甘肃省平凉市第四中学2025_2026学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题（文字版，含答案）

这是一份甘肃省平凉市第四中学2025_2026学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题（文字版，含答案），共11页。试卷主要包含了 ____________ 2等内容，欢迎下载使用。
考生注意：本试卷含听力，满分为150分，考试时间为120分钟。所有试题均在答题卡上作答，否则无效。
I. 听力（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节: 听句子, 选择与所听内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。
1. ____________ 2. ____________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5.
第二节: 听句子, 选择恰当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
( ) 6.
A. I'm fine, thank yu.
B. My name is Cindy.
C. Yes, I am.
( ) 7.
A. I'm fine.B. I'm twelve.C. I'm Dave.
( ) 8.
A. Hamburgers.B. Tmates.C. Pears.
( ) 9.
A. Fr a year.B. 45 minutes.C. At 9:00.
( ) 10.
A. Yes, that is.
B. N, it's a bk.
C. Yes, it is.
第三节: 听对话及问题, 选择能回答所提问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
( ) 11. What day is it tmrrw?
A. Teachers' Day.
B. Children's Day.
C. Miss Li's birthday.
( ) 12. What is her mther ding nw?
A. She is making a plane.
B. She is sweeping the flr.
C. She is ding sme cleaning.
( ) 13. Where des the girl write the name?
A. On the left f the screen.
B. In the bk.
C. In the bx.
( ) 14. What's the by's name?
A. Tny.B. Paul.C. Jack.
( ) 15. What's in the bx?
A. Sme shes.B. Sme scks.C. Sme bks.
第四节: 听短文, 根据其内容选择能回答下列问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
( ) 16. Wh is Mrs Green?
A. Peter and Bill's mther.
B. Peter and Bill's maths teacher.
C. Peter and Bill's English teacher.
( ) 17. Wh likes bananas?
A. Mrs Green.B. Peter.C. Bill.
( ) 18. Des Peter like sprts?
A. Yes, he des.
B. N, he desn't.
C. I dn't knw.
( ) 19. Where are the basketballs?
A. On Peter's desk.
B. On Peter's bed.
C. Under Peter's bed.
( ) 20. Hw many ftballs des Peter have?
A. Tw.B. Five.C. Seven.
II. 语法与情景对话（共 20 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 20 分）
( ) 21. There is ______ tiger in the z. ______ tiger is frm Asia.
A. /; AnB. an; TheC. a; TheD. an; /
( ) 22. —Where d yu ften g after class?
—I ften g t the schl library because I enjy ______ bks.
A. t readB. readingC. readsD. read
( ) 23. I like swimming and running because ______ are gd fr my health.
A. bthB. allC. anyD. either
( ) 24. This is ______ friend, Jenny. ______ is in Class 5.
A. my; HerB. my; SheC. I; HerD. I; She
( ) 25. — ______ d they g t the music club?
— On weekends.
A. What timeB. WhatC. WhereD. When
( ) 26. —Can yu play the guitar?
—N, I ______.
A. canB. nt canC. can'tD. culd
( ) 27. Betty is my ______ and she is very ______ t me.
A. friend; friendlyB. friend; friendC. friendly; friendlyD. friendly; friend
( ) 28. I'd like t g shpping with yu, ______ I'm t busy tday.
A. rB. andC. butD. because
( ) 29. —Where is the bank?
— ______.
A. It's blackB. It's interesting
C. It's next t the parkD. It's great
( ) 30. —Why d peple in China like red, Mum?
—Because red is a ______ f gd luck in China.
A. mindB. symblC. reasnD. mark
( ) 31. We have a PE class ______ Mnday afternn.
A. nB. inC. atD. f
( ) 32. I need this dictinary, because it is ______ fr my English study.
A. bringB. usefulC. relaxingD. difficult
( ) 33. It's time fr dinner. Let's ______ the table first.
A. t setB. settingC. setsD. set
( ) 34. Please ______ at six in the mrning.
A. wake up heB. wake him upC. wake his upD. wake he up
( ) 35. — ______ is yur hat?
— It's abut 20 yuan.
A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. Hw lngD. Hw far
( )36. —I'd like t g t the library. ______
—I want t g t Sprts Centre.
A. Bye fr nw.B. Thanks a lt.
C. Hw abut yu, Nancy?D. Happy Birthday!
( )37. During Duble 11 Shpping Festival, all the things sell ______, and peple can buy them at ______ prices.
A. bad; gdB. well; wellC. well; gdD. gd; gd
( )38. It's nly a ______ walk frm the library t my huse.
A. 10 - minutesB. 10 - minute'sC. 10 minutesD. 10 - minute
( )39. Which f the underlined letter has a different prnunciatin?
A. meaningB. already
C. eachD. reasn
A. g straight
B. turn leftC. turn rightD. turn arund
III. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
Hi! I'm Mandy Swift. I'm frm an island natin in Sutheast Asia. Which ______41______ is it? It is Singapre. I am in Grade Seven this year. I want t ______42______ yu smething abut me. Read n, please.
I live in Chengdu nw ______43______ my parents wrk here. I ______44______ the nice classmates and teachers here. They always help me find and crrect (纠正) sme ______45______. I like t ______46______. Mary is my new friend here. We're in the same schl but in ______47______ classes. S smetimes we g t schl r g hme with ______48______ friends. My favurite place is the sprts field. I ften ______49______ basketball there. It always makes me happy.
I ______50______ enjy my life in China. Thank yu fr knwing abut me!
( )41. A. cuntryB. fdC. timeD. rm
( )42. A. cmeB. makeC. greetD. tell
( )43. A. butB. becauseC. rD. s
( )44. A. likeB. gC. startD. spell
( )45. A. mistakesB. screensC. whitebardsD. seats
( )46. A. put upB. d exerciseC. have funD. make friends
( )47. A. handsmeB. funnyC. differentD. smart
( )48. A. therB. ldC. newD. full
( )49. A. haveB. playC. thankD. wait
( )50. A. reallyB. tC. elseD. even
IV. 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
A
There are 45 students in ur class. Abut 30 students like English very much. They think it is very interesting. Our English teacher is Mr. Wang. He teaches us very well. 25 f us like math very
much, but 5 students dn't like it at all. They think it's t difficult. My favrite subject is music, and ur music teacher ften teaches us lts f English sngs. My music teacher is 25 years ld, and she is very kind t us. She is als ur gd friend. Our histry teacher is very funny. He ften tells us sme interesting stries in his class. We als like science, because we can learn abut plants and animals. In a wrd, every subject is imprtant fr us.
根据短文内容判断正、误。（注意：正确的涂“A”，错误的涂“B”）
( ) 51. All the students in ur class like English very much.
( ) 52. Abut 20 students in ur class dn't like math at all.
( ) 53. We can learn lts f English sngs in ur music class.
( ) 54. Our bilgy teacher ften tells us sme interesting stries in her class.
( ) 55. Only science is imprtant fr students.
B
Hell, everyne! My name is Zhang Cheng. I am 12 years ld. I was brn in Suzhu. I am a friendly and hnest by. I never tell a lie. I have a happy family. There are fur peple in my family—my father, my mther, my sister and me.
My father lks strng. He is a dctr in a hspital near my hme. He is s busy that he has n time t play with me. But I knw he lves me. He likes running, swimming and playing basketball.
My mther is slim. Her hair is lng and black. She has many hbbies. She is gd at planting vegetables and flwers. She als enjys traveling with me. My mther des a lt fr me. She always lks after me well. And she is very strict abut my study.
My sister is 14 years ld. Her name is Zhang Li. She has big eyes. She lks cute. In her free time, she likes reading and listening t music. We study in the same schl, but in different classes. She is gd at all her lessns. She wants t be a Chinese teacher in the future.
I lve my family very much.
( ) 56. Hw many peple are there in Zhang Cheng's family?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.D. Six.
( ) 57. Wh is gd at planting flwers?
A. Zhang Cheng.B. Zhang Li.
C. Zhang Cheng's mther.D. Zhang Cheng's father.
( ) 58. The underlined wrd "hnest" in Paragraph 1 means "____" in Chinese.
A. 诚实的B. 可爱的C. 强壮的D. 撒谎的
( ) 59. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Zhang Cheng is a 13-year-ld by.
B. Zhang Cheng's mther likes reading.
C. Zhang Cheng's father likes sprts.
D. Zhang Li and Zhang Cheng are classmates.
( ) 60. Which ne is the structure (结构) f the passage?
Dear Bb,
Hw are yu? I knw that yur birthday is n Octber 15th. I'm srry I can't g t yur 13th birthday party. I want t say "Happy birthday" t yu here! On that day, I have a Chinese test frm 8:30 t 11:30 in the mrning. Then I need t have lunch quickly. After that, I need t g t my maths test. It's frm 2:00 p.m. t 4:00 p.m. After the maths test, I need t g t play basketball with my sister. Yur birthday party finishes at 4:30 p.m., s I can't eat yur birthday cake with yu.
Yurs,
Linda
Dear Linda,
It desn't matter that yu can't cme t my birthday party. I hpe yu can get gd grades. Yu can cme t my 14th birthday party next time.
Yurs,
Bb
( ) 61. When is Bb's birthday?
A. On Octber 15th.B. On Octber 25th.C. On Nvember 15th.D. On Nvember 25th.
( ) 62. On Bb's birthday, Linda has a(n) ______ test frm 8:30 a.m. t 11:30 a.m.
A. EnglishB. ChineseC. mathsD. histry
( ) 63. When des Linda's maths test finish?
A. At 2:00 p.m.B. At 11:30 a.m.
C. At 4:00 p.m.D. At 4:30 p.m.
( ) 64. What des Linda need t d after the maths test?
A. Play sccer.B. Buy a bk.
C. Play basketball.D. Buy a T - shirt.
( ) 65. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut Linda?
A. She is nt happy with Bb.B. She is Bb's Chinese teacher.
C. She can g t Bb's 13th birthday party.D. She is very busy n Bb's birthday.
V. 任务型完形填空。（共 10 空，每空 1 分，共 10 分）
hw and real interesting be China make kind snw with
Dear Judy,
Hw is it ging? I want t tell yu smething 66 abut tday. We call tday "Majr Snw" r "Da Xue". It is ne f traditinal (传统的) 67 24 Slar Terms (节气). It falls arund December 7th each year, signaling (预示) the cming f clder weather. During this time, it ften 68 heavily 69 the grund is cvered (盖满) with white snw.
70 d peple celebrate "Da Xue"? When "Da Xue" cmes, there 71 sme fun traditins. Sme peple like t play 72 snw, making snwmen r having snwball fights. It's 73 exciting! We als have sme special fds like sweet rice balls (Tangyuan) that symblize (象征) reunin and happiness. My family and I like 74 ht pt. We put different 75 f meat, vegetables and ndles int the pt. Eating ht pt makes us feel warm inside.
I hpe yu can cme t China and we can make a snwman tgether ne day. It's s beautiful and fun!
Best wishes!
TengFei
VI. 任务型阅读理解（共 5 个小题：每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
Hell, everyne! My name is Amy. I am a student in Sunshine Middle Schl. There are eight clubs in ur schl. We can jin different clubs accrding t ur interests and hbbies. I like music, and I can play many kinds f musical instruments. S I want t jin the music club. Hw abut my friends?
Mary and Mlly are my friends. Mary likes playing ping - png very much. S she wants t jin the ping - png club. She thinks playing ping - png can make her smart. It's als gd fr her study. D yu want t knw Mlly's pinin? She wants t jin the bk club. Why? Because she thinks bks can pen her mind 77 make her think. I agree with her.
Allen is als my friend. He lves nature and he wuld like t jin the nature club. He wants t watch birds, take phts and cllect leaves in the nature club.
78 Just as the saying ges, "Interest is the best teacher." We can learn a lt frm different clubs.
76. Hw many clubs are there in Amy's schl?____________________________________
77. 在此处填入一个恰当的连词。____________________________________
78. 将此处划线句子翻译成汉语。____________________________________
79. What des Allen want t d in the nature club?____________________________________
80. What's the best title f this passage?____________________________________
A. The ping - png club.B. The bk club.
C. Schl clubs.D. The nature club.
VII. 口语交际（共5小题：每小题2分，共10分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。其中有两项为多余选项。
Girl: Gd afternn. 81
Frank: Yes, please. 82 Tmrrw is her birthday.
Girl: Here are sme gd bks. 83
Frank: Oh, n. She is nly ten years ld. This bk is difficult fr her.
Girl: I see. Is this ne OK?
Frank: Let me see. This ne lks great. 84
Girl: Ten yuan.
Frank: 85 Here is the mney.
Girl: Thank yu.
Frank: Yu're welcme.
VIII. 词汇考察。（共10小题：每小题1分，共10分）
根据句意，用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
86. I get up at 6:30 and then I brush my ______ (tth).
87. Granny gave his grandsn a nice present n his ______ (twelve) birthday.
88. My dad is gd at ______ (tell) jkes and he always makes me laugh.
89. Emma likes singing a lt, s she wants t be a ______ (sing) in the future.
90. —Can yur friend ______ (speak) English?
—Yes, he can
91. Peter thinks math is very ______ (meaning) in ur life.
92. Zha Pei wants t learn ______ (play) the pian at weekends.
93. Frank ______ (usual) has eggs and sme milk fr breakfast.
94. Miss Green teaches ______ (we) English this term and we all like her.
95. Yu must get ______ (dress) quickly, r yu will be late fr schl.
IX. 根据所给汉语提示，完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）(每空一词)
96. 他擅长数学，他经常帮我学数学。
He is gd at math and he ften ______ me ______ my math.
97. 在吹灭蜡烛之前，你可以许愿。
Yu can make a wish befre yu ______ ______ candles.
98. 下一次，我想做一些不同的事情。
Next time，I want t d ______ ______.
99. 我正在为明天的生日聚会准备一些礼物。
I'm ______ sme gifts ______ tmrrw's birthday party.
100. Sarah 对大自然感兴趣，因此他想加入自然俱乐部。
Sarah is ______ ______ nature, s he'd like t jin the nature club.
X. 书面表达（15分）
假如你是 Bill,请根据以下提示内容，写一篇短文介绍你在学校的一天。
要求：
1. 参考提示内容，可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，条理清晰，书写工整；
3. 不少于 70 词。
My schl day
_____________________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
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试卷答案
听力（略）
语法与情景对话
21. C （1分）
22. B （1分）
23. A （1分）24. A （1分）
25. D （1分）
26. C （1分）
27. A （1分）
28. C （1分）
29. C （1分）
30. B （1分）
31. A （1分）
32. B （1分）
33. D （1分）
34. B （1分）
35. B （1分）
36. C （1分）
37. C （1分）
38. D （1分）
39. B （1分）
40. C （1分）
完形填空
41. A （1.5分）
42. D （1.5分）
43. B （1.5分）
44. A （1.5分）45. A （1.5分）
46. B （1.5分）
47. C （1.5分）
48. A （1.5分）
49. B （1.5分）
50. A （1.5分）
阅读理解
51. B （2分）
52. B （2分）
53. A （2分）
54. B （2分）
55. B （2分）
56. B （2分）
57. C （2分）
58. A （2分）
59. C （2分）
60. A （2分）61. A （2分）
62. B （2分）
63. C （2分）
64. C （2分）
65. D （2分）
任务型完形填空
66. interesting (1分)
67. Chinese （1分）
68. snws （1分）
69. and （1分）
70. Hw （1分）
71. are （1分）
72. with （1分）
73. really （1分）
74. t make （1分）
75. kinds （1分）
任务型阅读理解
76. Eight. （2分）
77. and （2分）
78. 正如谚语所说，“兴趣是最好的老师。” （2分）
79. He wants t watch birds, take phts and cllect leaves. (2分)
80. C （2分）
口语交际
81. B （2分）
82. E （2分）
83. D （2分）
84. A （2分）
85. C （2分）
词汇考察
86. teeth （1分）
87. twelfth （1分）
88. telling （1分）
89. singer （1分）
90. speak （1分）
91. meaningful (1分)
92. t play （1分）
93. usually （1分）
94. us （1分）
95. dressed （1分）
根据所给汉语提示，完成句子
96. help; with (2分)
97. blw ut （2分）
98. smething different (2分)
99. preparing; fr (2分)
100. interested in (2分)
书面表达（15分）
My schl day
I'm Bill. I get up at 6:30 in the mrning. Then I have breakfast at 7:00. I g t schl at 7:30. Classes start at 8:20. In the mrning, I have fur classes. I have lunch at 12:00. In the afternn, classes begin at 2:30. I have tw classes. After schl, I g t the art club. I have dinner at 6:30 in the evening. After dinner, I read bks and d my hmewrk. I g t bed at 9:30. It's a busy but happy day. (要点:包含所有提示内容，语句通顺，条理清晰，书写工整，不少于70词，可得15分.若有部分要点缺失、语句不够通顺、条理不够清晰或字数不足，可酌情扣分.)上午
6:30 起床；7:00 吃早餐；7:30 去上学；8:20 开始上课；
早晨有 4 节课,12：00 吃午饭
下午
2:30 上课，有两节课，放学后，上美术社团
晚上
6：30 吃晚饭，饭后阅读，做作业，9:30 上床睡觉