山东济南槐荫区2025—2026学年七年级英语第一学期期中考试试题（含答案）

这是一份山东济南槐荫区2025—2026学年七年级英语第一学期期中考试试题（含答案），共8页。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用 0.5mm 黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A. UN B. VR C. UK
2.A. 10086 B. 10010 C. 12306
3.A. Gd night. B. Sit dwn. C. Let’s g.
4.A. This is an eraser. B. She has sme plants. C. Thse are rabbits.
5.A. Where is my schlbag? B. Hw ld are yu? C. What des he d?
第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. Wh is the girl in red?
A. Lily’s sister. B. Lily’s cusin. C. Lily’s friend.
7. What sprt des Fred like t play after schl?
A. Basketball. B. Ping-png. C. Tennis.
8. What clur is Emma’s new skirt?
A. Pink. B. White. C. Orange.
9. Hw many geese are there n the farm?
A. 18. B. 8. C. 10.
10. Where may Peter be nw?
A. In the library. B. On the sprts field. C. In the music hall.
第三节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What class is Lucy in?
A. Class 1, Grade 7. B. Class 2, Grade 7. C. Class 3, Grade 7.
12. What is their new schl like?
A. Small but clean. B. Old but big. C. Big and clean.
13. What’s Lucy’s favurite place in the schl.
A. The dining hall. B. The science building. C. The classrm building.
14. What’s Jack’s hbby?
A. Drawing pictures. B. Playing the vilin. C. Playing ftball.
15. Wh are they nw?
A. Cusins. B. Classmates. C. Schlmates.
第四节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题 A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有 40 秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有 40 秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Whse farm is this?
A. Helen’s father’s. B. Helen’s uncle’s. C. Helen’s grandpa’s.
17. Where d the chickens live?
A. Under the big tree. B. Next t the small lake. C. Near the farm dr.
18. What vegetables can Helen get?
A. Ptates. B. Carrts. C. Tmates.
19. What des Helen like ding best n weekends?
A. Milking the cws. B. Getting sme eggs. C. Watering the flwers.
20. Hw is Helen’s every weekend?
A. Fun. B. Busy. C. Sad.
第二部分 语音（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
在每题所给的四个选项中，选出黑体字母发音与所给音标发音相同的单词。
21. /ɪ/ A. vilin B. bike C. twin D. white
22. /eɪ/ A. same B. bat C. parrt D. panda
23. /ɒ/ A. cld B. bx C. tfu D. ntice
24. /æ/ A. grade B. carrt C. anther D. age
25. /əʊ/ A. sn B. pt C. ffice D. bth
第三部分 阅读（共三节，满分 50 分）
第一节 阅读理解（共 12 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Sam is a student wh likes keeping diaries (日记). Here are sme entries frm his diary. Let’s take a lk!
26.What is Sam’s art teacher like?
A. Bad. B. Kind. C. Smart. D. Free.
27.What des Sam like ding?
① keeping diaries ② watching TV ③ playing sccer ④ reading bks
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ①④ D. ②④
28.Wh are Sam’s best friends?
A. Pets. B. Tys. C. Diaries. D. Bks.
B
Tmrrw is Kate’s first day f middle schl, and a new term (学期) starts. Her mther buys her a new black schlbag. Kate is excited t have it. She sits n the chair, puts the schlbag n the desk and starts packing it.
First, she puts her pencil bx int the schlbag. What’s in the pencil bx? She has tw pens, an eraser, and a ruler. She als puts her clur pencils in the pencil bx. She can draw pictures with them fr her English teacher Mrs Smith. Next, she puts her scissrs in the schlbag. She wants t make cards with them fr her friends. Then, she puts all her textbks (课本) in it.
Kate puts all the schl things in her schlbag. What a great term it will be!
29.What clur is Kate’s new schlbag?
A. Brwn. B. Black. C. Yellw. D. Blue.
30.Hw many kinds f things are there in Kate’s pencil bx?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
31.Wh’s Mrs Smith?
A. Kate’s mther. B. Kate’s sister. C. Kate’s teacher. D. Kate’s aunt.
32.What is the text abut?
A. Kate’s new schlbag. B. Kate’s new schl.
C. Kate’s new friends. D. Kate’s new textbk.
C
Fr sme, ging t a new schl can be bth exciting and difficult. At first, Teng Fei feels sad because he has n ne t talk t at the new schl. He usually keeps his head dwn n the way t schl.
Every mrning Mrs Qin reads stries t the class. Tday, Teng Fei is surprised (感到惊喜的) when Mrs Qin reads a stry abut Sanma.
Teng Fei knws a lt abut Sanma’s stries, because his father gives him the bks t celebrate (庆祝) his 12th birthday. Teng Fei wants t shw his bks t the class after this class.
“These are bks abut Sanma. Yu see, this ne is abut Sanma making new friends, and that ne is abut Sanma helping the ld,” he says excitedly.
“Can I brrw (借) the bks frm yu? I’m als interested in Sanma. Why dn’t we meet after schl? Culd yu tell me everything abut the bks yu knw, Fei?” Chen Jie, ne f Teng Fei’s classmates asks. The friendly name Fei rings in Teng Fei’s ears. It sunds just like what an ld friend wuld say. Teng Fei smiles (微笑).
Nw he really has friends.
Why is Teng Fei unhappy at first?
33.A. He desn’t like telling stries. B. He has n friends.
C. He can’t learn English well. D. He is slw in running.
34.Why des Teng Fei knw s much abut Sanma?
A. Mrs Qin ften reads Sanma’s stries in class.
B. He is surprised by the stry Mrs Qin reads.
C. He wants t share the bks with his classmates.
D. His father gives him the bks as a birthday gift.
35.Hw des Teng Fei feel when he talks abut his bks?
A. Happy. B. Surprised. C. Sad. D. Wrried.
36.What des Chen Jie ask Teng Fei t d after schl?
A. T d hmewrk. B. T g t the library t brrw bks.
C. T buy the bk. D. T meet him and talk abut the stries.
37.Why can Teng Fei and Chen Jie becme friends?
A. They are the same age. B. They bth like English.
C. They have the same hbby. D. They smile at each ther.
第二节 阅读六选五（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
As the saying ges, “East r west, hme is the best.” Family is very imprtant in ur lives. 38 But d yu knw hw t have a gd relatinship (关系) with yur family? Here are sme tips t help yu get alng well with (相处融洽) them.
Be tgether and have fun
Make time t stay with yur family and enjy it! 39 Fr example, yu can g ut tgether, play sprts, watch a film, r read yur favurite bks tgether. When yu d these things tgether, everyne will have a gd time.
40
Small things can be very imprtant t yur family. Fr example, yu can ck dinner fr yur parents. It will make them very happy. Yu can als give yur favurite ty t yur little brther r sister. Then they will be happy t.
Share feelings and feel family lve
Talking abut yur feelings with yur family can make yu clser. 41 When yu are sad r wrried, dn’t keep it t yurself. Yu can talk t yur parents, brthers r sisters. They want t listen and help yu. When yu share, yur family will understand yu better, and yu will feel mre lve at hme.
42 If (如果) we stay tgether mre, share ur feelings and help ne anther, ur hme will be a warm and happy place.
第三节 标题匹配（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面五个语段，从给定的选项中选择一个最符合其主旨的标题。每个语段只对应一个最佳标题。
43.Tday I am thirteen. Mm buys a big chclate cake and dad cks my favurite chicken sup. My little sister gives me a blue pen as a gift. We sing the birthday sng tgether and I blw ut the candles. Then we eat the cake and take a happy pht in ur huse.
44.It rains heavily this mrning. I take my red umbrella and walk slwly. My shes get wet, but the air is fresh. After schl the rain stps and I see a beautiful rainbw in the sky. I stand by the dr and cunt seven clurs befre I g hme.
45.This year, I am a student in Grade Seven. My new schl is big and beautiful. Our teachers are very helpful. My classmates are friendly. We study and play tgether every day. I like my new schl, and I like my schl life here very much.
46.There is always laughter in my hme. I live with my parents and my sister. My dad and my mm are very kind. My sister is in Grade 9 and she ften helps me with my hmewrk. We like t stay with each ther. I feel s happy t have this warm family.
47.We have a happy trip n Octber 2. We g t my grandma’s huse. The weather is cl and sunny. Her yard is very big and beautiful. We play games and eat fruit there. My grandma tells us interesting stries. We all feel very happy.
第四部分 语言运用（共三节，满分 30 分）
第一节 补全对话（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
A: Welcme t my hme, Lisa!
B: Thank yu. 48 .
A: Yes, it is.
B: Oh, the man in blue lks very kind. Wh is he?
A: He’s my father. 49 . He wrks in the hspital.
B: And the wman in the white dress?
A: She is my mther. She likes gardening very much!
B: Oh, lk at the beautiful flwers by the windw. 50 .
A: Yes!
B: Hw des she lk after (照顾) them?
A: 51 .
B: Ww, great! Can I take sme phts?
A: 52 . My mther will be very happy t hear that.
48.A. Hw are yu? B. Is this a pht f yur family?
C. May I have yur name? D. D yu like playing the pian?
49.A. He is a dctr. B. I am thirty-five years ld.
C. They like swimming. D. She wrks very hard.
50.A. D yu play the pian? B. Wh’s yur sister?
C. What plants d yu see? D. Are the flwers hers?
51.A. She desn’t like bananas. B. She buys this shirt with me.
C. She waters them every mrning. D. She cmes frm China.
52.A. Of curse! B. I dn’t knw.
C. Yu’re welcme. D. Srry, yu can’t.
第二节 完形填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Mike is a 13-year-ld by. He lves 53 , s he ften plays card games, cmputer games and sprts games. He 54 t win because winning is everything (一切) t him.
There is a race (赛跑) in his class this afternn, and there are 55 teams (团队) — the blue team and the red team. Mike is n the 56 ne.
Befre the race, he says, “I must win!” But things dn’t g very well. Mike desn’t feel gd abut his new 57 . He falls dwn (摔倒).
“Cme n! Let’s run tgether,” a by stps and says t Mike.
Mike lks at 58 . Alan is n the red team, 59 he wants t help Mike.
“We’re nt n the same team. 60 d yu want t help me?” Mike asks.
“Winning isn’t everything,” Alan says. “It’s just a race, and there are a lt f races in ur life. And I want t be 61 t thers.”
Mike 62 t knw Alan’s wrds. Yes, winning isn’t everything, but being kind is ne f the mst imprtant things.
53.A. animals B. fd C. games D. bks
54.A. lks B. helps C. starts D. wants
55.A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
56.A. red B. blue C. black D. white
57.A. jacket B. skirt C. cat D. shes
58.A. him B. her C. us D. yu
59.A. r B. and C. but D. s
60.A. What B. Why C. Hw D. Where
61.A. cl B. nice C. new D. bad
62.A. gets B. tells C. waits D. listens
第三节 词汇语法运用（共 10 小题；63—67 题，每小题 1 分，68—72 题，每小题 2 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入单词的正确形式或括号内单词的正确形式。
63.Yu ______ (需要) t keep yur rm tidy.
64.Bill’s ______ (完整的) name is Bill Brwn.
65.What des family ______ (意思是) t yu?
66.He ______ (花费) lts f time fishing.
67.Everyne is ______ (特别的). Dn’t be shy t shw yurself.
68.My desk mate is very kind and all f us like ______ (she).
69.There ______ (be) 40 student desks in the rm.
70.Flra wuld like ______ (visit) her grandparents next mnth.
71.She can play the pian really ______ (gd).
72.Chinese is a bridge (桥梁) between China and ther ______ (cuntry).
第五部分 写作（共两节，满分 35 分）
第一节 情境运用（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
73.A: What’s this?
B: ________________________________.
74.A: _______________________________?
B: I like Beijing rast duck best.
75.A: _______________________________?（下象棋）
B: Yes, he des.
76.A: _______________________________?
B: At the back f the classrm.
77.A: What d students d t start the day?
B: ________________________________.
第二节 作文（满分 25 分）
假定你是李华，你所在学校和英国 Green Schl 是国际友好交流学校，你的结对伙伴 Judy 想了解你和你的学校。请你写一篇短文向她介绍。内容包括：
1.个人情况：年龄、外貌、性格、爱好等；
2.学校概况：大小、环境、建筑、位置等。
注意：1. 词数：80 左右，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
Dear Judy,









Yurs
Li Hua
2025~2026学年度第一学期期中质量检测七年级英语试题参考答案（2025.11)
第一部分听力
1-5 BCACB 6-10 BCAAB 11-15 CCABC 16-20 BACCA
第二部分语音
21-25 CABBD
第三部分阅读
26-28 BCD
29-32 BCCA
33-37 BDADC
38-42 ADEBC
43-47 DECBA
第四部分语言运用
48-52 BADCA
53-57 CDABD
58-62 ACBBA
63.need 64.full 65.mean 66.spends 67.special 68.her 69.are 70.t visit 71.well
72.cuntries
第五部分写作
73.It' s a pian .
74. What fd d yu like best ?/ What ' s yur favurite fd ?
75. Des he play Chinese chess ?/ Des he like t play / playing Chinese chess ?
76. Where are the lckers ?
77. They d exercises ( t start the day ).September 6, Wednesday Sunny
I like my art teacher. He has black hair and big eyes. Tday in class, he draws a funny picture n the blackbard. It makes everyne laugh. He is als kind. We never feel bad in his class.
September 10, Sunday Windy
Sme peple have pet friends r ty friends, but my best friends are my bks. I stay (待) with them all afternn! I read a science bk and a strybk. They take me t different wrlds and I can learn new things frm them.
A. They lve us and always help us.
B. When yu feel happy, tell them why.
C. In a wrd, family is always there fr us.
D. Yu can ask them t d fun things with yu.
E. Be kind and d small things fr yur family.
F. Listening t yur parents will help yu a lt.
A. A Happy Trip in Autumn B. A Hme with Lve C. New Schl, New Life
D. My Happy Birthday E. A Rainy Day