2025_2026学年辽宁省沈阳市第126中学七年级上册12月月考英语试题(文字版,含答案)
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这是一份2025_2026学年辽宁省沈阳市第126中学七年级上册12月月考英语试题(文字版,含答案),共12页。试卷主要包含了短对话理解,长对话理解,语篇填空,对划线部分提问,阅读与表达,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
检查时长:120 分钟 作业满分:120 分 命制校区:CB
听力试题
(听力满分:20 分)
一、短对话理解(共 8 小题;每小题 1 分,共 8 分)
听下面 8 段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题,从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项选中最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the by ging t d after schl?
A. Listen t music.B. Play ftball.C. Watch TV.
2. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. Fd in the future.
B. Traffic in the future.
C. Clthes in the future.
3. Which Asian city des the wman like best?
A. Bangkk.B. Tky.C. Beijing.
4. What des the girl think f the life in space?
A. Interesting but dangerus.B. Difficult but exciting.C. Different but cmfrtable.
5. Where des the wman plan t g?
A. T Shanghai.B. T Hng Kng.C. T Hangzhu.
6. When will Peter g t England?
A. On Tuesday.B. On Wednesday.C. On Thursday.
7. Hw lng are the shps pen?
A. Fr five hurs.B. Fr six hurs.C. Fr seven hurs.
8. When des the dialgue prbably take place?
A. In the mrning.B. In the afternn.C. At night.
二、长对话理解(共 12 小题;每小题 1 分,共 12 分)
听下面四段长对话。每段对话后有三道小题,从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项选中最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
听第9段材料,回答9至11题
9. Wh is Alice calling?
A. Her mum.B. Her grandad.C. Her dad.
10. What's Alice's rm number?
A. Rm 1208.B. Rm 1028.C. Rm 1802.
11. Hw lng will Alice stay in Chngqing?
A. Fr abut a week.
B. Fr abut a mnth.
C. Fr abut a year.
听第10段材料,回答12至14题
12. Hw lng can Mary stay in Lndn?
A. Fr 12 days.B. Fr 16 days.C. Fr 18 days.
13. What des Mary wrry abut?
A. Her brther.B. Her mther.C. Her study.
14. Why can't the man g back t Lndn?
A. Because he has a lt f wrk t d.
B. Because he needs t lk after Jhn.
C. Because he needs t lk after his parents.
听第11段材料,回答15至17题
15. What day is it tday?
A. Friday.B. Saturday.C. Sunday.
16. What subject is the by pr at?
A. Maths.B. English.C. Chinese.
17. What d the tw speakers decide t d frm nw n?
A. Wrk harder.
B. D sprts at the weekend.
C. Travel t anther cuntry.
听第12段材料,回答18至20题
18. Where did Grk get hurt?
A. His ear.B. His eye.C. His nse.
19. What did the man think the name f the alien was?
A. Grk.B. Aliens.C. Nbdy.
20. Hw did the aliens get ut?
A. They gt ut in Grk's friends' pckets.
B. They jumped ut f the windws.
C. They hurt Grk's friends and ran away.
(本试卷共 50 道题 满分 100 分)
注意: 所有试题必须在答题卡上作答, 在本试卷上作答无效
第一部分 选择题 (共 50 分)
一、阅读理解 (共 20 小题, 每小题 2 分; 满分 40 分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料, 从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
NEXT STATION—SPACE
"Where are yu ging n hliday this year? "
"Int space."
Des that idea sund like science fictin?
Nt anymre.
Our cmpany is intrducing an amazing space tur!
Cme and see what we have planned fr yu!
When: 1 Octber 2027
Transprt: Starship Explrer— the fastest spaceship in the wrld
Main Activities:
Planet visit: Get ready t visit the Mn. Walk n its rcky surface and cllect
sme special mn rcks.
Star Watching: Lk up at the endless night sky and see thusands f shining stars.
The view frm space is s beautiful that yu' ll never frget it!
Space Walk: Experience the freedm f flating in space.
Space Gardening: Try grwing plants in space. See hw plants grw withut gravity
Price: ¥1, 000, 000 fr each persn. If yu bk the ticket befre 10 Octber, 2025,
yu can pay 10% less.
Requirements:
Must be 18 - 60 years ld.
Health check needed.
Bk Nw! Limited Seats.
Cntact Us: 800 - 772 - 238
[email protected]
21. What can turists d during the trip?
A. Explre the Mars.B. Cllect mn rcks.C. Pick delicius fruit.D. Visit space statin.
22. Hw much shuld Li Hua pay fr the ticket if he bks it n 1 Octber, 2025?
A. 9, 000, 000 yuan.B. 1, 000, 000 yuan.C. 900, 000 yuan.D. 100, 000 yuan.
23. Accrding t the Requirements, wh can g n the trip?
A. A 17-year-ld by wh is very healthy.
B. A 62-year-ld wman in gd health.
C. A 45-year-ld wman with heart prblems.
D. A 55-year-ld man wh passed his health test.
24. Where can yu prbably read the passage?
A. In a travel guide.B. In a nature magazine.
C. In a stry bk.D. In a health reprt.
B
"Shawarma h shawarma, life is better with yu." Have yu heard f this sng recently? Shawarma is a ppular street fd in the Middle East. It has grilled (烤的) meat, vegetables and flatbread (大饼). Recently, it became well - knwn in China thanks t the cking game, Shawarma Legend (《沙威玛传奇》).
In the game, players run their wn shawarma restaurant. They need t make shawarma t meet the needs f different eaters. Mre and mre players started playing it after it came ut n July 19 (2024). Peple like the game because it is challenging but easy t play. "It nly takes a few minutes t pass a level (等级). Yu can leave r restart as yu wish," a player tld Natinal Business Daily. AI played a big part in the game. It made the theme sng (主题曲) and the menu. It als helped t translate (翻译) the game and sngs int 13 languages. This way, the game csts less t make and mre peple arund the wrld can enjy the game.
25. Which kind f fd can NOT be fund in shawarma?
A. Grilled meat.B. Vegetables.C. Rice.D. Flatbread.
26. What d players need t d in the game?
A. Sell traditinal Chinese street fd.
B. Run their wn shawarma restaurant.
C. Teach thers hw t make flatbread.
D. Eat shawarma as much as they can.
27. Which sentence abut Shawarma Legend is TRUE?
A. Players need t run a pizza restaurant.
B. It takes hurs t pass ne level.
C. AI helped create the game's theme sng.
D. The game nly supprts Chinese.
28. Why d peple like the game?
A. Because they can have a real restaurant.
B. Because it's challenging but easy t play.
C. Because they can never restart the games.
D. Because it has a ppular theme sng.
C
Ted is a by with big eyes and shrt hair. He is a high schl student. Ms Ann is an ld wman with gray hair. Bth f them live in America. Is Ms Ann Ted's grandmther r great - grandmther? The answer is n. They are nt frm the same family. Ms Ann is ne f Ted's best friends. Hw did they becme friends?
It all started six years ag. Ted was an 8th - grader back then. His teacher gave him a "Kindness Week challenge". In this challenge, Ted had t send 84 - year - ld Ms Ann small gifts every day fr a week. After the week, Ted gt int the habit f visiting Ms Ann and giving her gifts.
Nw Ted visits Ms Ann every mnth with flwers, chclates and mre. They share a lve f chclate. What d they ften d tgether? They talk everything. Ted tells Ms Ann abut his schl life. And Ms Ann shares her wn stries. Ted lves her and treats her like his wn great - grandmther.
Ms Ann's family are glad abut Ted's cming because he brings a lt f fun t the ld wman. They say Ted is like ne f their family members.
"Their friendship is precius. I hpe Ted can remember the fun talks with Ms Ann, keep his kind heart and care abut thers," says Ted's mther.
29. What can we learn abut Ted frm the first paragraph?
A. His age.B. His lks.C. His family.D. His favrite subject.
30. What was the challenge abut?
A. Bringing fun t ther peple.
B. Making friends with an ld wman.
C. Giving Ms Ann gifts fr seven days.
D. Wrking in an ld peple's hme fr a week.
31. Hw ften d Ted and Ms Ann meet each ther nw?
A. Every day.B. Once a week.C. Once a year.D. Once a mnth.
32. Which is the best title fr the passage?
A. Ted's Kind Teacher.B. A special Friendship.
C. Ms Ann's Family.D. Ted's Schl Challenge.
D
Dieg was lking at the ld guitar n the wall f his huse. The guitar had an ld stry. Dieg’s grandfather, Miguel, played it everywhere he went. His playing was s gd that peple came t listen whenever he played it.
Dieg knew this stry well. He wanted t be like his grandfather. S, he started t learn t play the guitar when he was little. After he grew up, he had his wn band. S, his grandfather gave him the guitar as a gift.
Dieg’s grandfather saw hw sme musicians smashed their guitars n the stage (舞台) during big rck shws. He didn’t like this. He thught peple shuld take care f their guitars.
“Prmise me yu’ll never d this t ur guitar,” he said t Dieg.
“Of curse,” said Dieg.
Dieg was nw a big rckstar. Once he brught this guitar n the stage and played amazing sngs with it. All his family were watching and felt very happy. At the end f the shw, Dieg gt s excited that he lifted (举起) the guitar in the air. When everyne thught that he was ging t break it n the stage, he slwly tk a bw (鞠躬).
He always remembered what his grandfather tld him, “If yu really lve rck, lve yur guitar, it is yur cmpanin(伙伴), nt just a thing. Dieg kept his wrd. He shwed his lve fr rck music.
33. When did Dieg start t learn the guitar?
A. When he was yung.
B. After he grew up.
C. After he jined a band.
D. When he gt a guitar as a gift.
34. What des the underlined wrd “smashed” mean in Paragraph 3?
A. Played with smething carefully.B. Brke smething hard.
C. Shwed ne’s care fr smething.D. Did sme cleaning n smething.
35. Which f the fllwing can we infer (推断) frm the passage?
A. Dieg’s grandfather wuld be angry after the shw.
B. Miguel cared abut the ld guitar very much.
C. Dieg’s band members ften smash guitars n stage.
D. Dieg thinks the guitar is nly a tl fr playing music.
36. What lessn des the stry tell us?
A. Listen t ld men.
B. It’s easy t be a music lver.
C. It’s never t late t learn.
D. Take care f yur tls
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
Nbdy wants t see his aging (变老). D yu knw hw t stay yung? Here's sme advice.
37. ______
When the numbers are abut hw ld yu are, hw heavy yu are, and hw tall yu are, just frget them. These numbers are very imprtant t us. Hwever, if yu care t much abut them, yu will becme wrried and unhappy! Let the dctr wrry abut them. That's why yu give him r her mney.
Make happy friends.
Peple wh are bright and happy shuld be yur friends. 38. ______ Yur life will be better because they are there with yu.
Keep learning.
Learn mre abut cmputers, gardening r ther things. Take up a hbby r learn ne new thing every day. 39. ______
Keep healthy.
D mre exercise and eat the right fd t keep yurself healthy. If there is smething wrng, g t see the dctr.
40. ______ Fr example, enjying the small things in life, laughing mre, telling peple yu lve them can all bring yu a yung mind. Just have a try!
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,理解大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Rick, a schl by, had a lve fr playing vide games. Every day, his 41. ______ reminded him t take sme exercise instead f playing vide games. Hwever, he didn't always 42. ______.
Once again, Rick's mum tld him seriusly that his eyesight (视力) might get pr if he spent t much time n vide games. It was a pity that he still didn't listen 43. ______. He kept playing.
One day, during a math class, Rick's teacher gt angry when he culdn't give an answer t a questin like "2+2 =?". After class, the teacher asked him why he culdn't slve such a 44. ______ prblem. Rick said that he knew the answer 45. ______ culdn't see the bard clearly.
His teacher was wrried and 46. ______ his parents.
Realizing what had happened, Rick's mum warned (警告) him again that it was harmful t his 47. ______ t play vide games t much. And Rick's dad tk him t an eye dctr fr a check - up. The 48. ______ shwed that his eyesight had weakened. After asking abut his habit f using eyes, the dctr advised Rick t take actin t prtect his eyes.
Frm that day n, Rick decided t 49. ______ playing vide games and take sme exercise every day. Later Rick fell in lve with sprts and 50. ______ his schl sccer team. Nw he has becme strnger and healthier. His eyesight has als gt better.
41.A. friendsB. parentsC. teachersD. caches
42.A. listenB. guessC. reprtD. search
43.A. clearlyB. bravelyC. patientlyD. crrectly
44.A. rB. similarC. specialD. simple
45.A. rB. sC. butD. and
46.A. phnedB. fllwedC. answeredD. accepted
47.A. earsB. eyesC. armsD. hand
48.A. cstB. nameC. dateD. result
49.A. give upB. fight frC. depend nD. believe in
50.A. jinedB. managedC. supprtedD. intrduced
第二部分 非选择题(共50分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
Living in space statins seems t be fun, 51. ______ astrnauts face many prblems. One f them 52. ______ (be) fd. All the 53. ______ (meal) in the space statin are put tgether n Earth and sent there by space shuttle (航天飞机). Because the fd has t last fr 54. ______ lng time, a lt f it has t be stred (被贮藏) in cans. The space statin des nt have a fridge, but it has a cl rm t keep fruit and fresh vegetables - astrnauts als eat ther fd, such as dried meat that des nt need special care.
It takes astrnauts several minutes 55. ______ (prepare) their fd each time, as they have t fix the fd packages n the table 56. ______ (ne) in the zer - gravity envirnment.
Withut gravity, sitting dwn t eat can be difficult. Astrnauts smetimes have t tie themselves 57. ______ the wall s that they wn't flat away while eating. They als have t be careful t prtect the fd, because if a piece f fd flats away, it 58. ______ (get) int the statin's small machines and make them wrk badly.
S they always hld 59. ______ (they) fd gently - after all, even a tiny crumb (碎屑) can becme a prblem in space! The fd can flat away 60. ______ (easy) if they are nt careful.
四、对划线部分提问(共5小题,每小题2分,每空1分;满分10分)
61.The spaceship will leave the Earth at 9:00a.m.
________ ________ the spaceship leave the Earth?
62.I am ging t plan ur trip t the Straight Htel.
________ ________ yu ging t plan?
63.Mars has interested peple fr thusands f years.
________ ________ has Mars interested peple?
64.I'll have t wear a spacesuit t help me breathe.
________ ________ yu have t wear a spacesuit?
65.There are almst 300 heritage sites.
________ ________ heritage sites are there?
五、阅读与表达(共4小题,66~68小题,每小题2分,69小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文,然后根据内容回答问题。
I'm Lily.Tday is Saturday and it is als my mther's birthday. I am ging t d sme special things t thank her fr her lve. I like cking, s I want t ck dinner fr my family.
First, I g t the supermarket t buy a birthday cake and sme ther fd. Then I g back hme and begin t make different ndles. My father likes cabbages best, s I make a large bwl f beef and cabbage ndles fr him. Muttn is my mther's favrite. A medium bwl f muttn and nin ndles is fr her. Finally, I make a small bwl f egg and tmat ndles fr myself.
After my mther gets hme frm wrk, I say "happy birthday" t her. She is very happy. She makes a wish and blws ut the candles. She tastes the ndles and the birthday cake. She thinks they are delicius. I'm happy that I can d smething fr my family.
66.Why des Lily want t d sme special things n her mther's birthday?
67.Hw many kinds f ndles des Lily make in ttal?
68.When des Lily say "happy birthday" t her mther?
69.What d yu usually d fr yur mther n her birthday? Write 30 wrds r mre.
六、书面表达(满分 20 分)
70. 假设你是李辉,你的笔友 Peter 要来中国旅游,想请你推荐一个中国的城市。请你给他写一封信,内容包括:
1. 城市简介
2. 推荐理由
3. 表达期待
注意:
1. 词数 80 左右,开头已给出,不计入总数;
2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3. 文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称等。
Dear Peter,
I hear that yu want t cme t China fr a trip. I'd like t recmmend a wnderful Chinese city t yu._______________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
试卷答案
听力试题(略)
第一部分 选择题
一、阅读理解
A篇
21. B(2分)
22. C(2分)
23. D(2分)
24. A(2分)
B篇
25. C(2分)
26. B(2分)
27. C(2分)
28. B(2分)
C篇
29. B(2分)
30. C(2分)
31. D(2分)
32. B(2分)
D篇
33. A(2分)
34. B(2分)
35. B(2分)
36. D(2分)
第二节
37. A(1分)
38. E(1分)
39. D(1分)
40. C(1分)
二、完形填空
41. B(1分)
42. A(1分)
43. D(1分)
44. D(1分)
45. C(1分)
46. A(1分)
47. B(1分)
48. D(1分)
49. A(1分)
50. A(1分)
第二部分 非选择题
三、语篇填空
51. but(1分)
52. is(1分)
53. meals(1分)
54. a(1分)
55. t prepare(1分)
56. first(1分)
57. t(1分)
58. gets(1分)
59. their(1分)
60. easily(1分)
四、对划线部分提问
61. What time(2分)
62. What are(2分)
63. Hw lng(2分)
64. Why will(2分)
65. Hw many(2分)
五、阅读与表达
66. Because she wants t thank her mther fr her lve.(2分)
67. Three.(2分)
68. After her mther gets hme frm wrk.(2分)
69. I usually buy a gift fr my mther and help her d sme husewrk.(4分)
六、书面表达(略)
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