浙江省杭州市上城区2025_2026学年七年级上册期末英语试卷（扫描版，含答案）

这是一份浙江省杭州市上城区2025_2026学年七年级上册期末英语试卷（扫描版，含答案），共13页。试卷主要包含了做听力题时,先将答案标在试卷上等内容，欢迎下载使用。
考生须知:
1.本试卷满分 120 分,考试时间 100 分钟。
2.答题前,在答题纸规定位置上写姓名和准考证号,并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3.必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题,写在其它地方无效。
4.做听力题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5.考试结束后,试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解 (共四节,满分 25 分)
第一节（共 5 小题, 每小题 1 分, 满分 5 分）
听下面 5 句话。从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出所听句子描述的图片, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每句话后, 你都有 5 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每句话仅读一遍。
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What's the by's name?
A. Daniel Smith.B. Daniel Miller.C. David Smith.
7. What des Tm ften d after schl?
A. He plays basketball.
B. He plays ping - png.
C. He plays ftball.
8. Wh's the by in black?
A. He's Bill.
B. He's Bill's brther.
C. He's Bill's cusin.
9. What clr is Tim's hat?
A. It's blue.B. It's white.C. It's red.
10. Where is Linda's cap?
A. On the table.B. Under the chair.C. In the schlbag.
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第11和第12两个小题。
11. What time des Mike usually get up?
A. At 6:45.B. At 7:30.C. At 8:00.
12. What des Mike d in the afternn?
A. He ften has fur lessns.
B. He usually des sme husewrk.
C. He smetimes ges t the tennis club.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. Hw many peple are there in David's family?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.
14. What des David's father d?
A. He's a dctr.
B. He's a reprter.
C. He's a teacher.
15. Hw is David's little sister?
A. She's clever.B. She's cute.C. She's beautiful.
第四节 （共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第16至第20五个小题。
16. What des Vincent ften d n weekends?
A. He ges ut fr fun.
B. He reads with parents.
C. He takes a vilin lessn.
17. Where is Vincent in the first pht?
A. On a farm.B. Near a river.C. In a park.
18. What des Vincent think f ging t the park?
A. Bring.B. Imprtant.C. Relaxing.
19. What's in the secnd pht?
A. Sme trees and a river.
B. Sme sheep and ducks.
C. Sme insects and flwers.
20. Why des Vincent like weekends?
A. Because he can read his favrite bks.
B. Because he can see many beautiful things.
C. Because he can spend time with his family.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节 （共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中选出最佳选项。
A
Tny, USA 23 hurs ag
I like cllecting ty cars. They lk nice and I can play with them when I have time. What d yu like t cllect?
Li Hng, China 45 minutes ag
I lve cllecting take-away (外卖) bags fr cffee and milk tea. I ften draw pictures n them r cut pieces t make special card fr my friends. It gives ld bags new life and makes me happy.
Linda, USA 2 hurs ag
I cllect ld things with handwritten ntes (手写笔记) like ld bks. Smetimes, ld bks are mre expensive than new nes, but I think it's OK. Reading the ntes is a wnderful thing. It's like having pieces f ther peple's life by my side.
Mike, Canada 5 hurs ag
I lve cllecting pstcards with special messages (留言). I have pstcards frm many parts f the wrld. I ften read the messages n them. It helps me remember friends and ur fun times.
21. What des Li Hng like t cllect?
A. Pstcards.B. Old things.C. Take-away bags.D. Ntebks.
22. What can we learn frm the psts?
A. Tny likes t cllect ty cars because they are nice.
B. Li Hng lves drawing pictures n her ntebks.
C. Linda thinks reading bks is a wnderful thing.
D. Mike ften writes the messages n his pstcards.
23. What is the main tpic (话题) f these psts?
A. Schl life.B. Hbbies.C. Subjects.D. Friends.
B
I'm Lily and I live in China with my brther and parents. My mther cmes frm Australia, and my parents like t take me t Australia. S mst f the time, I spend my summer hlidays there. We have a big farm in Australia. My brther and I ften help my grandparents wrk in the field n weekdays.
On weekends we g t the z with parents. Dad likes giving fd t kangar (袋鼠) babies but he's nt interested in taking phts with them. Mum and I like t watch emus (鸸鹋) running best. Emus are the largest birds in Australia. They can't fly, but they run very fast.
We als try smething exciting. We fly in a ht - air balln. When we are in the sky, everything lks s tiny! Huses lk like little bxes n the grund (地面). Smetimes, Dad als des a bungee (蹦极) jump. It lks dangerus, but Dad likes it very much.
When we g back hme, my grandparents prepare a big dinner fr us. We usually have pizza.
I like my summer hlidays in Australia because we have s much fun!
24. Where des Lily ften spend summer hlidays?
A. China.B. Australia.C. Finland.D. Singapre.
25. What d Lily and her mther like t d best in the z?
A. Play with kangar babies.
B. Watch emus running.
C. Fly in a ht - air balln.
D. D a bungee jump.
26. What des the underlined wrd "tiny" in Paragraph 3 mean?
A. Small.B. Big.C. High.D. New.
27. What's the best title fr the text?
A. My Father's Special Hbbies.B. My Favrite Australian Animals.
C. My Everyday Farm Life in China.D. My Fun Summer Hlidays in Australia.
C
One - rm schlhuse means a small schl building with nly ne rm. Students f all different ages (frm 5 t 14 years ld) learn tgether in the small rm. There is usually ne teacher and the teacher teaches every subject t every grade. The lder students usually help the yunger nes.
In ne - rm schlhuses, students d husewrk, ck and raise a flag in the mrning. The teacher usually wrks with ne r tw students at a time. They study subjects like reading, math, spelling and s n.
Tday, sme students still study in ne - rm schlhuses. Fr example, in Maine, n Mnhegan Island, nly abut ne hundred peple live there in winter. It is t far frm the mainland (大陆), s students study in the island's little schlhuse.
In mst places, new bigger schls pen when ne - rm schlhuses becme t small. Peple wrry abut lsing the fine ld buildings f the ne - rm schlhuses. Sme ne - rm schlhuses becme museums. Other schlhuses becme shps and restaurants. These little buildings are sure imprtant pieces f American histry.
28. Wh may study in a ne - rm schlhuse?
A. Peter, 15 years ld.B. Sarah, 7 years ld.
C. Jimmy, 4 years ld.D. Linda, 1 year ld.
29. What can we learn abut ne - rm schlhuses in paragraph 2?
A. The schl buildings.B. The schl pht.C. The schl activities.D. The schl prblems.
30. Why d students n Mnhegan Island still study in a ne - rm schlhuse?
A. Because they like the ld schl building a lt.B. Because there are many teachers n the island.C. Because the island is t far frm the mainland.D. Because the schl n the island has many rms.
31. What is true abut ne - rm schlhuses?
A. Sme are hmes fr teachers t live in.
B. Sme becme museums and restaurants.
C. They all becme big mdern schls nw.
D. They aren't imprtant in American histry.
D
①Every year befre Dad's birthday, I ask what he wants. He always says, "Nthing. I have everything." S I usually get him smething bring like a shirt r scks. But this year I want t give him a big surprise. My dad likes sprts cars very much and he dreams t be a racing driver (赛车手). S I plan t buy a gift card fr him — ne hur f driving a really fast sprts car. I hpe he likes it. It isn't cheap! When he gets the gift, he says he is the happiest man in the wrld.
②My friend Peter has a similar prblem with his sister, Jy's birthday. He never knws what gift t get her. He smetimes buys bags r clthes fr her, but she never likes them. Or he takes her t have hamburgers in a restaurant, but she desn't like t eat ut. This year, he gives her flwers. She says she lves the flwers s much and they are her favrite.
③As fr me, mm and dad never knw what gifts t get fr me. They usually buy me bks r a watch. This year I ask them fr a day t have a picnic with me in the park. I like the time with my family. It makes me feel warm and happy and I lve my parents.
④The best gifts cme frm really knwing smene. A birthday is the best time t say, "I knw yu."
32. Why des the writer chse a gift card fr his dad this year?
A. Because it's cheap and lks cl.
B. Because his dad likes ging shpping.
C. Because his dad likes cllecting gift cards.
D. Because he knws his dad's dream abut cars.
33. What birthday gift des Jy like best?
A. Bags.B. Clthes.C. Flwers.D. Hamburgers.
34. What des the writer ask fr his birthday this year?
A. A special day ut with his family.
B. A birthday party with his friends.
C. A new bk and an expensive watch.
D. A gift card t buy clthes and shes.
35. What's the right structure (结构) f this passage?
第二节 任务型阅读 (共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的 A-E 五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入第 36~39 小题，并回答第 40 小题。
Meet ur new students in Grade 7 in...
The Schl News talks t Ben Hayes, a student frm England. It's his first day at ur schl.
Schl News: Hw's yur first day here, Ben?
Ben: Well, I'm a little nervus (紧张) t be in a new schl. 36 S everything ges well.
Schl News: 37
Ben: Yes. We change schls when we are abut 11 years ld in England. Here in America, mst students change schls at abut 10 and again at abut 13.
Schl News: D yu like ur schl?
Ben: Yes, that's fr sure. The schl is big, with abut 650 students! That's amazing! Als, 38 . It feels cl.
Schl News: 39
Ben: I guess I can pst sme phts n the message bard.
A. But the teachers and students are kind.
B. I have a different teacher fr each subject.
C. I can't play any musical instruments.
D. What d yu like t d t remember yur first day?
E. Are American schls different frm English schls?
40. Hw's yur schl? What's yur favrite place at schl? (不超过 15 词)
________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分 40 分）
第一节 完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中选出一个最佳选项。
In Oliver's class, mst children lve histry and listening t stries, but Oliver likes numbers and dates better. He 41 studies calendars (日历) in his free time.
During a histry lessn, Ms. Sanders finds Oliver isn't listening, s she 42 a date n the blackbard: 10th August 1992.
"Histry has many imprtant dates." Ms. Sanders says. " 43 this date. What d yu think it is, Oliver?"
The children are all very 44 nw. They are all lking at Oliver. "It's a Mnday!" Oliver says. The children laugh at (嘲笑) him, 45 Ms. Sanders says, "Yu're right, Oliver! It is a Mnday and it's my birthday. Hw d yu knw it's a Mnday?"
"It's easy!" Oliver says. "Write dwn a date. And I can tell yu what day f the week it is!"
"That's nt true!" Mike says. "Hw d yu 46 that? Yu're nt a cmputer."
Then, the children ask him abut mre 47 , and his answers are right each time.
“Ww!” the children say. “Yu’re a cmputer, Oliver!”
Oliver smiles. “I’m nt a cmputer!”
“Can yu teach 48 hw t d this?” Mike says.
“Sure. And I have a better 49 ,” Oliver says. “Let’s start a puzzle (智力游戏) club at ur schl. Puzzles are 50 !”
“Great!” the children shut.
41.A. alwaysB. laterC. stillD. sn
42.A. cleansB. writesC. cllectsD. starts
43.A. Lk atB. Listen tC. Put upD. Wrk ut
44.A. busyB. tiredC. ludD. quiet
45.A. sB. butC. rD. as
46.A. feelB. knwC. seeD. change
47.A. namesB. datesC. cmputersD. games
48.A. usB. themC. himD. her
49.A. nticeB. listC. ideaD. subject
50.A. bringB. difficultC. interestingD. fast
第二节 口语运用(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框中选择恰当的句子完成对话，使其完整、通顺。其中一项是多余选项。
A: Hi, Emma. What’s yur next class?
B: Maths. 51
A: Why d yu like it?
B: 52 And yu knw I am gd with numbers. 53
A: I like all the subjects, but my favurite is science. 54
B: Oh, it’s difficult fr me. 55
A: Sure!
A. What subject d yu like best?
B. It’s useful.
C. What ther classes d yu have tday?
D. It’s my favurite subject.
E. I can learn abut different animals and plants.
F. Can yu help me with this subject?
第三节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A. 阅读下面短文，用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次。
different help with husewrk future need
Dear Diary,
I'm tired tday. After I get hme, I have t clean my rm, d my hmewrk, and take the dg fr a walk. I hpe rbts can d everything fr us in the 56. Peple dn't need t d 57 again. Rbts can clean up and ck. And they can even 58 ur study. S, d I still need t take my dg fr a walk? Yes. Everyne 59 t get exercise. But ne thing can be 60. My dg may be a rbt, t!
B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释或音标提示写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
Dear Linda,
Lng time n see. I am glad t tell yu a 61 (/ˈdeli/) rutine f mine! I usually get up at 6:30. After brushing my 62 (牙齿) and having breakfast, I walk t schl. At schl, I usually have lts f interesting lessns and learn a lt.
After lunch, I play 63 (国际象棋) with my classmates. In the afternn, we have music and P.E. We learn hw t play the 64 (吉他) and play basketball. My friend Helen 65 (享受……的乐趣) playing basketball with me.
After schl, I g back hme n ft. It's 66 (已经) 4:30 p.m. when I get hme. My aunt Jsefina smetimes teaches me t play the pian. She is very 67 (/smɔːt/). After that, my brther and I have ur favrite dinner — 68 (牛肉) sandwiches with sme carrts!
Nw, it's time t take a 69 (淋浴) and g t bed. Tmrrw is Saturday. That's ur family day t have fun in the 70 (大自然)! I can't wait!
第四节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Charltte Chpin is 102 years ld. She is frm France and lives 71 a small village. She des yga and teaches peple hw t d yga.
When she is fifty, she starts yga. 72 (she) yga rm is in an ld plice statin. She gives lessns t a few 73 (wman) every week. Her students like her very much because she 74 (be) always graceful (优雅的) and beautiful. And she ften spends time with her students after class.
She ges n a TV shw 75 becmes famus when she is ninety - nine. Later, she gets 76 special gift fr helping peple knw mre abut yga. She says she just feels lucky t help thers learn abut a healthy and 77 (meaning) life. And she feels happy because many friends wuld like 78 (d) yga with her.
Every day, she 79 (eat) bread and drinks cffee. She ges utside t practice yga. She believes that gd friends and a healthy life 80 (real) help her live a lng life.
第四部分 书面表达（满分 15 分）
假如你是李华，你正在参与学校公众号主题为“寒假生活”的征稿活动。请根据以下相关信息，结合自身体验，写一篇英语短文完成投稿。
Winter Hliday Is Fun
注意：
1. 短文中必须包含提示中的所有信息，可适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
3. 词数 70 词左右，短文的首句已给出，不计入总词数。
My winter hliday is fun._________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
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试卷答案
第一部分 听力理解（略）
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节
21. C（2分）
22. C（2分）
23. B（2分）
24. B（2分）
25. B（2分）
26. A（2分）
27. D（2分）
28. B（2分）
29. C（2分）
30. C（2分）
31. B（2分）
32. D（2分）
33. C（2分）
34. A（2分）
35. A（2分）
第二节
36. A（2分）
37. E（2分）
38. B（2分）
39. D（2分）
40. My schl is big. My favrite place is the library.(2分)
第三部分 语言运用
第一节 完形填空
41. A（1分）
42. B（1分）
43. A（1分）
44. D（1分）
45. B（1分）
46. B（1分）
47. B（1分）
48. A（1分）
49. C（1分）
50. C（1分）
第二节 口语运用
51. D（1分）
52. B（1分）
53. A（1分）
54. E（1分）
55. F（1分）
第三节 词汇运用
A.
56. future（1分）
57. husewrk(1分)
58. help with（1分）
59. needs（1分）
60. different(1分)
B.
61. daily（1分）
62. teeth（1分）
63. chess（1分）
64. guitar（1分）
65. enjys（1分）
66. already（1分）
67. smart（1分）
68. play（1分）
69. shwer（1分）
70. nature（1分）
第四节 语法填空
71. in（1分）
72. Her（1分）
73. wmen（1分）
74. is（1分）
75. and（1分）
76. a（1分）
77. meaningful(1分)
78. t d（1分）
79. eats（1分）
80. really（1分）
第四部分 书面表达
My winter hliday is fun. I ften get tgether with my family and talk abut ur lives. I als read many interesting bks. Fr sprts, I like skating. It makes me strng and happy.(15分)