福建省厦门市翔安区联考2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试 英语试题

这是一份福建省厦门市翔安区联考2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试 英语试题，共12页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分30分）， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟）
考生注意：
本试卷分为两大部分。第一部分（1—51题）为选择题，请考生将答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上；第二部分为非选择题，请考生将答案用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写在答题卡上。
第一部分（选择题）
Ⅰ.听音理解（共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项（每个句子读两遍）
( )1. A. B. C.
( )2. A. B. C.
( )3. A. B. C.
( )4. A. B. C.
( )5. A. B. C.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
( )6. What is the by's name?
A. Tm Miller.B. Jack Brwn.C. Jack Miller.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
( )7. What animals des the by want t see?
A. Pigs.B. Chickens.C. Rabbits.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
( )8. Where is the key?
A. Under the table.B. On the table.C. In the schlbag.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
( )9. Hw many tmates are there n the plant?
A. Fur.B. Seven.C. Eleven.
听第5对话，回答第10、11小题。
( )10. Hw des Jack like the girl's yard?
A. It's big.B. It's small.C. It's beautiful.
( )11. What des Jack have in his yard?
A. A bed.B. A big tree.C. Sme nice chairs.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
( )12. What clur is Sam's schlbag?
A. It's black.B. It's yellw.C. It's blue.
( )13. What is their relatinship(关系)?
A. Classmates.B. Mther and sn.C. Teacher and student.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题
( )14. What des Anna's mther d in the yard?
A. She plants carrts.B. She plants flwers.C. She keeps baby chickens.
( )15. What des Anna ask Jhn t d next?
A. Clean the yard.B. Lk at her rm.C. Say hi t her grandma.
注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分
第二节 听短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词（短文读三遍）
Ⅱ. 语言知识应用（共两节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 单项选择 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。（每小题1.5分，满分21分）
( )21. Which f the fllwing underlined parts is different in prnunciatin(划线部分发音不同)?
A. fineB. bigC. bike
( )22. This is Peter's family pht. These are ________ father and mther.
A. hisB. yurC. my
( )23. Mary and I are gd friends and we ________ in the same class.
A. amB. isC. are
( )24. — Gd mrning. What's yur ________ name?
— It's David Wd.
A. firstB. lastC. full
( )25. — Linda, ________ is my family pht.
— Oh! Yu have a big family.
A. thisB. theseC. they
( )26. — Hell, Millie! I'm Sara.
—________, Sara.
A. I'm fineB. Thank yuC. Nice t meet yu
( )27. — D yu knw the cartn(卡通片) Tm and Jerry?
— Yes. The cartn is s funny that it makes us ________a lt.
A. laughB. playC. read
( )28. — Is that yur mum?
— Yes. Her ________ is planting flwers in the yard.
A. clurB. hbbyC. animal
( )29. — My bicycle is blue. What abut yur bicycle, Jenny?
—It's ________.
A. newB. bigC. white
( )30. — Oh, the tw bttles are ________.
— Yeah. Dn't make a mistake. The ne n the right is yurs.
A. mdernB. similarC. beautiful
( )31. —Tm sits ________ the schl hall, s he can't see the screen very well.
—He wants t sit in the frnt f the hall next time.
A. acrss frmB. next tC. at the back f
( )32. — Are there any plants in yur classrm, Sarah?
—________. They make ur classrm beautiful.
A. Yes, they areB. Yes, there areC. N, they aren't
( )33. —________?
— It's big and mdern. My classmates and I like t read there.
A. What is the library likeB. Which is the libraryC. Wh are in the library
( )34. — Hw abut playing tennis n the sprts field?
—________. Let me call Jim and Alice tgether.
A. I'm really srryB. Sunds gdC. Thank yu
第二节 完形填空 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。（每小题1.5分，满分9分）
Hell, my name is Quan Hngchan. My family name is Quan. My favurite 35________ is green. I'm a student 36________ Guangdng, China. I like diving (跳水)a lt. I started t learn diving at the age f 7. And I am the winner (获胜者) in the 19th Asian Games in Hangzhu. There are 37________ peple in my family.
I live with my grandparents, my parents, my tw brthers and tw sisters. My father is a 38________, and he grws many vegetables and fruit. My mther is nice but nt healthy, s we always try t help 39________. My brther, Quan Jinpeng, likes diving, 40________. I lve my family. D yu want t be my friend?
35. A. fdB. bkC. clr
36. A. frmB. withC. n
37. A. nineB. eightC. seven
38. A. teacherB. dctrC. farmer
39. A. herB.usC. him
40. A. alsB. tC. either
Ⅲ. 阅读理解（共两节，17小题，满分32分）
第一节 阅读以下 A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（每小题2分，满分24分）
A
( )41. Where is Emma's schlbag?
A. On the desk.B. On the bed.C. On the chair.D. On the sfa.
( )42. What clr is Helen's cap?
A. Red.B. Green.C. White.D. Black.
( )43. Where can yu find a map f China?
A. In Emma’ s schlbag.B. In Jack's schlbag.
C. In Helen's schlbag.D. In Peter's schlbag.
( )44. What d the fur students all have in their schlbags?
A. A pen.B. A CD.C. A cap.D. A bk.
B
Mr Dean is a farmer and he really lves animals. One day he cmes t the market and buys fur dnkeys (驴) . He gets n ne f them and ges back hme. On the way, Mr Dean finds there are nly three dnkeys walking alng with him.
“One, tw, three. Wait a minute. ________” Mr Dean thinks. He gets dwn frm the dnkey and starts t cunt again. “One, tw, three, fur. Gd! There they are.” Then he gets back n the dnkey.
When he gets hme, Mrs Dean meets him in frnt f their huse. She asks, “D yu buy them at gd prices(价格)?”
“Yes, I d, "Mr Dean lks at the dnkeys and says. “Oh, n! I buy fur, but I nly see three here nw. "
Mrs Dean lks at him and says, “Yu are really a stupid(愚蠢的) ld man. Yu see nly three dnkeys, but I see five. "
( )45. Mr Dean buys ________ dnkeys.
A. twB. threeC. furD. five
( )46. Which can be put in ________?
A. Where is the last dnkey?B. Hw much are these dnkeys?
C. Hw can these dnkeys walk fast?D. Why d these dnkeys lk unhappy?
( )47. The wrd “again” means “________” in Chinese.
A. 多次B. 再次C. 屡次D. 每次
( )48. What is the meaning f the underlined sentence?
A. Mr Dean is really stupid.B. Mrs Dean is a great farmer.
C. Mrs Dean has five dnkeys.D. Mrs Dean buys anther dnkey.
C
Welcme back t the Tang Dynasty(唐朝). There are s many famus pets(著名诗人). D yu want t knw them? Here are three f the mst famus pets in the Tang Dynasty.
Hell everyne, I'm Li Bai. I enjy drinking and writing petry(诗). Many peple call me“Pet Immrtal(诗仙)”. I think yu surely knw my pem Jing Ye Si. If nt, yu may nt listen carefully in yur Chinese class. I have many friends, such as Du Fu and Meng Haran. We all lve writing petry.
Hi, I'm Du Fu, a friend f Li Bai. I'm 11 years yunger(较年轻) than Li Bai . I lve writing pems abut nature(自然), peple and life . Chun Ye Xi Yu is ne f my famus pems. I write pems t recrd(记录) the real life and true feelings (感受) f pr peple (穷人). S peple call me “Pet-Sage (诗圣)”. Li Bai and I are gd friends. I ften write pems as gifts (礼物) fr him.
I am Meng Haran. I'm 12 years yunger (较年轻) than Li Bai . I lve nature and ften write pems abut rivers, muntains and the beauty(美好) f life . Peple call me a “Pet f Nature” because f this. The pem Chun Xia is ne f my mst famus pems. Bth Li Bai and I lve petry and the beauty f nature. S we are gd friends.
( )49. What d peple call Li Bai?
A. Pet-SageB. Pet GhstC. Pet ImmrtalD. Pet f nature
( )50. What are Du Fu's pems abut?
A. The beauty f life.B. Rivers and muntains.
C. Drinking and traveling.D. Nature, peple and life.
( )51. Why d Li Bai and Meng Haran becme gd friends?
A. They are bth pets.B. They bth like drinking.
C. They lve the same things.D. They live in the same place.
( )52. What d we knw abut the three pets?
A. They are all gd friends.B. Meng Haran is the ldest(年龄最大的).
C. They are the mst famus pets in China.D. Li Bai ften gets pems frm Meng Haran.
第二节 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容及要求完成各题（每小题2分，满分8分）
My name is Oscar. I'm 13 years ld. I am in N.3 Middle Schl. It's large and beautiful. Here is a pht f my schl. This mdern building is the schl hall. There are many flwers and five trees in frnt f it. Behind the schl hall is ur classrm building. Our classrms are big and clean. There is a screen in each classrm. Acrss frm the classrm building is the sprts field. We students always exercise there. My favurite place at schl is the dining hall. The fd there is delicius. I like eating the ndles there mst. 我真的很喜欢我的学校.
53. Where is ur classrm building?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
54. Are there any flwers r trees in frnt f schl hall?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
55. What is Oscar's favrite place?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
56. 请将划线的句子翻译成英文。
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二部分（非选择题）
Ⅳ. 书面表达（共五节，满分58分）
第一节 连词成句 重新排序所给词汇，组成正确的句式表达。（每小题2分，满分10分）
57. say, teacher, t, the, gd, mrning, please
___________________________________________________________________________________________·
58. name, may, yur, I, have
___________________________________________________________________________________________?
59. a, like, Chinese, I, fd, lt
____________________________________________________________________________________________.
60. sme, flwers, there, are, the, yard, in
___________________________________________________________________________________________.
61. very, Emma, can, play, well, ping-png
____________________________________________________________________________________________.
第二节 完成句子 根据语用提示，完成句子。（每小题2分，满分10分）
62.当有人对你说“Nice t meet yu.”时, 你可以这样回应:
____________________________________________________________________________________________.
63.你想知道 Helen的直尺是什么颜色的，你会这么问她：
____________________________________________________________________________________, Helen?
64.你想知道弟弟就读于哪个班级，你可以这样问他：
__________________________________________________________________________________________?
65.你看着照片想告诉妈妈这是你的班主任，你可以这样表达：
Lk. Mum! _____________________________________________________________________________.
66.你想知道学校的图书馆在哪里，你可以这样问：
Excuse me, ________________________________________________________________________________?
第三节 补全句子 根据语境或具体提示，补全句子。（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
67. These tw girls ________ (be) my friends.
68. Yu can see many kinds f ________ (animal) n the uncle's farm.
69. Helen is my best friend and she is really ________ ['fʌni] and kind.
70. My friend Paul ________ (speak) English well and he ften helps me.
71. Which is yur favrite(最喜欢的) ________ , blue r yellw?
72. Tina cmes frm Xiamen. ________ (she) favrite fd is Shacha ndles.
73. It's very ________ /Im'pɔ: rtnt/ fr us t learn English well.
74. Hell, Teng Fei, these are my ________, mum and dad.
75. Jhn, let's g ________ (hike) tmrrw!
76.— Here are tw bats. Whse are they?
—They are my ________ (father).
第四节 看图写句 根据所给图片和提示词，写出正确的句子。（每小题2分，满分8分）
77. this, Jack 78. like 79. favrite 80. ften, with
77. ____________________________________________________________________________________
78. ____________________________________________________________________________________
79. ____________________________________________________________________________________
80. ____________________________________________________________________________________
第五节 短文写作（满分15分）
81. 假定你是来自新华中学的腾飞，请你根据下列的思维导图，用英语写一篇短文向你的新笔友 Peter介绍你的个人情况和家庭成员情况。
要求：
1. 短文必须包含思维导图里的所有信息(可适当发挥) ，条理清楚，行文连贯；
2. 语言流畅、通顺、逻辑合理、书写规范、卷面整洁；
3. 词数：50-80左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
Dear Peter,
I'm happy t becme yur new friend. Let me tell yu smething abut myself and my family.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Teng Fei
翔安区 2024-2025学年度第一学期期中联考
七年级 英语科 参考答案及评分标准
第一部分（选择题）
Ⅰ. 听音理解（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 听句子选图（每题1.5分，共7.5分）
1 - 5: BABAB
第二节 对话理解（每题1.5分，共15分）
6-10: CCBCC 11-15:ACACB
第三节 听对话填表（每题1.5分，共7.5分）
16. large 17. building 18. like 19. library 20.2\ tw
Ⅱ. 语言知识应用（共两节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 单项选择（每小题1.5分，满分21分）
21-25: BACCA 26-30: CABCB 31-34: CBAB
第二节 完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分9分）
35-39: CAACA 40: B
Ⅲ. 阅读理解（共两节，17小题，满分32分）
第一节 阅读A～C篇（每题2分，共24分）
41-44: ACDA 45-48: CABA 49-52: CDCC
第二节 任务型阅读（每题2分，共8分）
53: Our classrm building is behind the schl hall.
54: Yes, there are.
55: Oscar's favrite place is the dinning hall.
56: I really like my schl.
评分标准：每小题能按要求写出正确的内容，得2 分； 能写出主要句子结构的得 1-1.5分；能传递个别信息的得 0.5分。
第二部分（非选择题）
Ⅳ. 书面表达（共五节，满分58分）
第一节 连词成句（每小题2分，满分10分）
57. Please say gd mrning t the teacher.
58. May I have yur name?
59. I like Chinese fd a lt.
60. There are sme flwers in the yard.
61. Emma can play ping-png very well.
评分标准：每小题能按要求正确排序，得2 分； 能写出主要句子结构的得 0.5-1分； 能写出个别单词 0.5分，符号判断错误，疑问句陈述句有误，得0 分。
第二节 完成句子(每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
62. Nice t meet yu, t.
63. What clr is the ruler, Helen?
64. What class are yu in?
65. This is my class teacher.
66. Excuse me, where is the schl library?
评分标准：每小题能按要求写出正确的内容，得2 分； 能写出主要句子结构的得 1-1.5分；能传递个别信息的得 0.5分。
第三节 补全句子(每小题 1.5分，满分 15 分)
67. are 68. animals 69. funny 70. speaks 71. clr\ clur
72. Her 73. imprtant 74. parents 75. hiking 76. father's
评分标准：复数遗漏、拼写错误等，一律得 0 分。
第四节 看图写句（每小题2分，满分8分）
77. This is Jack's cap.
78. Mike likes playing the guitar.\ Mike likes guitar.
79. My favrite animal is panda.
80. I ften play Chinese chess with friends.
第五节 作文（满分15分）
[参考范文]
Dear Peter
I'm happy t becme yue new friend. Let me tell yu smething abut myself and my family.
Hey, I'm Teng Fei. I'm 13 years ld. I'm frm Shanghai China. Nw, I live in Shang ha i with my family.
My favrite sprt is ping-png. I ften play ping-png with my father. My favrite place is the Great Wall. And my favrite fd is Map tfu. It is delicius. I'm happy because I have a big family. They are my grandparents, parents and tw sisters. My grandfather likes Chinese chess. I ften play chess with him. My father is handsme and funny. He likes running. My mther is beautiful and kind. She likes reading a lt. My tw sisters are clever and cute. I ften play tennis with them. We lve and help each ther.
There is n place like hme. Because family is where life begins and lve never ends. I like myself. I like my family. I'm lking frward t yur letter.
Best wishes
Teng Fei
厦门市翔安区2024-2025学年 (上) 七年级期中联考英语听力测试现在开始
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
（每句均是女先男后，念完进入下一题）
1. I’ m 8 years ld.
2. These are cws.
3. The schlbag is red.
4. Let’ s g t the z.
5. I like English best.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
（汉语女生念）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
W: Hell! My name is Jenny Brwn. Are yu Tm Miller?
M: N, I'm nt. My name is Jack Miller.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
W: There are little pigs and chickens n the farm. Yu can g t see them.
M: Oh, I dn't like them. D yu have any rabbits?
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
W: Dad, d yu see my key? It isn't in my schlbag.
M: Yes, I see it n the table, under yur bk.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
W: Ww, there are s many tmates n this plant!
M: Let me cunt! One, tw, three … fur red nes and seven green nes.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11 小题。
M: Oh, yur yard is s beautiful. Yu have a big tree. The chairs under it are nice t.
W: Thank yu, Jack. D yu have these things in yur yard?
M: N, I dn't. But I have a bed in my yard.
W: Ww! That sunds fun.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
W: Hey, Sam. Is that yur black schlbag?
M: N, it isn't. My schlbag is blue.
W: Whse schlbag is it?
M: I dn't knw. What is in the schlbag?
W: There is a yellw bttle and a bk in it.
M: Can yu find a name n the bk?
W: N. I think we can ask ur teacher Ms Green fr help.
M: Yu' re right. Let's g.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题
W: Welcme, Jhn.
M: Thank yu, Anna. Yur yard is big and nice.
W: Thanks.
M: I see sme beautiful flwers and carrt plants there.
W: Yeah. My grandma plants them there.
M: What are thse? Baby chickens?
W: Yes. My mther keeps them.
M: Which is yur rm?
W: That ne. Please cme and have a lk at my rm.
M: OK.
第三节 听短文 根据所听到的短文内容及要求完成表格，每空一词。（短文读三遍）
（女先男后，黑体字稍微重读）
My name is Tm and I’ m frm America. There are different schls in America. Sme are big, and sme are small. This is my schl, Park Schl. It’ s in the middle f the city. It’ s really large. There are eight classrms in the classrm building. In every classrm, there's a cmputer, a screen, sme desks and chairs. We have a music rm. In the music rm, we like t sing and dance. Every classrm has a small library. We als have a cmputer rm with 32 cmputers. There are tw sprts fields in my schl. We like playing sprts there.
* 听力考试到此结束，请考生们继续作答笔试部分。Tm's Schl— Park Schl
Where: It's in the middle f the city.
Hw big: It's really 16________. There are eight classrms in the classrm 17 ________.
What:●Students 18. ________ t sing and dance in the music rm.
●Every classrm has a small 19. ________.
●There is a cmputer rm with 32 cmputers.
●There are 20. ________ sprts fields.
This is Emma. Her schlbag is n the desk.
What is in Emma’ s red schlbag?
★A yellw pen ★A blue ruler
★A white cup ★An range cap
This is Jack. His schlbag is n the bed.
What is in Jack's blue schlbag?
★A blue pen ★A black key
★Tw CDs ★A white baseball
This is Helen. Her schlbag is n the chair.
What is in Helen's white schlbag?
★A white cap ★A green pen
★A red apple ★An English bk
This is Peter. His schlbag is n the sfa (沙发).
What is in Peter's black schlbag?
★A black pen ★A green jacket
★A Chinese bk ★A map f China