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      甘肃省定西市通渭县2025_2026学年八年级上学期12月月考英语试卷(文字版,含答案)

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      甘肃省定西市通渭县2025_2026学年八年级上学期12月月考英语试卷(文字版,含答案)

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      这是一份甘肃省定西市通渭县2025_2026学年八年级上学期12月月考英语试卷(文字版,含答案),共13页。
      注意事项:
      1. 全卷共 120 分,考试时间为 120 分钟。
      2. 答卷前将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
      Ⅰ、听力理解(分 4 小节,共 20 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 20 分)
      第一节:听句子,选择与所听内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。
      1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______
      第二节:听句子,选择恰当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
      ( )6.
      A. N, I can't.
      B. OK, I will.
      C. Yes, I d.
      ( )7.
      A. Very beautiful.B. In July.C. In Jiuzhaigu.
      ( )8.
      A. Srry, I wn't.
      B. Never mind.
      C. Nice t meet yu.
      ( )9.
      A. I dn't have ne.
      B. By wrking hard.
      C. I want t be a singer.
      ( )10.
      A. Nt really.B. Sme dumplings.C. It is delicius.
      第三节:听对话及问题,选择能回答所提问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
      ( )11. What is Li Kang's favurite subject?
      A. Chinese.B. Maths.C. Physics.
      ( )12. What des Jim like t d in his spare time?
      A. Play badmintn.B. Play the pian.C. Play basketball.
      ( )13. What des Jenny want t be?
      A. A nurse.B. A teacher.C. A pilt.
      ( )14. What des the by think f ding husewrk?
      A. Interesting.B. Bring.C. Exciting.
      ( )15. When will Mark g t Qinghai?
      A. In June.B. In July.C. In August.
      第四节:听短文,根据其内容选择能回答下列问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
      ( )16. When des Anna usually clean her bedrm?
      A. On Saturday mrnings.B. On Saturday afternns.C. On Sunday afternns.
      ( )17. What des Anna d during the cleaning?
      A. She srts(分类) her clthes.
      B. She cleans the windws.
      C. She makes her bed.
      ( )18. Hw lng des it take Anna t finish the cleaning?
      A. Abut 2 hurs.B. Abut 1.5 hurs.C. Abut 1 hur.
      ( )19. What des Anna d after the cleaning?
      A. She des her hmewrk.
      B. She eats lunch with her father.
      C. She cks lunch with her mther.
      ( )20. What fd des Anna's father like best?
      A. Map tfu.B. Dumplings.C. Gngba chicken.
      Ⅱ、语法与情景对话(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
      阅读下列各题,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案。
      ( )21. I like travelling and I want t be a guide when I grw up.
      A. aB. anC. theD. /
      ( )22. Nt nly my parents but als I am lking frward t the trip. We are
      sure t have great fun.
      A. amB. areC. wasD. were
      ( )23. —Tmmy, be careful with the scissrs while making the kite.
      —OK, Mum. Dn't wrry.
      A. is careful withB. be careful withC. being careful withD. t be careful with
      ( )24. Tm's father warns him nt t g t the frest because
      many wlves live there.
      A. wlvesB. eaglesC. antelpesD. explrers
      ( )25. Hangzhu is a beautiful city. Thusands f peple visit it every year.
      A. Thusand fB. Three thusandsC. Thusands fD. Thusand
      ( )26. Sme peple might think f the Palace Museum when talking abut Beijing.
      But I like Beijing Rast Duck better.
      A. mustB. needC. mightD. shuld
      ( )27. —Dn't wrry. Perhaps Dad will take yu t the party.
      —N. He will take Bb there.
      A. HweverB. PerhapsC. AlthughD. Exactly
      ( )28. The rain beat against her face as she walked thrugh the wind and rain.
      A. frmB. inC. againstD. at
      ( )29. —Which kind f mvies d yu prefer, actin mvies r cmedies?
      —I like actin mvies better.
      A. wellB. betterC. the betterD. the best
      ( )30. Life is a mirrr. When yu laugh in frnt f it, it will als laugh and s will
      it when yu cry t it.
      A. vlunteerB. mirrrC. keyD. knife
      ( )31. T learn mre abut wild animals, I spent sme time ______ nline last night.
      A. searchB. t searchC. searchingD. searched
      ( )32. China is ne f ______ cuntries in the wrld. We are all prud f it.
      A. lderB. the lderC. ldestD. the ldest
      ( )33. I still remember the day ______ we visited the science museum.
      A. whB. whenC. whyD. whse
      ( )34. I was surprised by my English test grade. I didn't ______ t get the highest grade in my class.
      A. explreB. expectC. addD. check
      ( )35. N ne can be right all the time. When peple ______, we shuldn't laugh at them.
      A. take stepsB. make mistakesC. make friendsD. set ff
      ( )36. This bk gives us a lt f advice n hw t ______ ur dreams.
      A. realiseB. makeC. fllwD. believe
      ( )37. —Nthing is ______ if yu put yur heart int it.
      —I think s.
      A. interestingB. impssibleC. fairD. daily
      ( )38. —Did yu enjy yur trip t Zhangjiajie?
      —Of curse. ______. And I like its glass bridge best.
      A. Sunds bringB. I dn't think s
      C. It was fantasticD. Nt really
      ( )39. Sandy's ntes belw are prbably abut her ______.
      A. favurite subjectsB. favurite hbbiesC. schl activitiesD. schl buildings
      ( )40. It's imprtant t learn English well, s we must take steps ______ ur English.
      A. imprveB. imprvedC. t imprveD. imprving
      Ⅲ、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
      阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
      Xu Xiake(1587-1641) was a great gegrapher during the Ming Dynasty. He was nt nly a traveller but als a(n) 41 . Every day, Xu wrte abut what he saw during his 42 in his diary.
      Xu visited areas such as Guizhu, Yunnan and Guangxi. These places are 43 their karst(喀斯特) areas where sluble rcks are erded(侵蚀) ver time, prducing caves, twers, ridges and ther features. Xu als 44 lcal plants, and hw thse plants were affected(影响) by wind and 45 in temperature. Xu crrected many mistakes abut China's gegraphy. He discvered that the Lancang River and the Nujiang River were nt
      ne, but tw 46 rivers. He als prpsed the true surce f the Changjiang River was nt the Minjiang River, which peple mistakenly 47 that it was fr centuries.
      Xu Xiake travelled thrugh many places. His writing 48 became a huge bk f ver 600, 000 characters, The Travel Diaries f Xu Xiake. The Travel Diaries f Xu Xiake is 49 nt nly fr its accurate descriptins(精神的描述) f gegraphy, but als fr Xu's beautiful writing style. He expressed his lve fr nature 50 his writing. Xu was bth a great gegrapher and a talented writer.
      ( )41.
      A. singerB. ckC. explrerD. artist
      ( )42.
      A. hlidaysB. travelsC. studiesD. wrks
      ( )43.
      A. interested inB. prud fC. clse tD. famus fr
      ( )44.
      A. prvided withB. wrte abutC. thught fD. wrried abut
      ( )45.
      A. changesB. warmthC. waterD. creatures
      ( )46.
      A. playfulB. separateC. dangerusD. prfessinal
      ( )47.
      A. dreamedB. createdC. believedD. searched
      ( )48.
      A. usuallyB. recentlyC. finallyD. luckily
      ( )49.
      A. naturalB. imprtantC. realD. bring
      ( )50.
      A. nB. thrughC. tD. abve
      Ⅳ、阅读理解(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
      A
      阅读以上材料,根据其内容判断下列句子正误。正确填A、错误填B。
      ( )51. Kids aged 6-14 can jin the club.
      ( )52. Kids will learn hw t ck meals in Week 4
      ( )53. Kids can learn life skills in Schl Activity Rm 3.
      ( )54. If Jhn plans t jin the club n 30 August, he has t pay $72.
      ( )55. If yu want t knw mre infrmatin, yu can nly telephne the club.
      B
      Dear Mr Smith,
      I'm Linda. I'm writing t yu because I need yur help. I study very hard every day. I listen carefully in class, d all my hmewrk, and even spend my free time reviewing lessns. But my grades are still nt gd. I dn't knw what's wrng. Can yu tell me what I shuld d?
      Yurs sincerely,
      Linda
      Dear Linda,
      I'm srry t hear that yu're having truble with yur study. Here are fur suggestins fr yu.
      First, make a study plan. Fr example, yu can spend 30 minutes n maths, 20 minutes n English, and s n. Secnd, when yu study, fcus n ne thing at a time. ▲ If yu dn't understand anything in class, ask yur teacher right away. Finally, after yu study fr an hur, take a 10-minute break. Yu can walk arund.
      I believe if yu try these ways, yu will see an imprvement in yur grades. Dn't lse heart!
      Best wishes,
      Mr Smith
      阅读以上材料,根据其内容回答其后各个小题。
      ( )56. Why des Linda write t Mr Smith?
      A. Because she wants t tell him her hbbies.
      B. Because she wants t say hell t him.
      C. Because she needs his help with her study.
      D. Because she wants t shw her hmewrk.
      ( )57. Which f the fllwing sentences can be put in the ▲ ?
      A. Next, try t understand mre.
      B. Next, study with yur classmates.
      C. Third, dn't be afraid t ask questins.
      D. Third, talk with yur parents.
      ( )58. What is Mr Smith's first suggestin fr Linda?
      A. T ask the teacher fr help.
      B. T fcus n ne thing at a time.
      C. T make a study plan.
      D. T take a break after studying.
      ( )59. Hw lng shuld Linda rest after studying fr an hur?
      A. 10 minutes.B. 20 minutes.C. 30 minutes.D. 1 hur.
      ( )60. What can we infer(推断) frm the passage?
      A. Mr Smith gives Linda nly tw suggestins.
      B. Linda desn't d any f her hmewrk.
      C. Linda will get gd grades right away.
      D. Mr Smith thinks Linda's prblem can be slved with prper methds.
      V、任务型完形填空(共10空;每空1分,满分10分)
      用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,使短文通顺、正确、连贯,每个单词限用一次。
      want learn ne talent yu if write fr pssible thing
      D all f us have a talent? Are yu the 61 persn f all? Or is it pssible that smene has n talent?
      Everyne is lking 62 their talents. Everybdy 63 t be talented because it can make them feel great! Many peple ften think they are gd at sme things, but nt truly talented in them. 64 yu are ne f thse peple, just develp the things yu're gd at int talents.
      T find what yu are gd at, yu can try new 65 . Fr example, take sme special classes and see if yu can handle(应付) them. Or try smething new with a friend. If yu try, yu can expect 66 a lt. And yu may find yurself gd at cking, drawing, 67 r playing sprts. Yu may even find that yu're nt just gd at ne thing. Then develp these things yu're gd at int 68 talents. S everyne has a talent and it is 69 that smene has n talent. Althugh everyne is talented, yu need t find yur talents 70 . S remember—talents dn't cme t yu, but yu find them.
      Ⅵ、口语交际(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      阅读下面的对话,根据上下文,从方框内选择恰当的选项补全对话,使句意完整,符合逻辑。
      (其中有两项为多余选项)
      A: Hi, Henry! There are many different festivals in a year. 71
      B: The Mid-Autumn Festival.
      A: When d yu celebrate it in yur cuntry?
      B: 72
      A: 73
      B: We celebrate it by eating mncakes. That night we always get tgether with ur family.
      What's yur favurite festival?
      A: 74
      B: Yeah! The Spring Festival is als a get-tgether festival in ur cuntry.
      A: That's right. I always make dumplings with my family. We have a gd time tgether.
      B: 75. ________ Festivals bring us lts f fun in ur life.
      We celebrate it n the fifteenth day f the eighth mnth in the lunar calendar.
      We watch the full mn and eat mncakes.
      What's yur favurite festival?
      My favurite festival is the Spring Festival.
      Hw d yu celebrate it?
      The Chinese Mid - Autumn Festival is cming.
      That's really interesting.
      Ⅶ、词汇考查(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
      根据句意,用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
      76. Hw amazing! The (island) appear in all kinds f unusual shapes.
      77. Fresh air, clean water and green grass are all f great (imprtant) fr animals.
      78. The Less Plateau(黄土高原) is the (large) less landfrm in the wrld.
      79. Dn't depend n thers t much! It is nt gd fr yur (grw).
      80. After hard (train), she wn first prize in the cmpetitin.
      81. I am lking frward t (meet) my ld friend at the party.
      82. She has a fear f (high), s she never ges int high buildings.
      83. The village is in the (nrth) part f Gansu Prvince.
      84. I realised the imprtance f learning English (gradual).
      85. Hey, Jane. May I use yur mbile phne, please? I left (my) at hme.
      Ⅷ、根据所给汉语提示完成句子(共5小题;每空1分,满分10分)(每空限填一词)
      86. 大峡谷是世界上最著名的自然景观之一。
      The Grand Canyn is ne f the mst famus in the wrld.
      87. 维生素D可以增强我们的骨头并且使它们强壮。
      Vitamin D can ur bnes and make them strng.
      88. 我们大多数人都同意老师的想法。
      Mst f us the teacher's idea.
      89. 我们校队比他们校队有优势,因为我们训练更刻苦。
      Our schl team has an theirs because we
      train harder.
      90. 让我把我的新朋友介绍给你。
      Let me my new friend yu.
      IX、书面表达(满分10分)
      假设你是李华。你的英国网友汤姆(Tm)听说中国地大物博、山川秀丽、风景迷人,因此寒假要来中国旅游。请用英语给他写一封邮件,推荐一个你认为值得去的景点,并介绍该景点的特色、你推荐的理由以及游玩建议。
      写作要求:(1)文中须包含所有的要点提示,可适当发挥;
      (2)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称;
      (3)词数70左右(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。
      Dear Tm,
      I'm sure yu will have a gd time there.
      Yurs,
      Li Hua
      试卷答案
      Ⅰ、听力理解(略)
      Ⅱ、语法与情景对话
      1. 21. C (1分):“guide”是可数名词,此处表示“一名导游”,且“guide”以辅音音素开头,用“a”不合适,“an”用于元音音素开头的单词前,“/”不符合语法,“the”表示特指,这里是泛指,所以用“a”。
      2. 22. B (1分):“nt als...”连接并列主语时,谓语动词遵循就近原则,“I”后用“am”,但根据语境是现在进行时,“lking frward t”前用“are”(主语是“my parents and I”,就近原则靠近“I”,但整体是复数概念,这里是现在进行时,所以用“are”)。
      3. 23. B (1分):“be careful with”表示“小心……”,“be careful with the scissrs”符合语境。
      4. 24. A (1分):根据图片可知是狼,“wlves”是“wlf”的复数形式,“eagles”是鹰,“antelpes”是羚羊,“explrers”是探险家。
      5. 25. C (1分):“thusands f”表示“成千上万的”,是固定搭配。
      6. 26. D (1分):“shuld”表示“应该”,“must”表示“必须”,“need”表示“需要”,“might”表示“可能”,根据语境“一些人认为故宫博物院……但我认为北京烤鸭更好”,用“shuld”更合适。
      7. 27. A (1分):“Hwever”表示“然而”,“Perhaps”表示“也许”,“Althugh”表示“尽管”,“Exactly”表示“确切地”,根据语境“——别担心。爸爸会带鲍勃去派对。——不。他会带鲍勃去那里。”,用“Hwever”表示转折。
      8. 28. B (1分):“beat against”表示“撞击”,“beat in”表示“打进”,“beat at”表示“在……方面打败”,根据语境“雨打在她脸上”,用“beat against”。
      9. 29. B (1分):“”表示“更喜欢……”,是两者比较,“well”是原级,“the better”表示“更好的那个”,“the best”是最高级。
      10. 30. B (1分):“vlunteer”表示“志愿者”,“key”表示“钥匙”,“mirrr”表示“镜子”,“knife”表示“刀”,根据语境“生活就像一面镜子”,用“mirrr”。
      Ⅲ、完形填空
      1. 41. C (1.5分):根据下文“Xu was bth a great gegrapher and a talented writer.”可知徐霞客不仅是旅行者还是“探险家”,“singer”是歌手,“ck”是厨师,“artist”是艺术家。
      2. 42. B (1.5分):“travels”表示“旅行经历”,“hlidays”是假期,“studies”是学习,“wrks”是作品,根据语境“徐霞客每天写他的旅行经历”,用“travels”。
      3. 43. A (1.5分):“be interested in”表示“对……感兴趣”,“be prud f”表示“为……骄傲”,“be clse t”表示“靠近”,“be famus fr”表示“因……著名”,根据语境“这些地方引起了他的兴趣”,用“be interested in”。
      4. 44. B (1.5分):“wrte abut”表示“写关于……”,“prvided with”表示“提供”,“thught f”表示“想起”,“wrried abut”表示“担心”,根据语境“徐霞客写关于当地植物的内容”,用“wrte abut”。
      abut”。
      5. 45. A(1.5分):“changes”表示“变化”,“warmth”表示“温暖”,“water”表示“水”,“creatures”表示“生物”,根据语境“温度变化”,用“changes”。
      6. 46. B(1.5分):“separate”表示“分开的”,“playful”表示“顽皮的”,“dangerus”表示“危险的”,“prfessinal”表示“专业的”,根据语境“不是一条河而是两条分开的河”,用“separate”。
      7. 47. A(1.5分):“dreamed”表示“梦想”,“created”表示“创造”,“believed”表示“相信”,“searched”表示“搜索”,根据语境“人们错误地梦想了几个世纪”,用“dreamed”。
      8. 48. C(1.5分):“finally”表示“最后”,“usually”表示“通常”,“recently”表示“最近”,“luckily”表示“幸运地”,根据语境“最后成为一本巨著”,用“finally”。
      9. 49. B(1.5分):“imprtant”表示“重要的”,“natural”表示“自然的”,“real”表示“真实的”,“bring”表示“无聊的”,根据语境“不仅对地理描述的准确性很重要”,用“imprtant”。
      10. 50. C(1.5分):“thrugh”表示“通过”,“n”表示“在……上”,“t”表示“到”,“abve”表示“在……上方”,根据语境“通过他的写作表达了他对自然的热爱”,用“thrugh”。
      Ⅳ、阅读理解
      1. 51. B(2分):根据“Kids aged 6 - 12”可知6 - 14岁不能参加,所以错误。
      2. 52. A(2分):根据“Week 4: Ck meals”可知正确。
      3. 53. B(2分):根据“Schl Activity Rm 3”可知正确。
      4. 54. B(2分):根据“$80 each kid (10% ff befre 31 August)”可知80×(1 - 10%) = 72,正确。
      5. 55. B(2分):根据“Fr mre infrmatin”可知不止可以电话联系,还可以发邮件等,所以错误。
      Ⅴ、任务型完形填空
      1. 61. the mst talented(1分):根据“f all”可知用最高级。
      2. 62. fr(1分):“lk fr”表示“寻找”。
      3. 63. wants(1分):“Everybdy”作主语,谓语动词用第三人称单数形式。
      4. 64. If(1分):“If”表示“如果”,引导条件状语从句。
      5. 65. things(1分):“new things”表示“新事物”。
      6. 66. t learn(1分):“expect t d sth.”表示“期望做某事”。
      7. 67. singing(1分):根据“cking, drawing, playing sprts”可知用动名词形式。
      8. 68. real(1分):“real talents”表示“真正的才能”。
      9. 69. impssible(1分):“It's impssible that...”表示“……是不可能的”。
      10. 70. first(1分):“first”表示“首先”。
      Ⅵ、口语交际
      1. 71. E(1分):根据回答“The Mid - Autumn Festival.”可知问“你如何庆祝它?”。
      2. 72. G(1分):根据上文“你呢?”和下文“我们通过吃月饼庆祝它。”可知用“那真有趣。”。
      3. 73. A(1分):根据回答“我们通过吃月饼庆祝它。”可知问“你们什么时候庆祝它?”。
      4. 74. D(1分):根据回答“Yeah! The Spring Festival is als a get tgether festival in ur cuntry.”可知说“我最喜欢的节日是春节。”。
      5. 75. B(1分):根据上文“我们总是聚在一起。”可知说“我们看满月吃月饼。”。
      Ⅶ、词汇考查
      1. 76. islands(1分):“island”是可数名词,根据“all kinds f”可知用复数形式。
      2. 77. imprtance(1分):“f great imprtance”表示“非常重要”。
      3. 78. largest(1分):“the largest”表示“最大的”。
      4. 79. grwth(1分):“yur”后接名词。
      5. 80. training(1分):“after hard training”表示“经过艰苦训练后”。
      6. 81. meet(1分):“lk frward t ding sth.”表示“期望做某事”。
      7. 82. heights(1分):“fear f heights”表示“恐高”。
      8. 83. nrthern(1分):“nrthern”表示“北方的”。
      9. 84. gradually(1分):“gradually”表示“逐渐地”。
      10. 85. mine(1分):“mine”表示“我的(手机)”。
      Ⅷ、根据所给汉语提示完成句子
      1. 86. natural wnders(1分):“natural wnders”表示“自然景观”。
      2. 87. build up(1分):“build up”表示“增强”。
      3. 88. agree with(1分):“agree with”表示“同意”。
      4. 89. advantage ver(1分):“have an advantage ver”表示“比……有优势”。
      5. 90. intrduce; t(1分):“”表示“把……介绍给……”。
      Ⅸ、书面表达(略)Kids' Life Skills
      Learn and grw thrugh husewrk!
      Want t take care f yurself and make yur hme a better place?
      Jin the Kids' Life Skills Club!
      Wh can jin
      Kids aged 6 - 12
      When
      2:00 PM - 4:00 PM
      Every Saturday in September
      Where
      Schl Activity Rm 3
      Price
      $80 each kid (10% ff
      befre 31 August)
      Fr mre infrmatin
      [email protected]
      We will teach ...

      ▶ Week 1: Fld clthes and make the bed
      ▶ Week 2: Wash the clthes
      ▶ Week 3: Sweep and mp(拖地) the flr
      ▶ Week 4: Ck meals
      We will prepare everything fr yu. Just bring
      yur smile!

      256994

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