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      这是一份辽宁省葫芦岛市绥中县第一初级中学2025_2026学年七年级上学期12月月考英语试题(文字版,含答案),共11页。试卷主要包含了听句子,选择最佳答案,短对话理解,长对话理解,短文理解,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
      第Ⅰ卷 听力部分 (共 20 分)
      一、听句子,选择最佳答案。每个句子读一遍。(每小题 1 分,共 5 分)
      ,I d.B.N,I'm nt.C.Yes,I can.
      2.A.I live in Lndn.B.I'm in Class 1.C.I'm frm the UK.
      ,I'm Emma Brwn.B.Hi, nice t meet yu.C.Hi, hw are yu?
      ,we play every day.B.Yes,I like playing the erhu.C.I lve playing the vilin.
      're welcme.B.Srry.C.Thanks.
      二、短对话理解(每小题 1 分,共 5 分)
      6. What clr is Emma's schlbag?
      A. Red.B. Blue.C. Brwn.
      7. Wh is the girl in the pht?
      A. Linda.B. Helen.C. Lily.
      8. What des the by learn in the sprts club?
      A. Ping - png.B. Tennis.C. Ftball.
      9. Hw ld is the apple tree?
      A. 12 years ld.B. 20 years ld.C. 22 years ld.
      10. Where is the dining hall in Tina's schl?
      A. Behind the library.
      B. In frnt f the gym.
      C. Acrss frm the schl hall.
      三、长对话理解(每小题 1 分,共 6 分)
      听第一段对话,回答 11—13 题
      11. What des Sally think f the drama club?
      A. Bring.B. Amazing.C. Interesting.
      12. When d students g t the drama club?
      A. On Wednesday.B. On Thursday.C. On Sunday.
      13. What des the by well in?
      A. Telling stries.B. Reading with feeling.C. Singing and dancing.
      听第二段对话,回答14—16题
      14. Whse birthday is cming?
      A. PeterB. Lisa's mther.C. Lisa.
      15. What des Lisa like?
      A. Ding sprts.B. Drawing.C. Reading.
      16. What birthday gift des Tina give t Lisa?
      A. A basketball.B. A picture.C. A pht.
      四、短文理解(每小题1分,共4分)
      17 When des Alice have breakfast?
      A. At 7:00.B. At 7:05C. At 7:15.
      18. Hw many classes des Alice have every day?
      A. Tw.B. Three.C. Five.
      19. What is Alice's favrite subject?
      A. Chinese.B. Maths.C. Science.
      20. What des Alice d befre ging t bed?
      A. She takes a walk.
      B. She plays the guitar.
      C. She des her hmewrk.
      第 II 卷 笔试部分(共 100 分)
      第一部分 选择题(共 50 分)
      一、阅读理解(共 20 小题,每小题 2 分;满分 40 分)
      第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 选项中选出最佳选
      项。
      A
      D yu want t study and d hmewrk with yur friends r classmates after schl? Then yu can jin the study grup.
      Time: 5: 00 PM-6: 30 PM frm Mnday t Friday
      Place: Classrm 201 in the classrm building
      Teachers: We have different teachers every day t help yu with yur prblems.
      Attentin
      ★Only 20 students can jin us every schl day.
      ★Yu can sign up (报名) fr the next day's study grup befre 7: 00 every evening.
      1. Where d the study grup members meet?
      A. In the classrm building.B. In the schl library.
      C. In the student centre.D. In the schl hall.
      2. If students have maths prblems, they can jin the study grup n ______.
      A. MndayB. TuesdayC. WednesdayD. Thursday
      3. What can we learn frm the ad?
      A. Different teachers cme t the study grup t help every weekend.
      B. Miss Liu will help students with their Gegraphy in the study grup.
      C. Mre than thirty students can jin the study grup every schl day.
      D. Students can sign up fr Friday's study grup at 6: 00 p. m. n Thursday.
      4. What's the ad mainly abut?
      A. Physical exercise.B. After - schl study.
      C. Weekly timetable.D. Weekend activity.
      B
      A schl has lts f peple wrking in it. Each persn has an imprtant jb. Read abut sme f these jbs belw (在下面).
      Getting Kids t Schl Safely,
      Crssing guards (过路警卫) guide students acrss the street. Schl bus drivers take students t schl. Wh helps yu get t schl?
      Keeping Schls Clean,
      Custdians (看门人) keep schls clean. They fix things that are brken. Custdians keep schls safe and healthy.
      Leading the Schl
      A headteacher is in charge f (负责) the schl. This persn tells teachers what they need t d. Headteachers als meet with parents. They slve (解决) prblems in the schl.
      Helping Kids Learn
      Teachers wrk in a classrm. They teach subjects like maths, reading and science. They help kids reach their gals. Hw des yur teacher help yu?
      5. Hw many kinds f jbs are mentined in the text?
      A. Five.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
      6. What des the underlined wrd "fix" in Paragraph 3 mean?
      A. 决定B. 组织C. 修理D. 找到
      7. What’s the structure f the text?
      8. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE accrding t the text?
      A. Schl bus drivers take students t schl.
      B. Crssing guards guide students acrss the street.
      C. Headteachers nly meet with parents.
      D. Teachers help kids reach their gals.
      C
      Here is gd news (消息) fr students in Guiyang, Guizhu. Nw, they can g t smart gyms and d exercise there.
      There are 90 smart gyms in the schls f Guiyang. Teachers and students can d exercise in these gyms fr free (免费). This kind f gym makes exercise easy and interesting. They just need a card. With the card, they can see their exercise infrmatin and knw hw much exercise they d. Many teachers and students like t g t the smart gyms.
      M Yuanping is a teacher in Guiyang. He ges t the gym t exercise every day with his friends. He thinks the smart gym is great. M says, “I exercise in the gym every mrning. It makes me happy and healthy.” Seeing their teachers exercise in the gym, many students als g t the gym in their free time. They all think it’s very fun t exercise with these sprts equipment (器械).
      9. What is the gd news fr students in Guiyang?
      A. Every family can get a smart gym.
      B.Students can exercise in smart gyms.
      C. Every schl builds smart gyms.
      D.All the students can get free equipment.
      10. Hw can students and teachers knw their exercise infrmatin?
      A. With a card.B. With a key.C. With a phne.D. With a ntice.
      11. Why des the writer tell the stry f M Yuanping?
      A. T tell us teachers like ding exercise.
      B. T tell us students have a lt f time.
      C. T tell us ding exercise is fun.
      D. T tell us the smart gym is great.
      12. Which can be the best title fr the text?
      A. A Special CardB. A Nice TeacherC. A Smart SchlD. Smart Gyms in Schls
      D
      Hanfu, the traditinal Chinese clthes with a lng histry, is becming mre and mre ppular, especially amng yung peple. Yu can see them wearing Hanfu walking in the streets.
      Sme peple wear Hanfu because it is beautiful and well - made, while sme may be interested in the rich culture(文化)behind it. Zhang Zening, a girl frm Nanjing, Jiangsu Prvince, has made mre than 50 sets f Hanfu frm different dynasties(朝代). She started t make her wn Hanfu ten years ag because she culdn’t buy her favurite style(风格) in the market.
      In rder t make Hanfu, she had t visit many places f interest, such as Yngle Palace in Shanxi Prvince, Fahai Temple in Beijing, and Dunhuang in Gansu Prvince. She studied frm the murals(壁画)there. She als studied frm paintings by Tang Bhu frm the Ming Dynasty. She taught herself painting and cstume(服装)designs.
      Making Hanfu is nt easy. It takes abut a mnth t make each Hanfu set. Zhang nw runs the He Lu Hanfu Studi in Nanjing. She said, “Fr me, making Hanfu is nt nly abut making a piece f clthing, but als abut tasting an amazing culture.”
      13. The circle wrd "them" is refer t ____?
      A. HanfuB. histryC. yung pepleD. streets
      14. What d we knw abut Zhang Zening frm the passage?
      A. She is a girl frm Jiangxi Prvince.
      B. She started t make her wn Hanfu ten years ag.
      C. She never visited Dunhuang in Gansu Prvince.
      D. She spends abut three mnths making each Hanfu set.
      15. Why did Zhang Zening decide t make her wn Hanfu?
      A. Because she thught Hanfu was t expensive.
      B. Because she culdn’t buy her favurite ne in the market.
      C. Because she wrked very hard.
      D. Because she liked making clthes by herself.
      16. Where may yu read this passage?
      A. In a stry bk.B. In a magazine.
      C. In a nvel(小说).D. On the blackbard f a classrm.
      第二节 阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
      We shuld thank many peple in ur lives. But the peple I want t give the mst thanks t are my parents.
      My parents always think f me first whatever they d. Once when I am very yung, my parents and I g bating. 17. ____ And we are very happy in the bat. But after sme time, a big wave turn ur little bat ver and I fall int the water. My mther get very nervus. She can't swim but she jump int the water withut thinking. 18. ____ In the water, he keep pushing (推) my mther and me twards (向) the bank.
      On the bank, my mther keep asking me if I was OK. She als feel terrible, but she think f me first.
      19. ________ My family is nt rich at that time. One day, my father buy sme chclate fr me in the shp. When I want t give him a piece f chclate, he says, " N, hney, I am nt hungry and I dn't like chclate. " I dn't really understand what my father says until I grw lder. 20. ________
      My dear parents, thank yu. In my pinin, yu are bth the greatest peple in the wrld. I always wish yu health and happiness.
      At first, the waves (海浪) are nt big.
      My father als jump int the water as quickly as pssible.
      Anther thing happen (发生) when I am 7.
      In fact, he likes ciclate but he lves me mre.
      My father is always strict with me.
      二、完形填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分;满分 10 分)。
      阅读短文,理解其大意,从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      Many students are nt very healthy nw. Mst f them knw it is gd fr them t play sprts. (21) ______ when they are free, they always dn't want t exercise. Sme f them nly (22) ______ sprts games n TV. Allen is a 15 - year - ld by. He likes basketball, but he (23) ______ plays it. He thinks it is difficult fr (24) ______. He likes many basketball players (25) ______ Ya Ming and Kbe, but he desn't (26) ____ like them.
      Many bys and girls dn't like vegetables (27) ______ fruit, either. They like eating junk fd very much. But eating vegetables and fruit is (28) fr ur health. Students need t (29) ______ them every day. S if yu want (30) healthy, yu shuld eat vegetables and fruit and exercise every day!
      (21)
      A. S B. And C. But D. Then
      (22)
      A. see B. watch C. lk D. visit
      (23)
      A. never B. always C. ften D. usually
      (24)
      A. he B. his C. him D. her
      (25)
      A. as B. near C. ver D. like
      (26)
      A. take phts B. d sprts C. g shpping D. play ftball
      (27)
      A. but B. and C. s D. r
      (28)
      A. bad B. gd C. difficult D. easy
      (29)
      A. eat B. buy C. water D. plan
      (30)
      A. be B. keeping C. being D. t keep
      第二部分 非选择题 (共 50 分)
      三、语篇填空(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分;满分 10 分)
      阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内所给单词的适当形式。
      There is a free library in the street. It lks small (31) ______ there are all kinds f bks in it. (32) ______ (Child) can find their favurite bks there. The library is nt far away frm her huse.
      Lily is really (33) ______ (interest) in reading. She ften (34) ______ (walk) there when she is free. She thinks bks are imprtant. They can pen her mind and make her (35) ______ (learn) a lt.
      Tday is Sunday, she desn't g t schl. She gets up (36) ______ abut 8: 30 am. Lily and her sister walk t the library (37) ______ (happy). They sit n the chair near the reading rm. It takes them tw hurs t read bks. After that, their mther
      asks them t walk hme n the phne. S they take sme bks away. These bks are (38) ____ (use) t them. Of curse, they must lk after (39) ____ (they) well and give the bks back next day.
      The library brings great fun t kids. It is really (40) ____ great place.
      四、句子翻译(共7小题,41-44每小题1分,45-47每小题2分,满分10分)
      41.在数学课上,Bb 总是第一个计算出数学题。
      In math class, Bb always ____ math prblems first.
      42.对于我们来说利用好时间学习是一种好习惯。
      It's a gd habit fr us ____ ur time t study hard.
      43.Lily 在空闲时间喜欢听音乐放松。
      Lily Likes ____ music in her free time.
      44.当你看《浪浪山小妖怪》这部电影时,你就爱上它了。
      Yu will ____ it when yu watch the film Little Mnster f Langlang Muntain.
      45.Alice 擅长表演故事。
      46.你通常什么时候完成你的作业?
      47.每天早上,妈妈都为我准备早餐。
      五、阅读与表达(共4小题,48-50小题,每小题2分,51小题4分;满分10分)阅读短文然后根据内容回答问题。
      Jining a club is a great way t stay active (活跃的), meet new peple, and get new skills (技能). The breakfast club is a great meeting place fr students. Yu can eat and talk with yur friends here befre classes. The club meets frm 8: 00 a. m. t 8: 40a. m. in the cffee huse. There are a lt f different fd and drinks, such as bread, cake, ygurt, milk, juice. bananas and apples. We'd like t make sure the students start their day with healthy fd. Breakfast is very imprtant and students need energy (能量) fr mrning activities, s dn't skip breakfast fr
      classes.
      T make ur club run well, we need sme vlunteers (志愿者) t help us. If yu'd like t help thers, please cme t the cffee huse in the mrning and tell us yu want t jin us. Our vlunteer Jerry will write dwn yur name and phne number. If yu want t knw mre abut ur club, please call Emily at 5694582. She will be happy t answer yur questins.
      48. What can students d in the basketball club?
      49. Hw lng des the club meet?
      50. Why d they need sme vlunteers t help?
      51. What club d yu want t jin? Why? (Write 20 wrds r mre.)
      六、书面表达(满分20分)
      52. 假如你是林辉,刚从美国研学归来,在研学中遇到一个优秀的同学Tm。请你按照如下要求向大家介绍这位自律的同学。
      要点:1. 他的日常学校生活;
      2. 他最喜欢的科目及理由;
      3. 他经常做的课外活动;
      4. 你对他的学校生活的看法。
      注意:1. 词数70词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
      2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
      3. 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名
      试卷答案
      --------------------------------------------------
      第Ⅰ卷 听力部分(共20分)
      一、听句子,选择最佳答案。(每小题1分,共5分)
      1. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      2. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      3. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      4. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      5. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      二、短对话理解(每小题1分,共5分)
      6. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      7. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      8. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      9. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      10. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      三、长对话理解(每小题1分,共6分)
      11. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      12. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      13. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      14. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      15. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      16. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      四、短文理解(每小题1分,共4分)
      17. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      18. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      19. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      20. 题目缺失,无法作答。
      第Ⅱ卷 笔试部分(共100分)
      第一部分 选择题(共50分)
      一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
      第一节
      1. A(2分)
      2. B(2分)
      3. D(2分)
      4. B(2分)
      5. A(2分)
      6. C(2分)
      7. A(2分)
      8. C(2分)
      9. B(2分)
      10. A(2分)
      11. D(2分)
      12. D(2分)
      13. A(2分)
      14. B(2分)
      15. B(2分)
      16. B(2分)
      第二节
      17. A(2分)
      18. B(2分)
      19. C(2分)
      20. D(2分)
      二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
      21. C(1分)
      22. B(1分)
      23. A(1分)
      24. C(1分)
      25. D(1分)
      26. B(1分)
      27. A(1分)
      28. B(1分)
      29. A(1分)
      30. C(1分)
      第二部分 非选择题(共50分)
      三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
      31. but(1分)
      32. Children(1分)
      33. interested(1分)
      34. walks(1分)
      35. learn(1分)
      36. at(1分)
      37. happily(1分)
      38. useful(1分)
      39. them(1分)
      40. a(1分)
      四、句子翻译(共7小题,41 44每小题1分,45 47每小题2分,满分10分)
      41. wrks ut(1分)
      42. t make gd use f(1分)
      43. listening t(1分)
      44. fall in lve with(1分)
      45. Alice is gd at telling stries.(2分)
      46. When d yu usually finish yur hmewrk?(2分)
      47. Every mrning, my mther prepares breakfast fr me.(2分)
      五、阅读与表达(共4小题,48 50小题每小题2分,51小题4分;满分10分)
      48. 题目缺失,无法作答(2分)
      49. 题目缺失,无法作答(2分)
      50. 题目缺失,无法作答(2分)
      51. 题目缺失,无法作答(4分)
      六、书面表达(满分20分)
      52. 题目缺失,无法作答(20分)

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