2025——2026年济南槐荫区七年级第二学期英语期中考试试题以及答案

这是一份2025——2026年济南槐荫区七年级第二学期英语期中考试试题以及答案，共3页。试卷主要包含了5 分，满分 7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. Alice is frm the UK.
B. Tny gets up at six.
C. The schl trip is wnderful.
2.A. Dn’t take phts here.
B. Turn ff the lights.
C. Please send me an email.
3.A. Linda isn’t gd at dancing.
B. They can’t play chess.
C. I dn’t have a vlleyball.
4.A. D yu ften play sprts?
B. Is there a supermarket?
C. Wuld yu like sme apples?
5.A. Hw much is the ygurt?
B. Whse badmintn is this?
C. What’s yur favurite animal?
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Hw des Lisa g t the sprts center?
A. On ft.
B. By bicycle.
C. By bus.
7. What des Lily have?
A. A tennis racket.
B. A ping-png bat.
C. A basketball.
8. Wh needs help with English?
A. Jim.
B. Amy.
C. Sandy.
9. When des Tina want t g t the cinema?
A. This Friday mrning.
B. This Friday afternn.
C. This Saturday mrning.
10. Where d they have the cnversatin?
A. At schl.
B. In a shp.
C. In a hspital.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What did Sarah d last night?
A. Watched TV.
B. Did her hmewrk.
C. Wrte a letter.
12. What clr is a plar bear’s fur?
A. Black.
B. White.
C. N clr.
13. What’s a plar bear gd at?
A. Running.
B. Walking.
C. Swimming.
14. What d plar bears eat?
A. Fish.
B. Eagles.
C. Ice.
15. What are they talking abut?
A. A TV shw—Animal Wrld.
B. Plar bears in danger.
C. Dangerus pets.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where des Beth wrk?
A. In a shp.
B. In a library.
C. In a hspital.
17. What did Beth ften d at night befre?
A. Watched TV.
B. Played cmputer games.
C. Read bks.
18. Hw lng is Beth’s dance class?
A. One hur.
B. Tw hurs.
C. Three hurs.
19. Hw des Beth feel nw?
A. Happy and healthy.
B. Sad and wrried.
C. Bred and tired.
20. What may Beth take with her?
A. A cmputer.
B. Sme fruit.
C. Sme candies.
第二部分 语音（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
在每题所给的四个选项中，选出划线字母发音不同的一项。
21. A. fit B. arrive C. time D. while
22. A. yes B. yellw C. try D. yard
23. A. bread B. sweater C. heavy D. great
24. A. year B. wear C. hear D. near
25. A. grw B. dwn C. hw D. brwn
第三部分 阅读（共三节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 12 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
26.What can students d in the activity?
A. Eat hamburgers.
B. Order a salad.
C. Ck Chinese fd.
D. Make a salad.
27.If ne picks Optin A, when shuld he arrive?
A. At 9:00 a.m. n April 18.
B. At 3:00 p.m. n April 18.
C. At 9:00 a.m. n April 19.
D. At 3:00 p.m. n April 19.
28.Hw much shuld tw members and ne nn-member pay fr Optin B?
A. ¥80
B. ¥85
C. ¥140
D. ¥145
B
Tday, English signs are everywhere in ur daily life. Let’s learn sme cmmn nes!
On the street, yu can see many traffic signs. STOP tells cars, bikes and peple t stp. means yu can’t put yur car r bike there. When yu’re riding a bike t schl, yu must be careful. When yu see a, yu must nt turn left, but g straight (直行) r turn right instead. If there is a, yu shuld slw dwn and watch ut fr peple crssing the rad.means “Danger!” r “Be careful!” That sign reminds us that there might be smething dangerus in frnt, like a sharp bend (急转弯), rad wrk, r ther dangers.
In buildings like hspitals,ENTER is where yu g in, and EXIT is the way ut—this is very imprtant in emergencies (紧急情况), such as in fires (火灾) r earthquakes (地震). When yu g shpping fr clthes, “S” (small), “M” (medium) and “L” (large) shw sizes. Yu might see—it helps yu g nline fr free. If yu see the sign VIP, d yu knw what it means?
These signs are shrt and easy t understand. What ther English signs d yu knw? Next time, try t find them arund yu.
29.Hw des the writer intrduce English signs in the text?
A. By giving examples.
B. By listing numbers.
C. By telling reasns.
D. By asking questins.
30.What’s the rule fr the sign ?
A. N phts.
B. N parking.
C. N playing.
D. N painting.
31.Which sign can guide yu t leave quickly when the cinema catches a fire?
32.Which f the fllwing shws the structure f the text?
C
Animals are ur clse friends. We knw that guide dgs help blind peple mve arund and finish daily tasks. Nw, sme hrses can d the same jb. Digby is a small American hrse. It is the first guide hrse in England. Its wner is a blind man called Mhammed Patel. Patel is scared f dgs, s he chses Digby as his guide.
Digby receives lts f training with Patel. It learns t walk at a gentle (轻柔的) speed and lead Patel alng the streets. It als helps Patel get bks frm shelves (架子) and pick ut clthes when he ges shpping.
Digby is nt small at all. It is abut 0.8 meters tall, s it can’t enter Patel’s ffice. When it is taken t the ffice, it kncks ff (撞倒) things n desks. S Patel has t say gdbye t Digby. He feels he lses a friend. Later, Digby gets a new rle. It helps blind peple visit sme well-knwn places in Lndn.
We knw a guide dg can wrk fr arund 8 years. But a guide hrse can wrk fr nearly 40 years, which makes it a “lifelng friend” fr peple.
33.Why des Patel chse Digby as his guide?
A. Because Digby is very tall.
B. Because guide dgs are t expensive.
C. Because Patel thinks dgs are scary.
D. Because Patel lves hrses very much.
34.What can NOT we learn abut Digby frm Paragraph 2?
A. It walks slwly and gently.
B. It helps Patel get bks frm shelves.
C. It helps Patel with shpping.
D. It takes Patel t schl every day.
35.Hw des Patel feel when he has t leave Digby?
A. Surprised.
B. Unhappy.
C. Excited.
D. Relaxed.
36.What can we learn frm the text?
A. Guide hrses wrk lnger than guide dgs.
B. Digby is the first guide hrse in America.
C. Patel says gdbye t Digby because he desn’t like it.
D. Guide hrses can nly help with daily tasks at hme.
37.What can be the title fr the text?
A. A Blind Man’s Daily Life
B. The Wrking Life f Guide Dgs
C. Hw t Train a Guide Hrse
D. A Special Guide Hrse Named Digby
第二节 阅读六选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Experts say that students usually need eight t ten hurs’ sleep at night. 38
Sme Chinese parents are usually happy t see their children studying late. 39 But nt all parents are happy abut this because thusands f student “early birds” in China have t get up befre six every mrning.
A reprt shws that withut (没有) a gd night’s sleep, students may get tired mre easily. 40 . T much hmewrk is nt the nly reasn why students stay up late. 41
42 , S sme clever students never study late, and they can wrk well in class.
第三节 标题匹配（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面五个语段，从给定的选项中选择一个最符合其主旨的标题。每个语段只对应一个最佳标题。
（ ）43.Tday, there is a new tech called DeepSeek. It has a smart brain t answer questins. It wrks well but csts little. Its mdel, DeepSeek-R1, wrks ut hard prblems in ur lives. Many peple use it t wrk better. Later, it may help ld peple and dctrs.
（ ）44.There is a special rbt frm Japan called NICOBO. It is nt fr cleaning r wrking. Instead, it is a friend fr lnely peple. NICOBO lks like a ball, and it can turn arund, nd, and lk at yu. It can als say sme wrds and tell sme stries. Many peple in Japan like it very much.
（ ）45.Peple live in different kinds f huses arund the wrld. Wang Hui lives in a cave huse in Shanxi. It is cl in summer and warm in winter. Jhn’s family lives in an ice huse in Sweden. It is warm and strng. Teddy’s huse is n the water in Thailand. He ges ut by bat every day.
（ ）46.Tea is ne f the mst ppular drinks in China. There are many kinds: green tea, black tea, Olng tea and white tea. Peple say there are 10,000 kinds, but we mainly drink these. Dctrs say green tea is gd fr us, s we shuld drink sme every day.
（ ）47.Hell, I’m Li Xuan frm Jinan. I dream f being a painter. I lve painting because I can shw my feelings by drawing pictures. I ften sit by the windw and draw the blue sky, white cluds, and the small yard. I will keep practising and I believe I can be a gd painter in the future.
第四部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 30 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Welcme t ur restaurant! Here is a menu fr yu. 48
B: Let me have a lk.
A: Sir, may I take yur rder?
B: Yes. I’d like sme sup.
A: 49
B: I’d like beef sup. 50
A: Yes. There are sme tmates in it.
B: OK. I’d like a bwl f beef sup.
A: Wuld yu like rice r steamed buns (馒头) t g with the beef sup?
B: 51
A: OK. We have Map tfu. Wuld yu like t try it?
B: Yes, please. What’s the ttal?
A: Just a mment, please. A bwl f beef sup, tw steamed buns, and a plate f Map tfu. The ttal amunt is 45 yuan.
B: I see. 52
A: Thank yu, sir. Enjy yur meal!
48.A. What wuld yu like fr dinner?
B. What d yu usually have fr dinner?
C. Can yu help me?
D. Where are yu frm?
49.A. Hw many bwls f sup wuld yu like?
B. Wuld yu like rice r dumplings?
C. Hw d yu like beef sup?
D. What kind f sup wuld yu like?
50.A. D yu have any specials tday?
B. Can yu make beef sup?
C. What abut sme chicken sup?
D. Are there any vegetables in the beef sup?
51.A. Sme rice, please.
B. Tw steamed buns, please.
C. I have n idea.
D. N, I wuldn’t.
52.A. They’re t expensive.
B. Nice t meet yu.
C. Here’s the mney.
D. Yu’re welcme.
第二节 完形填空（共 8 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 8 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A rich wman has an expensive and beautiful vase (花瓶). And she lves it very much. She wants t 53 her bedrm the same clr as the vase. Sme painters try t mix (调配) the clr right, but nbdy cmes 54 enugh t make the wman happy. At last, a painter named Peter cmes alng. He lks very cnfident (自信的), saying he can mix the clr right. And he 55 . The wman is pleased (满意的) with the result and gives Peter a lt f 56 t thank him. After that, Peter becmes very 57 .
58 many years, Peter’s sn asks him, “Dad, 59 did yu get thse walls t match the vase s perfectly?”
“Easy, my sn,” Peter answers. “I painted the 60 !”
The stry tells us that if we lk at it in a different light, the prblem may be easier t slve (解决).
53.A. draw B. write C. paint D. turn
54.A. easily B. clse C. quickly D. near
55.A. succeeds B. finishes C. lses D. leaves
56.A. bks B. mney C. vegetables D. energy
57.A. pr B. kind C. helpful D. famus
58.A. Later B. Ag C. Befre D. After
59.A. Hw B. Wh C. Why D. What
60.A. walls B. dr C. vase D. windw
第三节 词汇语法运用（共 11 小题；61—65 题，每小题 1 分，66—71 题，每小题 2 分，满分 17 分）
61.Many kinds f animals live in the ______ (森林).
62.Yu shuld set a ______ (目标) and wrk n it until yu make it.
63.My mther enjys the ______ (甜的) bread with a cup f cffee as afternn tea.
64.______ (在… 之中) these three stries, I like the first ne best.
65.We are ld ______ (足够地) t lk after urselves.
66.D nt ______ (eat) t many sweet things.
67.Our classrm is n the secnd flr, and ______ (their) is n the third flr.
68.Linda ften ______ (hurry) t schl withut eating breakfast.
69.It’s very imprtant ______ (imprve) ur eating habits.
70.Chinese ______ (dish) always lk great.
71.Our teachers are kind and ______ (friend) t us.
第五部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
72.A: ________________________?
B: Because they’re very dangerus.
73.A: ________________________?
B: N, yu can’t. It’s nt gd fr them.
74.A: ________________________.
B: Three times a week.
75.A: Wuld yu like dumplings r ndles?
B: ________________________.
76.A: Hw des Jenny exercise?
B: ________________________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
刘教授将要来你校做一场关于如何选择经典阅读的讲座。假如你是学生会主席，请发表一份告全体同学书。内容包括：
1.讲座时间：五月十五日下午 2:00~4:00
2.讲座地点：学校礼堂
3.听讲座时同学们需要遵守的规则（至少四条）
读经典的好处并倡议同学们多读经典作品
注意：1.词数 100 左右，开头、结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Dear students,
We are very excited that Prfessr Liu will cme t ur schl t give a lecture (讲座) n hw t chse classic (经典的) reading.



Let’s wrk tgether t create an enjyable envirnment fr this activity. Thanks fr yur cperatin (配合)!
Student Unin
2025~2026 学年度第二学期期中质量检测七年级英语试题参考答案（2026.04）
第一部分 听力
1-5: BACAC
6-10: ABBBCA
11-15: BCCAB
16-20: CBBAB
第二部分 语音
21-25: ACDBA
第三部分 阅读
26-28: DAC
29-32: ABCA
33-37: CDBAD
38-42: ECFDA
43-47: DACEB
第四部分 语言运用
48-52: ADDBC
53-57: CBABD
58-60: DAC
61. frest/frests 62. gal 63. sweet 64. Amng 65. enugh 66. eat 67. theirs
68. hurries 69. t imprve 70. dishes 71. friendly
第五部分 写作
第一节 评分标准：
本题共 10 分。第 72—76 题，每小题 2 分。每个句子完全正确 2 分；出现错误但关键信息正确给 1 分；关键信息错误给 0 分。凡符合情境和语意的答案，均按评分标准给分。
72.Why dn’t yu like wlves?/ Why d yu nt like wlves?
73.Can I/we feed (the) birds?
74.Hw ften des Steve play baseball?
75.I wuld like ndles./ Ndles, please!
76.She uses an exercise app/ exercise apps (t exercise/ t d sprts/ t play sprts/ t wrk ut)./ She exercises by using an exercise app/ exercise apps.
范文
Dear students,
We are very excited that Prfessr Liu will cme t ur schl t give a lecture n hw t chse classic reading.
The lecture will be held in ur schl hall frm 2:00 p.m. t 4:00 p.m. n May 15th. We must fllw sme rules during the lecture. First, please arrive n time and keep quiet all the time. Secnd, dn’t run arund r talk ludly. Third, take ntes carefully and listen t the prfessr attentively. Furth, keep the hall clean and never eat r drink there.
Reading classics can braden ur hrizns and imprve ur writing skills. It als helps us learn mre gd qualities. Let’s develp a gd habit f reading classics every day.
Let’s wrk tgether t create an enjyable envirnment fr this activity. Thanks fr yur cperatin!
Student Unin
A. It’s imprtant t have gd study habits.
B. We shuld g t bed early instead f watching TV t late.
C. They think their children wrk very hard.
D. Watching TV r playing nline games t much is als a reasn.
E. But mst Chinese students d nt get enugh sleep.
F. Many students feel sleepy in class and can’t fcus n learning.
A. A Cute Rbt Friend B. My Dream Jb C. Huses Arund the Wrld
D. A Smart Helper E. Tea in China