Sunday.
7. What is Bruce’s hbby?
A. Cllecting psters.B. Watching ld mvies.C. Playing the guitar.
8. Hw lng did Catherine stay in the village?
A. Fr seven days.B. Fr ten days.C. Fr twelve days.
第三节（共8小题；每小题1.5分，满分12分）
听下面长对话或独白。每段长对话或独白后有几个问题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听下面一段对话，回答第9至第10小题。
9. What will Lily and Bb d in the mrning?
A. Plant trees.B. Grw flwers.C. Have a picnic.
10. What advice des Bb give Lily?
A. T stay with the grup.
B. T bring mre fd.
C. T run if she sees a bear.
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13小题。
11. What is the interesting stry abut?
A. A trip.B. A family.C. A girl.
12. Hw lng des Bruce usually read after schl?
A. Fr half an hur.B. Fr an hur.C. Fr ne and a half hurs.
13. What kind f bks des Bruce like best?
A. Science bks.B. Histry bks.C. Stry bks.
听下面一段独白，回答第14至第16小题。
14. What did peple d in the ld shps lng ag?
A. Made paper cutting.B. Kept mney safe.C. Sld red lanterns.
15. Wh will help visitrs make red paper art?
A. Students.B. Shp wners.C. Lcal teachers.
16. What can visitrs see frm the city walls?
A. Old huses.B. Blue seas.C. Tall buildings.
二、单项填空（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
17. The yunger player wn _______ gld medal in ________ internatinal cmpetitin last year.
A. an; aB. a; aC. a; anD. an; an
18. ________ grasslands, frests and fields are all green. That’s ________ favurite clur.
A. Our; myB. Ours; myC. Our; meD. Ours; me
19. My parents ften tell me t be a ______________ student and share my smile with thers.
A. silentB. lnelyC. psitiveD. crrect
20. My singing cmpetitin was great. I think I have a better _________ f winning a medal.
A. chiceB. chanceC. basketD. stmach
21. _________ f the ten bks abut fd is Mia’s. Hers is in her schlbag.
A. AllB. BthC. NeitherD. Nne
22. We’d better ___________ ur lessns again t make sure we knw everything in the passage.
A. agree withB. put dwnC. sweep acrssD. g ver
23. He writes as __________ as his brther.
A. carefulB. mre carefulC. carefullyD. mre carefully
24. — Tm did _________ in his team.
— Yes. He trained _________ this year than last year.
A. better; hardB. best; harderC. best; hardestD. well; hard
25. Yesterday Eric ____________ his lng hair and gave it t a hspital.
A. cutB. cutsC. will cutD. is cutting
26. We lst the basketball game, _________ we still learned a lt and imprved ur skills.
A. andB. becauseC. rD. but
27. Dn’t talk abut thers ____________ their backs. It’s rude t d that.
A. behindB. intC. frmD. under
28. Many peple like the team. They ___________ give up easily and always keep n fighting.
A. smetimesB. neverC. evenD. nly
29. My parents always encurage me ____________ questins because asking questins can help me think actively.
A. askB. askedC. t askD. asking
30. — Daming, try this strawberry cake.
— It ______ sweet. I wuld like t have sme mre.
A. feelsB. smellsC. tastesD. lks
31. — It’s s much fun t ride ur bikes t the library.
— ________. It’s t far, s we can g by bus.
A. I’m afraid I dn’t agreeB. That sunds interesting
C. Have a nice tripD. That’s a gd idea
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
During his life, Dr James Naismith wrked as a dctr, taught PE and wrte several bks. But tday he is 32 fr ne thing. He was the inventr (发明者) f basketball.
Dr Naismith was brn in Canada in 1861 and his first 33 was at a special sprts schl in the US. One day, the 34 was bad and the students culdn’t g ut. The students 35 a new sprt t play indrs, s the schl principal (校长) went t James fr help.
Finally James came up with a gd 36 . “The birth f basketball” is said t be n 21st December 1891. Tw 37 frm the schl played the first game. It was nt the 38 as tday’s basketball games. It had nine 39 n each team and they used ftballs t play. Sn after, the game 40 t 5 players n each side.
In 1936, just three years befre Dr Naismith died, basketball 41 an Olympic sprt at the Games in Berlin.
32. A. fitB. braveC. famusD. strange
33. A. jbB. phtC. twnD. chess
34. A. plB. weatherC. memryD. disease
35. A. finishedB. refusedC. fllwedD. needed
36. A. passageB. ideaC. lifeD. medal
37. A. teamsB. studentsC. teachersD. writers
38. A. fullB. wideC. sameD. silent
39. A. players.B. chancesC. galsD. ffices
40. A. tuchedB. changedC. blewD. frgt
41. A. taughtB. chseC. agreedD. became
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
阅读下面的短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Wuyi Muntain in Fujian is famus fr its nice tea. The muntain has red rcks and a curving (弯曲的) river called Nine-Bend River and it grws Rck Tea.
Farmers pick leaves every April while singing sweet sngs. They als learn a Tea-Picking Dance: their fingers mve quickly like butterflies as they act like picking leaves. This dance shws thanks t nature.
T prtect hme fr animals and plants, visitrs shuld learn the rules t make sure they put rubbish int the rubbish bins (垃圾桶). In 2025, it even uses sun-pwered bats and AI rbts t help clean up.
Wuyi Muntain teaches us: when we prtect nature, nature gives back. Every clean river, every singing bird, and every tea leaf reminds us — we are part f this beautiful wrld. Let’s care fr the earth like caring fr ur wn hme!
42. What is Wuyi Muntain in Fujian famus fr?
A. Its red rcks.B. Its nice tea.
C. Its curving river.D. Its sun-pwered bats.
43. When d farmers pick tea leaves?
A. In March.B. In April.
C. In Octber.D. In Nvember.
44. What d dancers’ hands d in the Tea-Picking Dance?
A. Shake like flying birds.B. Shake fast like thunder.
C. Mve slwly like wind.D. Mve like butterflies.
45. Why are there sun-pwered bats and AI rbts in Wuyi Muntain?
A. T help welcme the turists.B. T help carry the visitrs.
C. T help shw the travel rules.D. T help clean up.
46. What des Wuyi Muntain teach visitrs?
A. Tea is the mst imprtant drink.B. Muntains are fun t climb.
C. Man and nature need each ther.D. Rbts can slve all prblems.
B
I have many delicius memries, and ne f the mst special nes is abut making ckies with my grandma.
It was a sunny weekend. I went t my grandma’s huse as usual. When I walked int the kitchen, grandma was standing by the table. She said, “We’re ging t make sme delicius ckies tday, my dear.” I was s excited because I always lved spending time with her in the kitchen.
Grandma had already prepared all the ingredients n the table. There was flur, sugar, butter, eggs, and sme chclate chips. We mixed them, kneaded (揉捏) the dugh, and made different shapes. We baked the ckies and then we tasted them. The ckies were crispy (松脆的) n the ut-side and sft n the inside, and the chclate chips melted in my muth. It was the best taste ever. We ate them tgether, sharing stries and laughing. That day, I learned t make ckies and created a beautiful memry. Nw, the smell f ckies reminds (使想起) me f that special time with grandma.
47. When did the stry happen?
A. On a rainy weekday.B. On a sunny weekday.
C. On a sunny weekend.D. On a rainy weekend.
48. Where were the ingredients prepared?
A. In the fridge.B. On the plate.
C. In the bwl.D. On the table.
49. What did grandma and the writer d first when making ckies?
A. Kneaded the dugh.B. Made the dugh int different shapes.
C. Cleaned the kitchen.D. Mixed the ingredients.
50. What were the ckies like?
A. Dry and hard.B. Crispy and salty inside.
C. Crispy utside and sft inside.D. Sft utside and sweet.
51. What des the smell f ckies remind the writer f?
A. The writer’s happy childhd.B. The special time with grandma.
C. The writer’s friends.D. The writer’s schl life.
C
Keeping healthy makes us full f energy fr study and play. It’s nt hard t d, and it brings us many gd things.
Eating well is the first step. We need t eat mre fruits and vegetables, like apples, ptates and carrts. They give us vitamins t stay strng. Dn’t eat t many candies r chips. A glass f milk in the mrning and sme rice r bread fr meals can keep us full and happy.
Ding exercise is als imprtant. Running fr a few minutes after schl, playing basketball with friends, r even walking t schl — all these can help us sleep better and feel less tired. It’s like charging ur bdies with energy!
Sleeping enugh is a secret t health. We need abut 8 t 9 hurs f sleep every night. Ging t bed early and getting up n time makes us fresh in the mrning. N mre staying up late t play games — ur bdies need rest t grw.
Smiling and staying happy is part f a healthy life t. Talk with family when we feel sad, and play with friends when we are bred. A happy heart helps us active.
A healthy lifestyle is nt hard. Just remember: eat well, mve mre, sleep enugh and stay happy. Let’s start tday and grw up healthy!
52. Hw many tips can keep us healthy accrding t the passage?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.D. Six.
53. Which f the fllwing is a gd way t get vitamins?
A. Eating fruits and vegetables.B. Eating sme chclates.
C. Drinking much cla.D. Eating many chips
54. What is like “charging ur bdies with energy” accrding t the passage?
A. Eating a big meal.B. Sleeping all day.
C. Ding exercise.D. Smiling and staying happy.
55. Hw lng shuld we sleep every night?
A. Abut 3 t 4 hurs.B. Abut 8 t 9 hurs.
C. Abut 5 t 6 hurs.D. Abut 11 t 12 hurs.
56. What is part f a healthy life accrding t the passage?
A. Eating few vegetables.B. Mving less.
C. Watching TV until 2 am.D. Keeping smile.
五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话的内容，从方框内选择恰当的句子将对话补充完整（选项中有两项是多余的）。
A: Sam, what’s yur dream?
B: 57
A: Ww! Are yu gd at playing ftball?
B: N. I can play it, but I can’t play it well. 58
A: That’s gd. Practice makes perfect.
B: 59
A: I want t be a teacher like my mther.
B: 60 It’s really nt easy t be a gd teacher.
A: Yes, that’s true. But I like children and my mther can help me a lt.
B: OK. Let’s wrk hard frm nw n. 61
2025-2026学年第二学期七年级期末质量检测
英语试卷
第Ⅱ卷
注意事项：
1．用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将答案写在“答题卡”上。
2．本卷共四大题，共35分。
六、完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据所给中文意思完成句子，每空限填一词。
62．不要在背后嘲笑别人。
Dn’t _________ _________ thers behind their backs.
63．做饭是我们一家人日常生活中必不可少的一部分。
Cking meals is an essential part f ur _________ _________ as a family.
64．我真的很期待接下来的中国之旅。
I’m really _________ _________ t the rest f my trip arund China!
65．一般来说，读英语故事可以帮助我们提高英语水平。
_________ _________, reading English stries can help us imprve ur English.
66．请注意你周围不同种类的植物。
Please _________ _________ t the different kinds f plants arund yu.
七、任务型阅读（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
阅读短文并完成句子
What d yu ften d t relax yurself in yur free time? D yu d sprts? Or d yu talk with yur families and friends? Being immersed (沉浸) in music is ne f the gd ways.
Nwadays, peple are becming mre and mre tired. After a lng and busy day, sme peple like listening t music. Different peple like different kinds f music. Sme yung peple are the fans f rck music. They feel excited when they listen t rck music. But sme peple can’t stand (忍受) rck music. They think that the drums in it are t nisy. They like classical music written by famus musicians such as Mzart and Strauss. They wrte many pieces f wnderful music. Others enjy playing musical instruments (乐器), such as pian and vilin. When they are playing, they feel happy and peaceful. And sme peple are gd at singing, because they have gd vice. They lve singing because it is gd fr their mind and bdy. Besides, singing is a gd way fr peple t have fun and make new friends.
All in all, music can help peple relax.
67. Peple ften feel tired after _____________________ day.
68. Sme peple can’t stand rck music because they think that ______________________.
69. When sme peple are playing the pian, they feel _______________________________.
70. Sme peple are gd at singing because ___________________________.
71. Singing is a gd way fr peple ________________________________.
八、综合填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词，使短文意思完整。每空限填一词。
Did yu knw that tea, the mst ppular drink in the wrld, was invented by accident (偶然的)? Many peple believe that tea was first drunk abut 5,000 years ag. It is said that a Chinese ruler called Shen Nng was the f 72 t discver tea as a drink. One day Shen Nng was biling (煮) drinking water ver an pen fire. Sme l 73 frm a tea plant fell int the water and remained there fr sme time. It prduced a nice smell, s 74 he tasted the brwn water. It was quite d 75 , and s, ne f the wrld’s favurite drinks was invented.
A few thusand years l 76 , Lu Yu, “the saint (圣人) f the tea”, mentined Shen Nng in his bk Cha Jing. The bk describes hw tea plants were grwn and used t make tea. It als discusses where the finest tea leaves were prduced and what kinds f water were used.
It is believed that tea was b 77 t Krea and Japan during the 6th and 7th centuries. In England, tea didn’t a 78 until arund 1660, but in less than 100 years, it had becme the natinal drink. The tea trade frm China t Western cuntries t 79 place in the 19th century. This h 80 t spread the ppularity f tea and the tea plant t mre places arund the wrld. Even thugh many peple nw knw abut tea c 81 , the Chinese are withut dubt the nes wh best understand the nature f tea.
九、书面表达（本大题共10分）
82．假如你是李华，上周六你和同学们去养老院做志愿者。请你根据以下提示，给国外的笔友Jhn写一封英文电子邮件，与他分享这个有意义的活动。
（1）天气晴朗，你和同学骑车去养老院，早上8:30到达。
（2）你们为老人打扫房间、洗衣服、读报纸等，大约11:30离开。
（3）期待下次再去以及你的感受……
参考词汇：养老院ld peple’s hme
要求：
（1）词数：60—80。
（2）邮件的格式、开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
（3）要点齐全，行文连贯，可适当发挥。
Dear Jhn,
Hw is it ging? I’m glad t tell yu smething abut _________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
D yu have smething interesting t share with me? Lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li HuaA. What abut yu, Emma?
B. I want t be a ftball star.
C. Why d yu want t be a teacher?
D. Did yu win the ftball match yesterday?
E. I think ur dreams will cme true ne day.
F. S I want t jin the Ftball Club this term.
G. When d yu usually practise playing ftball?