浙江省温州市苍南县2024-2025学年七年级上学期期末测试英语试题

这是一份浙江省温州市苍南县2024-2025学年七年级上学期期末测试英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力第一节，听力第二节，听力第三节，阅读理解，完形填空，情景交际，语法填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
1． What are in Lucy's hand?
A．Sme seeds.B．Sme leaves.C．Sme flwers.
2． Wh is Lily's her?
A．Her mther.B．Her father.C．Her teacher.
3． What did Jane d this afternn?
A．Planted trees.B．Played the guitar.C．Watched birds.
4． What des Sarah think f the film?
A．Tuching.B．Interesting.C．Difficult.
5． Why can't Jack's mum pick him up tmrrw?
A．Because she is busy.
B．Because she is ill.
C．Because she is tired.
二、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共20分）第二节：听长对话，请从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。
听录音，回答问题。
6．What is Susan ding?
A．Reading a bk.B．Writing a stry.C．Writing a reprt.
7．Where are they ging tmrrw?
A．T the library.B．T the museum.C．T the z.
听录音，回答问题。
8．What fd des the by like best?
A．The fish.B．The meatballs.C．The turkey.
9．Where is the by nw?
A．In the UK.B．In Australia.C．In America.
10．What will Kate tell the by after dinner?
A．The fd fr the festival.
B．The histry f the festival.
C．The activities during the festival.
三、听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共20分）第三节：听独白，请根据内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题
听独白，请根据内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题
11．When des Hu Bin start t have classes?
A．At 7 am.B．At 8 am.C．At 9 am.
12．Hw many classes des Hu Bin have every day?
A．Tw.B．Fur.C．Six.
13．Which is Hu Bin's favrite subject?
A．English.B．P.E.C．Music.
14．Where des Hu Bin draw pictures with his friends?
A．In the classrm.B．In the park.C．In the library.
15．Hw is Hu Bin's schl life?
A．Interesting.B．Peaceful.C．Surprising.
四、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题各2分，共20分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
16．When can yu watch the dragn dance?
A．At 9 am n Mnday.B．At 11 am n Wednesday.
C．At 5 pm n Friday.D．At 10 pm n Sunday.
17．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A．Dragn and lin dance is just a dance.
B．The temple fair will last（持续）fr 5 days.
C．New Year paintings are always black and white.
D．Kids can enjy interesting stries in shadw plays.
18．What's the type（类型）f the passage?
A．A letter.B．A stry.C．A pster.D．A nte.
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Try t think abut it: yu sit dwn and begin t eat a tmat. Suddenly, it screams（尖叫）! Just like humans, plants have ways t shw they're nt kay.
Scientists did a study. They used special micrphnes（麦克风）t hear the sunds f tmat plants in three grups.
Grup 1: N water Grup 2: Stems cut ff Grup 3: Stay as it is（保持原状）
Then they checked the three grups. Grups 1 and 2 made sunds 30 t 50 times（次数）an hur, but Grup 3 was quiet. "Quiet tmates are nt nervus," said Hadany frm the study team. He als listened t ptates and crn, and fund they made sunds, t.
Wh listens t these sunds? Scientists think that animals may hear the sunds. Fr example, the sund can tell animals which plant is safe. And sme animals can chse which plant t eat by the sunds.
Scientists say that this study will help farmers. They can take better care f the crps（农作物）by "hearing" hw they feel.
19．What did scientists find by hearing the sunds f tmat plants?
A．Plants in Grups 1 and 2 were happy.
B．The plant in Grup 3 was nt nervus.
C．All plants in three grups made sunds.
D．Peple can hear the sunds f plants easily.
20．What des the underlined wrd "they" in Paragraph 3 refer t（指代）?
A．Tmat plants.B．Ptates and crn.
C．Sme animals.D．Hadany and ther scientists.
21．Hw will the sunds f plants help animals r farmers?
A．They will make animals feel relaxed.
B．They will make farmers laugh happily.
C．They will help animals hide themselves.
D．They will help farmers grw healthy crps.
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
After a lng hliday, Ava was wrried abut ging back t schl and making new friends again.
"Hw abut taking yur stuffed animal（毛绒玩具）t schl? It's yur best friend." Ava's mm asked. Ava lved the idea very much.
On the first day, Ava was a little nervus. Then she tk ut her favurite bear, Teddy, and hugged it. That made her feel better. After class, Ava saw a by called Lucas play with a stuffed dg.
"What's its name?" Ava walked t the by and asked.
"He is my friend Bing. He makes me feel safe at schl." Lucas answered plitely.
After that, Ava ften played with Lucas and they became best friends. Sn, they started the Stuffed Animal Club at schl. And many kids jined the club. They meet n Mndays t share stries. Smetimes, they play games tgether. It's s much fun!
Nw Ava and Lucas want t help mre kids. They are ging t give stuffed animals t the kids in hspital next week. All the club friends are excited abut this meaningful idea!
22．What's Ava's prblem after a lng hliday?
A．Her new friends didn't like her.
B．She didn't finish her hmewrk.
C．She wrried abut making friends.
D．Her mther was angry with her.
23．Why did Ava take her teddy bear t schl n the first day?
A．Because all her classmates had stuffed animals.
B．Because she didn't want t make friends at schl.
C．Because the teddy bear made her feel better at schl.
D．Because she wanted t jin the Stuffed Animal Club.
24．Which f the fllwing is the crrect rder（顺序）f the stry?
a. Ava made friends with a by.
b. Ava tk her teddy bear t schl.
c. Ava plans t give stuffed animals t the kids in hspital.
d. Ava and Lucas started the Stuffed Animal Club at schl.
A．b-a-d-cB．a-b-c-dC．b-c-a-dD．a-c-b-d
25．What's the best title f the passage?
A．Ava and Her Friends.B．Ava and Her Mther.
C．Ava's Club Prblem.D．Ava's Schl Plan.
五、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Sunday 12 Jan
Tday is my birthday and I get an unusual 26． frm my sister.
This mrning, I was 27． in my rm. Busy with my hmewrk, I didn't talk t my sister when she came in. Hwever, when I finished, I was 28． t see a drawing n my ntebk! It lked messy（凌乱的）, s I shuted at her 29． , "Yu' re a truble maker（捣蛋鬼）! I dn't like yu!" After that, she cried, with tears running dwn her 30． .She tried t say smething, 31． I didn't want t listen.
Later, Dad asked me t 32． the drawing carefully. I did, and then saw a nte- "Happy Birthday." Suddenly, I felt s srry fr my sister. 33． lve was like a warm hug, but I pushed（推）it away. I said srry t her and she 34． me in her arms.
I get many gifts tday, but I think my sister's is the best. It makes me realize（意识到）that my warm and lving family is 35． there fr me.
26．A． giftB． cardC． cakeD． letter
27．A． singingB． drawingC． studyingD． sleeping
28．A． happyB． shckedC． thankfulD． nervus
29．A． angrilyB． plitelyC． kindlyD． sadly
30．A． legB． hairC． handD． face
31．A． sB． butC． rD． because
32．A． give upB． pint utC． cut dwnD． lk at
33．A． MyB． HisC． HerD． Its
34．A． tappedB． shkC． kissedD． hugged
35．A． alwaysB． smetimesC． seldmD． never
六、情景交际（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据对话内容，从A-F选项中选择正确的句子补全对话，完成36-40题，使对话通顺、完整。注意有一个选项多余。
Amy: Excuse me. I'm ding a research abut after-schl activities. 36．
Stephen: Of curse.
Amy: 37．
Stephen: I usually finish my hmewrk first and then d sme sprts.
Amy: 38．
Stephen: Oh, I like playing ping-png best. I always play it n Mndays and Thursdays.
Amy: I see. 39．
Stephen: Yes, I als like ging fr a walk in the park after dinner. It can help me get clse t nature.
Amy: 40． Thank yu fr yur sharing.
七、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）A. 根据加点字母的发音规则和图片信息，用相应单词的正确形式完成句子。
41． The kite flies t the sky and will fall n the .
42． We are talking and laughing at the class nw.
43． The little dgs always fllws the slwly.
44． A panda is eating happily.
45． She takes a grey t schl.
B. 根据短文内容和所给中文提示，用单词的正确形式完成短文。
My favurite hbby is playing drums. I spend much time n it and I 46． （很，十分）enjy playing drums.
When I was 12 years ld, my 47． （父母）bught me a drum set. I began my 48． （练习）every day after schl. At first, I played badly, and the sund was scary. I started t 49． （后悔；对…感到遗憾）. But with the 50． （支持）frm my family, I gt the hpe again and began t find much jy in this hbby.
Nw, I play in my schl 51． （乐队，乐团）with my friend. Dan. We wrk 52． （一起，共同）and give shws n the stage. When watching. 53． （每个人）dances t ur music. We 54． （成为，变成）the stars in ur schl. I have t say, I have an 55． （惊人的；了不起的）hbby!
八、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，用适当的单词或所给单词的适当形式完成短文。
Hbbies make ur lives mre clrful. They help us 56． （relax）. After a busy day, spending time n a hbby 57． （usual）makes us happy. Fr example, reading a gd bk helps us get away frm ur 58． （prblem）.
Hbbies als help us learn. If we like 59． （take）phts, we will learn new knwledge abut it. Als, hbbies like gardening can teach 60． （we）abut plants. We can nt nly learn abut hw t take care f them, 61． als get beautiful flwers.
What's mre, hbbies help us making friends. When we jin 62． club r grup, we meet new peple. Often, ur interests may be like 63． （they）interests. When we play basketball 64． ur teammates, strng friendships grw.
There 65． （be）many benefits f having hbbies. S let's get sme hbbies and have a gd time!
九、连词成句（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）根据对应的图片及所给的标点符号，将所给的单词组成正确的句子。
66． ride, my, bike, will, I, tmrrw（.）（连词成句）
67． cutting, a, Chef Wang, is, cucumber（.）（连词成句）
68． ntebk, the, is, yurs（?）（连词成句）
69． many, are, there, lvers, Beijing Opera（.）（连词成句）
70． are, when, ging, we, t, meet（?）（连词成句）
十、书面表达（本题共10分）
71． 大自然里有各种各样神奇的动物，有些是人类的好朋友，有些是人类的好帮手，有些需要人类的帮助。本周是"我爱动物"英语文化周，请为学校展板推选一种展示的动物，并为其撰写讲解稿。
要求：（1）文中须包含下图要点，可适当拓展；（2）文中不能出现真实学校、班级、姓名等信息；（3）词数60词左右，首句已给单词不计入总词数。
Let me intrduce the n the display bard.
答案
1．【答案】A
2．【答案】B
3．【答案】C
4．【答案】B
5．【答案】A
【答案】6．C
7．B
【答案】8．C
9．A
10．B
【答案】11．B
12．C
13．A
14．B
15．A
【答案】16．B
17．D
18．C
【答案】19．B
20．B
21．D
【答案】22．C
23．C
24．A
25．A
【答案】26．A；27．C；28．B；29．A；30．D；31．B；32．D；33．C；34．D；35．A
【答案】36．C；37．E；38．D；39．F；40．A
41．【答案】island
42．【答案】party
43．【答案】pstman
44．【答案】bamb
45．【答案】eraser
【答案】46．really；47．parents；48．practice；49．regret；50．supprt；51．band；52．tgether；53．everyne；54．becme；55．amazing/ everybdy
【答案】56．（t）relax；57．usually；58．prblems；59．ttake/taking；60．us；61．but；62．a；63．their；64．with；65．are
66．【答案】I will ride my bike tmrrw./ Tmrrw I will ride my bike.
67．【答案】Chef Wang is cutting a cucumber.
68．【答案】Is the ntebk yurs?
69．【答案】There are many Beijing Opera lvers.
70．【答案】When are we ging t meet?
71．【答案】One pssible versin:
Let me intrduce the panda n the display bard. Pandas are black and white. They are very cute. They live in the frests. They like eating bamb. Pandas are gd at climbing trees. They can als swim. But pandas are in danger, because peple cut frests in the past. S they need peple's help. In my pinin, pandas are amazing and they are ur friends. Let's try ur best t prtect pandas and their frests.
Shadw Play
D yu want t see Mnkey King flying in light? Cme and enjy the shadw plays at Lngtan Park. There will be many interesting stries. Dn't wait!
Time: 8 pm-10 pm
New Year Paintings
They are a part f ur traditinal art with bright clrs and beautiful patterns（图案）. Cme t Lngtan Park! It's a gd idea t buy sme clrful paintings t decrate yur huse.
Time:9 am-5 pm
Dragn and Lin Dance
It's mre than just a dance! Chinese peple think it can bring gd luck. Watching this exciting shw is a must during the festival. There will be "dragns" and "lins" dancing and jumping alng Renmin Rad.
Time:10 am-1 pm
A. Sunds great.
B. I'm nt sure abut that.
C. Can I ask yu sme questins?
D. What kind f sprts d yu like best?
E. What d yu usually d after schl?
F. D yu have any ther after-schl activities?