安徽省合肥市瑶海区2026年初中毕业学业考试中考模拟英语试卷（学生版）

这是一份安徽省合肥市瑶海区2026年初中毕业学业考试中考模拟英语试卷（学生版），共13页。试卷主要包含了 全卷包括“试题卷”两部分， Wh is Mr等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des the by want t eat?
A. B. C.
2. What des Tm like t d at weekends?
A. B. C.
3. Hw is the weather nw?
A. Rainy.B. Sunny.C. Cludy.
4. Hw ld is Lucy nw?
A. 5.B. 9.C. 14.
5. What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Teacher and student.
B. Dctr and patient.
C. Driver and passenger.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答下列小题。
6. Wh is Mr. Wang?
A. Li Lei’s teacher.B. Li Lei’s father.C. Li Lei’s dctr.
7. What d the speakers’ dreams have in cmmn?
A. They are bth cl.
B. They bth help thers.
C. They are bth interesting.
听下面一段对话，回答下列小题。
8. When did the by g t the park?
A. Last Friday.B. Last Saturday.C. Last Sunday.
9. Hw many plastic bttles did the by cllect?
A. 20 bttles.B. 40 bttles.C. 60 bttles.
10. What will the speakers d after schl tday?
A. Put up psters.B. Water flwers.C. Pick up rubbish.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What des the speaker d?
A. A htel manager.B. A tur guide.C. A bus driver.
12. Where will they have lunch?
A. At a lcal restaurant.B. At a traditinal teahuse.C. In the htel.
13. What can they d in the afternn?
A. Visit ld buildings.
B. Try famus dishes.
C. Watch Huangmei Opera.
14. When will the Huangmei Opera shw finish?
A. At 7:30 p.m.B. At 8:30 p.m.C. At 9:00 p.m.
15. What des the speaker express in the end?
A. Thanks.B. Hpe.C. Pride.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Maria used t feel tired all day, but nw she is always full f ________ after sticking t daily exercise fr mnths.
A. energyB. curageC. dubtD. regret
22. —Hw can I imprve my spken English, Mr. Chen?
—Well, yu need t _______ every chance t speak, even if yu make mistakes at first.
A. avidB. fferC. wasteD. catch
23. When facing difficulties in the grup prject, Lily chse t be _______ and encuraged her teammates t keep trying instead f giving up easily.
A. prudB. calmC. lazyD. angry
24. —The summer hliday is cming. I want t make it meaningful. Any suggestins?
—Why nt _______ a new hbby like swimming? It’s relaxing and gd fr yur bdy.
A. keep nB. give upC. write dwnD. take up
25. — What did yu think f China’s perfrmance in the recent U23 Asian Cup?
— It was _______ encuraging! The team shwed great prgress and fighting spirit.
A. nearlyB. prbablyC. hardlyD. exactly
26. —Anhui’s Lu’an Guapian is famus fr its nice taste. D yu knw ________ it is still ppular tday?
—Because peple have kept the traditinal making skills.
A. hwB. whyC. whenD. where
27. —Hefei ________ as ne f the Spring Festival Gala branch venues (分会场) in 2026 and shwed Anhui’s beauty t the whle cuntry.
—Hw exciting it was!
A. chsesB. is chsen
C. chseD. was chsen
28. —Many students think AI can help with all their study.
—I dn’t agree. ________ AI develps fast, we still need t learn t think.
A. BecauseB. UntilC. AlthughD. If
29. — Mm, the dishes yu ck are always delicius! Hw did yu learn it?
— Thanks, dear. I ________ every plant since I was a little girl. Cking well starts with respecting fd.
A. valueB. valued
C. have valuedD. will value
30. —I’m afraid I can’t g t yur birthday party. I have t lk after my grandma.
—________ We can get tgether next time.
A. It’s nt a big deal.B. It’s up t yu.
C. Are yu kidding me?D. S far s gd.
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Last week in Hamburg, Germany, smething magical appeared alng a bridge ver Alster Lake — many tiny snwmen lined up like a cheerful winter parade (阅兵). Built by lcals and passersby, the little snwy wrks sn became a lvely ____31____. It made everyne wh crssed the bridge stp t take phts.
Then smene tried t spil (破坏) it. A man was caught n camera ____32____ the snwmen ne by ne. The ____33____ was psted nline, leaving peple disappinted — but nt fr lng. Instead f anger, the cmmunity dealt with it ____34____. One persn suggested: “Let’s build snwmen tgether tmrrw at 12!” The message ____35____ many peple. The next day, a crwd shwed up.
Lcals in the cmmunity gt tgether, cllecting fresh snw, ____36____ new snwmen happily — bigger this time. Sme dressed them up, and thers shared tls.
As the sun set, laughter filled the bridge. Everyne felt ____37____. What started as an act t spil a sweet mment became a lessn: when smene breaks things dwn, a ____38____ can rebuild them with mre heart. Kindness and cperatin always ____39____ unkind acts. They bring peple clser as they create smething beautiful frm ____40____. This small winter stry prves that gdness ften grws strnger after challenges.
31. A. manB. sightC. tlD. dress
32. A. kncking verB. picking upC. lking atD. waiting fr
33. A. lessnB. addressC. suggestinD. vide
34. A. secretlyB. madlyC. psitivelyD. suddenly
35. A. warnedB. tuchedC. expectedD. refused
36. A. shapingB. breakingC. discveringD. hanging
37. A. fearfulB. luckyC. pleasedD. crazy
38. A. cityB. schlC. cuntryD. cmmunity
39. A. beatB. inviteC. allwD. spread
40. A. memryB. lssC. fearD. hnr
B
Learning a freign language is mre than just wrds and grammar. Fr many students, it can be a ____41____ experience because making a mistake in frnt f thers might make them feel uncmfrtable.
This wrry, ften called “freign language anxiety (焦虑),” includes ____42____ f fear, stress, r even physical discmfrt. It can ____43____ students’ fcus and make them dubt themselves. Studies shw that students wh feel mre anxius abut a language ften have less ____44____ in learning it. This fear f failure seems t steal cnfidence away.
Why des this happen? When facing a difficult ____45____, like writing an article in English, an anxius student may feel unable t d it and stp trying. This can ____46____ mre disappintment and wrry. Negative thughts like “I can’t d this.” ____47____ their minds, making them even less cnfident.
Hwever, there are ____48____ t change this. Setting clear gals can reduce uncertainty. Students can als learn simple methds t ____49____ wrry, such as taking deep breaths. Wrking tgether in grups n fun prjects can make learning mre ______50______ and build cnfidence. Finally, learning t see small imprvements can help students becme strnger and mre cnfident language learners.
41. A. painfulB. wnderfulC. frmalD. cmmn
42. A. purpsesB. feelingsC. advantagesD. wishes
43. A. take awayB. depend nC. care frD. talk abut
44. A. painB. wealthC. medicineD. cnfidence
45. A. mistakeB. taskC. planD. methd
46. A. guessB. matchC. mentinD. cause
47. A. fillB. penC. clearD. relax
48. A. lawsB. grupsC. waysD. gals
49. A. recrdB. shareC. testD. manage
50. A. cmpleteB. enjyableC. imprtantD. necessary
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从下面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Xia Mei! I’m ging t jin the Art Festival vlunteers. Wuld yu like t jin me?
B: ____51____ But what can I d t help?
A: ____52____ Yu’re gd at drawing, s yu can help them draw pictures.
B: Well, I d like t draw. ____53____
A: I believe yu can! The pster design team is lking fr mre members. ____54____
B: ____55____ I d enjy drawing. Maybe I culd really help.
A: That’s the spirit! Let’s g and sign up tgether.
B: Great idea! Let’s g.
A. But d yu think I can make it?
B. I’m thinking abut it t.
C. There is a rle fr everyne.
D. Yu’re the right persn they want!
E. Is the festival next week?
F. Thanks fr encuraging me.
G. Hw are yu ging there?
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
D yu need an easy way t help yur always tired eyes? Yu prbably have these things at hme. Here are fur easy methds t relax yur eyes.
56. What can help make dark circles lighter accrding t the passage?
A. Cl tea bags.B. Cld spns.
C. Teething rings.D. Avcad pieces.
57. Hw lng shuld frzen teething rings be placed n the eyes?
A. Fr abut ten minutes.B. Fr abut 60 minutes.
C. Fr abut five minutes.D. Fr abut 30 minutes.
58. Where is the passage prbably taken frm?
A. A strybk.B. A ckbk.
C. A health guide.D. A science reprt.
B
At 9 a.m., Ma Haning wrks carefully in an perating rm. 10 hurs later, he plays music n stage with a band. He has tw different lives: a dctr and a band member.
When asked which jb is mre imprtant, he answers quickly, “Being a dctr is my main wrk” Fr Ma, having tw jbs makes life mre clrful. His lve fr music came frm his mther, wh culdn’t realize her music dream. Ma started learning an ld instrument at the age f 5. At first, his parents were nt sure, but later they supprted him fully.
Ma plans his time carefully: tw days fr peratins, ne fr patients, and the rest fr ther wrk. Band practice is nly in his free time. Gd habits and relaxing activities help him manage time well.
The tw jbs influence each ther psitively. Music imprves his hand skills fr peratins, while medical wrk helps him understand peple’s feelings better and makes his music warmer. Music als helps him care mre abut patients.
Ma feels happy ding bth jbs well. He hpes mre peple can develp different skills, as sciety nw accepts this lifestyle mre. T peple with dreams, Ma says, “D nt be afraid. Be brave t try, and keep ging.”
59. What is Ma’s main jb?
A. A band player.B. A hspital dctr.
C. A music teacher.D. A machine peratr.
60. When did Ma begin t learn an instrument?
A. At 2.B. At 5.C. At 9.D. At 10.
61. Hw des music help with Ma’s medical wrk accrding t the text?
A. It makes him warmer.B. He understands thers better.
C. His hand skills get better.D. He perates n mre patients.
62. Which f the fllwing best describes Ma Haning?
A. Shy but careful.B. Funny and brave.
C. Strict but hnest.D. Caring and rganized.
C
When my 86-year-ld mther mved clser, I was happy t care fr her. Hwever, she sn began t cmplain (抱怨) abut almst everything — the fd, the weather, even neighbrs. Her cmplaints made me sad.
I thught I was different frm her. At a meeting, a friend asked why I was s sad. I explained my mther seemed nt thankful. But as I spke, I felt uneasy. Later, I asked my husband if I cmplained a lt, but he kept silent. I saw the truth in his eyes. I realized I had the same habit. I tried t cntrl myself, but my mther’s calls made me nervus. The mre I held back with her, the mre I cmplained t my husband.
Then, a friend gave me a special diary. She suggested I write thankful things each day. I started the next mrning. Listing my wishes filled me with jy. This simple act changed my view. I began nticing small, beautiful things I had missed.
Life’s challenges remained, but I learned t see the gifts arund me, including my mther. I culdn’t change her, but I culd chse t lve her. My friends nticed my sfter behavir. Gratitude (感恩), nt cmplaint, became my path t peace.
63. What did the writer’s mther d after mving clser?
A. She cared fr the writer.B. She kept a special diary.
C. She cmplained t much.D. She made fd fr neighbrs.
64. Hw did the writer’s feelings change in the whle stry?
A. Happy → Nervus → Peaceful.B. Strange → Angry → Uneasy.
C. Helpless → Bred → Thankful.D. Sad → Wrried → Fearful.
65. What’s the best title (标题) fr the passage?
A. Gratitude Makes PeaceB. Lve Sftens Mum
C. Challenges Change FriendsD. Diaries Cntrl Life
D
China’s Grand Canal (京杭大运河) is the lngest man-made river in the wrld. Fr centuries, it has been an imprtant cnnectin fr China. Its imprtance nce changed at different times in histry, and it still serves cultural and business rles tday.
The first part was built arund 605 AD by Emperr Yang f Sui. He needed a fast way t mve rice frm suthern China t feed the sldiers in the nrth. Abut ne millin farmers wrked fr six years t build it. Over the next 500 years, the canal grew mre imprtant, thugh sme parts gt wrse by 1127. Later rulers repaired and develped it, creating a direct nrth-suth way.
Besides shipping gds, the canal became a key cultural path. It carried ideas, fds, and cultural traditins acrss areas—even Beijing Opera was brught nrth thrugh this waterway. Tday, bats still carry tns f fd and ther gds. Lcal gvernments are beautifying canal areas fr turism, thugh sme ancient buildings have been remved.
In 2014, the Grand Canal became a UNESCO Wrld Heritage Site (世界遗产名录) , which can prtect the waterway and its nearby buildings. It makes sure this great man-made wnder cntinues cnnecting nrth and suth China fr centuries t cme.
66. Why did Emperr Yang f Sui build the canal at first?
A. B.
C. D.
67. What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 2 refer t?
A. The building.B. The pera.
C. The idea.D. The canal.
68. What’s the main idea f Paragraph 3?
A. Rles f the canal.B. Rads t the nrth.
C. Value f ld buildings.D. Ways t carry gds.
E
The deep cean is a wrld f almst cmplete darkness. Yet, surprisingly, it shines with living light. Many sea animals have a special ability called biluminescence — they can create their wn light. This is nt fr beauty; it is an imprtant tl fr living.
In the upper (上层的) cean sunlight still reaches, being seen can mean danger. S sme animals keep away frm the light area during the day. ________ Others use light in clever ways t hide. Fr example, certain shrimp (虾) can light up their undersides. They make the same light as that frm abve. S ther hunters can hardly see them frm belw.
But why d sme sea animals shine brightly when tuched? There are tw main reasns.
First, a sudden bright shining can scare a hunter, giving the smaller animal a chance t run away. It’s like shining a bright light in the hunter’s eyes. Secnd, light can call fr help. When tiny fishes are caught, their shining acts like a “warning”, drawing larger fish that might hit the hunter. Fr these slw-mving fishes, light becmes their best prtectin.
Light is a tl fr hiding, a way t run away, and a call fr help — a true language f living in a dark wrld. Accrding t a recent study, the biluminescence f sea animals has many useful applicatins in ur life...
69. What des the underlined wrd “biluminescence” in Paragraph 1 mean?
A. The beauty f sea life.B. The tl used by fishes.
C. The danger frm hunters.D. The ability t make light.
70. Which f the fllwing can be put in ________?
A. This is hw animals catch shrimps.B. But n fd can be fund there.
C. They nly rise t the upper at night.D. And light can make them safer.
71. Why d sme sea animals shine when tuched?
A. T mve faster.B. T drive away hunters.
C. T help larger fish.D. T lk mre beautiful.
72. What will prbably be talked abut in the end?
A. The wrld f sea animals.B. The study f light.
C. The use f biluminescence.D. The language f fish.
第二节
F
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
Dear kind stranger,
I am writing t thank yu fr yur kindness n that difficult day at the end f 2025. I stpped at the service statin fr an il change n my way t the hspital. My grandpa was sick. While waiting, I received a call frm my mm. She tld me my grandpa had left us. I started crying and culdn’t think clearly. I had n idea what t d next.
Yu saw I was in truble and came ver right away. Yu spke sftly and ffered me water. Then yu asked me t mve my car t the parking lt. Yu helped me call my husband because I was t sad t drive safely. Yur kindness meant s much at that terrible mment.
I dn’t remember many details, even if I paid that day. But I still remember yur red hair and beard (胡须). Yu were s gentle when I needed it mst.
Later that night, my husband and I went back fr the car. We shk yur hand and thanked yu. I never learned yur name, but I have never frgtten yu. Yur kindness taught me t help thers whenever I can.
Thank yu fr being like an angel (天使). I hpe yu are happy.
With lve,
The wman yu helped
73. Where did the writer stp n her way t the hspital?（不超过5个词）
_________________________________________
74. Why did the man call the writer’s husband?（不超过10个词）
_________________________________________
75. Hw will yu be an “angel” t thers in yur life?（不超过15个词）
_________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. If yu want t s________ (成功) in achieving yur dream, yu must wrk hard and never give up.
77. Befre making an imprtant d________ (决定), it’s wise t think carefully and ask fr advice.
78. Over a thusand years ag, tea frm China started t travel a________ (到国外) and became famus all ver the wrld.
79. Fr my father, the q________ (安静的) night is a valuable time t fcus n reading.
80. After returning frm ur trip t the seaside, the sund f the waves and the smell f the salt air s________ (停留) clear and strng in my memry fr weeks.
X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
81. 假定你是李华，你的英语老师正在举办以“Hliday Self-management”为主题的英文演讲比赛。请你结合自身经历，根据以下要点写一篇演讲稿参赛。
要点：
要求：1. 短文须包含上述要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称；
3. 词数80~100（首尾已为你写好，不计入总词数）。
Dear teacher and classmates,
Gd mrning, everyne. I’m Li Hua. It’s my pleasure t talk abut “Hliday Self-management”. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thanks fr listening!Grwing a Plant in a Pt
Hw t start it:
◇Prepare a pt with small ____16____ at the bttm.
◇Put sme sil int the pt.
◇Chse a ____17____ plant t grw.
Hw t plant it:
◇Put the plant int the sil and ____18____ with mre sil.
Hw t take care f it:
◇Give sme water; dn’t ____19____ t much.
◇Put it in a sunny place and water it lightly every ____20____ days.
Avcad (牛油果) Pieces
If yu dn’t get enugh sleep, yu may have dark circles. Placing pieces f avcad under yur eyes can help make them lighter.
Freezing Tea Bags
Put tw tea bags int warm water, then freeze them in the fridge fr several minutes. Then, place ne n each eye fr five minutes. Yu will make swllen (肿胀的) eyes lk better.
Frzen Teething Rings
Put tw baby teething rings in the freezer until they are cld. Then, lie dwn and place the rings ver yur clsed eyelids (眼睑) fr abut ten minutes t make the swllen eyes better and leave yu feeling cmfrtable.
Cld spns
Hld tw clean metal (金属的) teaspns under very cld running water fr sme minutes. Then lie dwn cmfrtably and put them ver yur eyes fr 30 t 60 secnds. This can make yur tired eyes feel relaxed again.