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      这是一份七年级英语下学期期中模拟卷(广东专用)-七下期中 易错难点 满分冲刺(人教版2024)(原卷版)-A4,共7页。试卷主要包含了 语句连贯,词数80左右等内容,欢迎下载使用。
      说明:
      1. 全卷满分为90分,考试用时为70分钟。
      答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号、座位号。用2B铅笔把对应该号码的标号涂黑。
      选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试题上。
      非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
      一、语法选择(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
      通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求,从每题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
      Which meal d we need mst every day, breakfast, lunch r dinner?
      Dinner is the biggest meal f the day 1 it is nt the meal we need mst. Breakfast is the meal we need mst 2 frm night t the next mrning is a lng time t g withut fd. We may feel 3 easily r ill if we have n breakfast fr a lng time.
      4 times a day shuld children eat? Mst children eat three meals a day. But five times a day is 5 fr children. Children are always hungry after the 6 class in the mrning and in the afternn. They shuld have a snack then. It 7 give children the energy t g n their study fr ther classes. Children shuld have an apple between 8 . It is als gd 9 ranges, pears and bananas. Children are grwing each day. They need t eat them 10 . It is gd fr their health.
      1.A.andB.rC.but
      2.A.becauseB.ifC.when
      3.A.sleepyB.sleepC.sleeping
      4.A.Hw ftenB.Hw lngC.Hw many
      5.A.wellB.gdC.bad
      6.A.secndB.twiceC.tw
      7.A.have tB.mustC.can
      8.A.classB.classesC.a class
      9.A.eatB.eatingC.t eat
      10.A.seldmB.ftenC.never
      二、完形填空(本大题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
      通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
      Sme peple have n interest in sprts. They think that sprts make them 11 and smell bad. They say, “Why waste time playing sprts?” T these peple, I plitely say, “Yu have nt fund the 12 f sprts!”
      Let me share with yu a basketball game I played with my teammates tw weeks ag. Our parents and friends were there t 13 us. A lt f peple were watching. We all wanted t 14 the game in frnt f s many peple. The game was 15 ver and we were ne pint behind. Our cach called us tgether and said, “Okay, this is it! Either we scre nw r the game is ver. Let’s wrk hard t scre. Even if we dn’t scre, 16 we knw that we have tried ur best. S, bys, dn’t think t much. It desn’t matter if we lse. Just d it.”
      Well, in the last 17 f the game, we truly scred and tw teams tied (打成平局)! We went int vertime (加时), and the cach hugged all f us. He tld us that he was 18 because he had never seen a team try harder than us.
      T be hnest, I 19 a lt f pleasure in playing sprts. It makes me happy and cmfrtable. That’s why I play sprts whenever I get the chance. S my 20 is t chse a sprt and keep ding it. Yur bdy will thank yu and yur mind will be ready t wrk well.
      11.A.lazyB.tiredC.uglyD.stupid
      12.A.priceB.timeC.funD.chance
      13.A.callB.imprveC.helpD.cheer
      14.A.winB.watchC.jinD.beat
      15.A.suddenlyB.nearlyC.finallyD.quickly
      16.A.at firstB.at nceC.at timesD.at least
      17.A.mnthB.weekC.hurD.minute
      18.A.braveB.activeC.pleasedD.cnfident
      19.A.feelB.faceC.guessD.give
      20.A.adviceB.situatinC.practiceD.interest
      三、阅读理解(本大题有15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
      阅读A、B两篇短文、从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
      A
      21.What can peple prbably (可能) d in the train museum?
      A.Take phts.B.Run.C.Smke.D.Get n the trains.
      22.What must peple d befre getting int the swimming pl?
      A.Brush their teeth.B.Eat sme fd.C.Take sme drinks.D.Take a shwer.
      23.In Children’s Play Area, children must wear ______.
      A.hatsB.glassesC.scksD.shes
      24.Hw many rules f Children’s Play Area are the same as rules f the swimming pl?
      A.One.B.Tw.C.Three.D.Fur.
      25.Wh may be interested in the material?
      A.Sally—she wants t find a restaurant with delicius hamburgers.
      B.Jack—he wants t knw what he shuldn’t d in the swimming pl.
      C.Mark—he wuld like t buy a new pair f shes.
      D.Susan—she wants t find a gd place t enjy reading in the afternn.
      B
      The US has lts f cheese. Milk makers in the US keep abut 630 millin kilgrams f cheese.
      S where des all the cheese cme frm, and why d makers keep it? The answer is that farmers make t much milk in America. Peple can keep the cheese fr a lng time. S milk makers are turning the extra (额外的) milk int different types f cheese, such as Cheddar, Clby, Mnterey Jack, and Swiss. Peple can eat different cheeses and mre peple buy the cheeses.
      Americans drink less milk than befre. In 1975, an American drank abut 29 gallns (110 liters) f milk a year. In 2017, that number was dwn t abut 17 gallns (66 liters). And nw, fr many reasns, farmers can get mre milk frm their cws. S there is mre and mre extra milk. When there’s t much f smething, the price (价格) usually ges dwn. And the price f milk als ges dwn. S farmers dn’t make as much mney frm their milk as befre.
      The US keeps the mst cheese in the wrld fr abut 100 years. The 1.4 billin punds f cheese is enugh t build a cheese huse. It’s amazing.
      26.Why d milk makers in the US keep lts f cheese?
      A.There is t much milk.
      B.There are t many cws.
      C.Cheese is Americans’ favurite fd.
      D.Farmers want t pen mre cheese stres.
      27.What des the underlined wrd “types” in Paragraph 2 mean?
      A.Prices.B.Names.C.Kinds.D.Clurs.
      28.We can learn frm Paragraph 3 that ________.
      A.Americans didn’t like drinking milk in 2017
      B.Farmers can get mre mney by selling milk than befre
      C.Americans drank less milk in 2017 than in 1975
      D.The price f milk becmes mre and mre expensive
      29.Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
      A.Peple can keep cheeses lnger than milk.
      B.The price f milk becmes high in the US.
      C.An American drank abut 110 liters f milk a year in 2017.
      D.Milk makers in the US keep abut 650 millin kilgrams f milk.
      30.Which can be the best title fr the passage?
      A.The Milk in US
      B.The Cheese in the US
      C.A Cheese Huse in US
      D.The Hard-wrking Farmers in US
      C
      配对阅读。左栏是五个人喜爱的动物,右栏是七种动物的特征描述,请为左栏的每个人选择一种对应的动物,并将答案的字母编号填写在题号前的括号内。
      四、短文填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
      从方框内选择恰当的词并用其正确形式填空,使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词,每词仅用一次,有两词为多余项。
      I’m ld, but I can still d well in many table tennis games. And yu will be surprised when yu knw my 36 . I am 90 years ld! Peple are surprised because few peple are gd 37 sprt at my age. They ften ask me hw t keep 38 at 90. I think it’s natural (自然的) . Many peple can live t be 90 if they eat healthily 39 d sme exercise.
      First f all, I think 40 is very imprtant. I ften have milk and bread at abut 7 a. m. Milk and bread give me 41 . S I dn’t ften feel hungry in the mrning. I 42 eat snacks because I dn’t think 43 are healthy. I have sme rice and vegetables fr lunch and supper. I dn’t eat meat. And between 44 , I usually have an apple r 45 banana.
      I d sme exercise t. I play table tennis r badmintn with my grandsn every day.
      五、读写综合(本大题分为A、B两部分,共25分)
      A. 回答问题
      请阅读下面的短文,根据所提供的信息,回答5 个问题,要求所写答案语法正确,语义完整切题。
      Hell. My name is Laura. I’m 12 years ld and I’m frm Cambridge in England. I live with my family happily. I have gd eating habits. I eat sme fruit and sme bread fr breakfast. And I drink sme water after having breakfast. I can’t eat biscuits (饼干). I like them but my mum says they’re nt gd fr me.
      Janna and Penny are my friends. Their mum says a healthy breakfast is gd fr them. They like milk and they drink it every mrning. They eat bread and sme apples fr breakfast.
      My brther’s name is Will. Pizzas are his favurite fd but he desn’t eat them fr breakfast. Because Mum says eating lts f pizzas isn’t gd fr him. He eats sme cheese and sme bread fr breakfast.
      My dad desn’t drink milk. He desn’t like it. He drinks water fr breakfast and he eats a banana and sme bread. Smetimes he als drinks cffee when he feels tired.
      46.Hw ld is Laura?

      47.What des Laura eat fr breakfast?

      48.When d Janna and Penny drink milk?

      49.Why desn’t Will eat pizzas fr breakfast?

      50.Wh desn’t drink milk?

      B. 书面表达
      假设你叫李华,你们学校英语社团正在开展以“健康生活”为主题的线上交流活动,请分享你的饮食和运动习惯。请你根据以下思维导图内容提示用英文写一篇短文。
      注意:
      1. 可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息;
      2. 不能照抄课文,不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和真实姓名;
      3. 语句连贯,词数80左右。作文的标题和开头已经给出,不计入总词数。
      My Healthy Life
      Hell, dear friends!






      Train Museum (博物馆) RulesIn the Train Museum, yu can knw the histry f trains and what kinds f trains there are in the wrld nw. Here are sme rules f the Train Museum.◎ Be quiet.
      ◎ N running.
      ◎ N smking (吸烟).
      ◎ Dn’t get n the trains in the museum.
      Swimming Pl RulesIt’s a gd place fr swimming lvers. Yu can have a gd time taking sme exercise here. But yu shuld fllw the rules.◆N fd r drinks in the pl.
      ◆N smking.
      ◆Take a shwer befre getting int the pl.
      ◆N glassware (玻璃制品) in the pl.
      Children’s Play Area (儿童游戏区域) RulesChildren can play in the area with their friends after schl. They may als make sme new friends here. But Children’s Play Area als has sme rules t fllw.* N smking.
      * N fd r drinks.
      * N glassware.
      * N shes. But wear scks all the time.
      31 Giraffes are Tm’s favurite animals. He thinks they are tall and beautiful.
      32 Lily lves dlphins best, and she thinks they are smart and friendly.
      33 Tny thinks tigers are the best because they are strng and have beautiful fur.
      34 Lisa like elephants because they are strng and helpful. They have gd memries (记忆) t.
      35 The cute kalas are always Mary’s favrite. They are a little bit lazy.
      A.They like cld weather. They stand clse t each ther t keep warm. They eat small fish.
      B.They are smart and friendly. They live in water. When they find peple fall int water, they will help them.
      C. They have lng necks and they are very tall. Their fur is gd-lking. They eat leaves n the tree.
      D.They sleep in the daytime. They are very cute and lvely. They’re frm Australia.
      E. They have lng trunks. They use their trunks t carry heavy things. They can remember things really well.
      F. They have strng teeth and they eat meat. They run really fast t catch their prey (猎物).
      G. They are frm China. They’re very beautiful and very shy. They like eating bamb.
      and they age in energy never at meal the breakfast a fit

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