福建省厦门双十中学(七校联考)2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试 英语试题

这是一份福建省厦门双十中学(七校联考)2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中考试 英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 全卷分两个部分，共81题；， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（试卷满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟）
考生注意：
1. 全卷分两个部分，共81题；
2. 答案一律写在答题卡上，否则不能得分。
Ⅰ. 听音理解（共三节，20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
( ) 1. A. B. C.
( ) 2. A. B. C.
( ) 3. A. B. C.
( ) 4. A. B. C.
( ) 5. A. B. C.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
( ) 6. What des the girl ask Le t d?
A. Help her with English.B. Find an English bk.C. Clean the rm tgether.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
( ) 7. Wh likes playing the guitar?
A. Bb.B. Bb’s sister.C. Bb’s mum.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
( ) 8. What des Frank want t d?
A. Play basketball.B. Take a walk.C. Take classes.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
( ) 9. Where d they g next?
A. T the sprts field.B. T the classrm.C. T Mr Lee’s ffice.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
( ) 10. What’s Bill’s favurite sprt?
A. Basketball.B. Ping-png.C. Tennis.
( ) 11. When des Bill want t d the sprt?
A. In the mrning.B. In the afternn.C. In the evening.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
( ) 12. Wh is Mike?
A. Cindy’s friend.B. Cindy’s brther.C. Cindy’s classmate.
( ) 13. Why des Tm want t g hiking?
A. T have fun.B. T make friends.C. T learn things.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
( ) 14. What des Sctt think f his schl?
A. Small.B. Cl.C. Beautiful.
( ) 15. Where is the library?
A. It’s behind the classrm building.
B. It’s next t the classrm building.
C. It’s in frnt f the classrm building
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
What is a her? A her is a persn wh is brave (勇敢的) and 16 . A her is lked up t(被敬仰) by thers. Jey Athey is a her. If yu 17 him face t face, yu will ntice his kindness. Yu will see hw hard he wrks t 18 . Yu will see that he likes t make ther children happy.
Every year, his schl 19 a special prject. It asks each student t d smething nice 20 the pr (贫穷的) peple. This really 21 sme clever and careful (仔细的) thinking.
Jey wants t give tys t the pr children in his twn, as their 22 dn’t make much mney t buy them tys. 23 he cks sme ckies by himself at hme and sells them in the market. These ckies taste s 24 that they are sld ut in n time. Sn, he raises lts f mney and use it t buy sme tys. Then he gives them t the kids.
Jey has been selling ckies fr almst six years! Because f him, many children are playing with new tys 25 . I hpe I will always d this and bring peple jy (快乐),” says Jey.
( ) 16. A. kindB. funnyC. smart
( ) 17. A. callB. helpC. meet
( ) 18. A. make friendsB. help thersC. have fun
( ) 19. A. sendsB. startsC. spells
( ) 20. A. frB. withC. by
( ) 21. A. findsB. changesC. needs
( ) 22. A. parentsB. teachersC. friends
( ) 23. A. OrB. SC. But
( ) 24. A. difficultB. differentC. delicius
( ) 25. A. happilyB. slwlyC. quietly
Ⅲ. 阅读理解（共三节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读以下A、B、C三篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案（每小题2分，满分30分）
A
Ellit, a little elephant, feels sad. He falls behind the herd (象群) when he is lking fr sme fd. Nw he can’t find his family. He walks and walks in the frest (森林). Then he meets sme trtises slwly making their way.
Hell, I’m Tuti. Wh are yu?” says ne f the trtises. “I’m Ellit. I can’t find my family.” “I can help. Let’s g,” says Tuti.
As they walk, they meet sme zebras. “Is that yur family?” “N! Thse are zebras. I’m an elephant. We’re different.”
The zebras see Ellit and Tuti, t. The zebras gt scared and run away.
Tuti becmes Ellit’s new friend. They eat and play tgether. Then they walk and walk again. They see sme lins.
“Is that yur family?” “N! Thse are lins. I’m nt a lin. I am an elephant.”
The lins are lking at Ellit and Tuti, t. This time, Ellit and Tuti get terrified and run away.
It’s nighttime. Ellit and Tuti sleep side by side. The next day, they walk and walk again. They see a herd f elephants.
“Is that yur family?” “YES! Thse are elephants. I’m an elephant, t. Thank yu, Tuti. Yu’re my best friend.”
Nw Ellit has bth a family and a friend! They live happily in the frest, always ready t help each ther and having fun tgether.
( ) 26. Why is Ellit sad?
A. He desn’t have any friends.B. He can’t find any fd.
C. He desn’t like the herd.D. He can’t find his family.
( ) 27. What des the underlined wrd “terrified” mean?
A. 兴奋的B. 恐惧的C. 困惑的D. 疲惫的
( ) 28. Hw many kinds f animals des Ellit meet befre finding his family?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
( ) 29. What can best describe Tuti?
A. Smart.B. Kind.C. Funny.D. Slw.
( ) 30. Which f the fllwing is the best title (标题) fr the text?
A. A Sad ElephantB. Ellit’s Happy Family
C. An Interesting FrestD. Ellit’s New Friend
B
Owning a pet is gd way fr kids t learn abut respnsibility (责任) and caring fr thers. Ms Green, an English f Maple Schl, wants t hld a “Take-Yur-Pet-t-Schl Day” activity next week. Tday, Ms Green asks her students t raise their hands if they keep a pet at hme. T her surprise, everyne in the class f twenty students raises their hands.
S she quickly takes a survey (调查) t get mre infrmatin fr the activity. Then she makes a circle graph and a key t shw the number f students wh keep a certain (某种) pet.
( ) 31. Hw many students are there in Ms. Green’s class?
A. 20.B. 22.C. 30.D. 42.
( ) 32. Hw many kinds f animals are mentined (提到) in the survey?
A. 1.B. 2.C. 5.D. 10.
( ) 33. Hw many students wn the dg?
A. 1.B. 3.C. 5D. 10
( ) 34. Which tw kinds f pets are wned by the same number f students?
A. Fish and hamster.B. Bird and fish.
C. Hamster and cat.D. Cat and dg.
( ) 35. Why des Ms Green take the survey?
A. T get ready fr the activity next week.
B. T help students learn hw t cunt.
C. T teach students hw t keep a pet.
D. T find ut which pet is ppular.
C
Hgwarts Schl is a very famus schl f magic (魔法) in the UK. Any magical children frm the UK r Ireland wh get the Hgwarts letter at age eleven can g t this schl. Here is everything a first-year shuld knw abut Hgwarts.
In the suth f Hgwarts is a large lake called the Black Lake. It is hme t many special animals, such as the giant squid (大鱿鱼), Grindylws and even merpeple. Every schl year, after the train gets t Hgsmeade statin, the first-year students will fllw an ld man t the lake shre (岸) and take the bats t the Hgwarts Castle (城堡). The castle is the main (主要的) building f Hgwarts Schl. Bth students and teachers study, wrk and live there. Behind the castle is the Greenhuse. Students can learn abut the magical plants there.
The Quidditch Stadium is in the west f the schl. It’s a place where Quidditch teams can play games against each ther. Quidditch is an exciting sprt, with players flying high in the sky n the brmstick. Acrss frm the stadium is a large frest. Students can’t get clse t it because there are lts f dangerus (危险的) animals.
All first-years at Hgwarts must learn hw t fly n brmsticks. It’s a subject taught by Madam Hch, wh has big yellw eyes like a Hawk.
( ) 36. Wh can g t Hgwarts?
A. A nine-year-ld girl frm the UK.
B. An eleven-year-ld girl frm the UK.
C .An eleven-year-ld by frm the US.
D. A thirteen-year-ld by frm Ireland.
( ) 37. Hw d the first-years get t the Hgwarts Castle frm the lake shre?
A. They take the train.B. They fly.
C. They take the bat.D. They swim.
( ) 38. What d students d at the Greenhuse?
A. They learn abut plants.B. They play sprts.
C. They take flying lessns.D. They catch animals.
( ) 39. Which f the fllwing sprt is Quidditch?
A. B. C. D.
( ) 40. Which f the fllwing statements is TRUE (正确的)?
A. Students can’t get clse t the Black Lake.
B. The stadium is in the suth f the schl.
C. The large frest is hme t the giant squid.
D. Madam Hch is a teacher f the first-years.
第二节 阅读下面对话，从对话后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（每小题2分，满分10分）
D
非选择题部分
第三节 阅读下面短文，根据要求回答问题。（每小题2分，满分10分）
E
Starting primary schl (小学) in Ireland is smething imprtant. It usually cmes with smething special: a Schultüte.
This cne-shaped bag lks like a big ice-cream. Yu’ll see the little first-grade kids cme with their cnes fr their first day f schl. Smetimes, the cnes can be as tall as the little nes.
But what’s in inside this schl cne, yu ask? Lts f fun things! There are sweets t eat, pencils t draw with and maybe a small ty r tw. Sme kids als find little bks inside. It’s like a big gift that helps t make the first day f schl less scary. Many kids als pse (摆拍) with their cnes and smetimes a sign (标语) reading “My First Day f Schl.”
This traditin (传统) started ver 200 years ag. Back then, parents wuld tell their kids that there was a “schl cne tree” at their teacher’s huse r n the schl playgrund. When the tree grew big, it was time t start schl.
Tday, yu can find these cnes in shps. But many parents make their wn schl cnes, with r withut their kids’ help. In fact, the little kids can be very creative (有创意的) in making their cnes.
51. What des a Schultüte lk like?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
52. What des the underlined wrd “nes” refer t (指的是)?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
53. Why d students bring the schl cne?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
54. When did the traditin start?
______________________________________________________________________________________________
55. 请将划线句子翻译成中文。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅳ. 句子翻译 根据所给中文，完成下列句子，每空一词。（每小题2分，满分10分）
56. 我和我的家人居住在新加坡。
I ______________ ______________ Singapre with my family.
57. 梅梅和腾飞在同一个班级。
Meimei and Tengfei are in ______________ ______________ class.
58. 我每天花很多时间读书。
I ______________ lts f time ______________ bks every day.
59. 我们在黑板上张贴重要的通知。
We ______________ ______________ imprtant ntices n the blackbard.
60. 升旗是一种特别的开启一周的方式。
Raising the flag is a ______________ way t ______________ the week.
Ⅴ. 连词成句 重新排序所给词汇，组成正确的句式表达。（每小题2分，满分10分）
61. yu, class, are, in, what_________________________________________________________________?
62. ur, this, teacher, is, English_________________________________________________________________.
63. it, pian, whse, is__________________________________________________________________?
64. we, ping-png, ften, tgether, play________________________________________________________.
65. are, classrm, there, in, lckers, the, any________________________________________________________?
Ⅵ. 看图写话 根据所给图片和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。（每小题2分，满分10分）
66. Tm, frm67. ften, with68. favrite
69.like, after70. there be
Ⅶ. 补全句子 根据语境或具体提示，补全句子。（每小题1分，满分10分）
71. Tm and I __________(be) bth in Class 10, Grade 7.
72. __________(Lisa) pet dg is very cute.
73. I nly play the pian as a __________/ˈhɒbi/.
74. My math teacher is Ga Hui. Ga is her_________ name.
75. My brther Peter __________(play) ping-png very well.
76. Dn’t __________/lɑːf/ at thers. Smetimes yu make mistakes t.
77. Children brn(出生)in the Year f Mnkey are said t be __________/smɑːt/ in Chinese culture.
78. There __________(be) a pst ffice and tw restaurants acrss frm the street.
79. Lk at the pht! Susan is quite similar__________ her mther.
80. The wman __________ a red hat is Jack’s aunt.
Ⅷ. 书面表达（满分15分）
81. 假如你是李华，你所在的班级组织了一场“最美家庭（The Mst Beautiful Family）”的评选活动。请根据以下提示的内容，向张老师一篇不少于 60 词的推荐信，推荐你的家庭。
1. 文中须包含图中的主要信息，可适当发挥；2. 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称。
Dear Ms Zhang,
I wuld like t recmmend (推荐) my family fr “The Mst Beautiful Family” in ur class this year. _________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
参考答案
听力选择
1-5 BCCAB6-10 ABBCC11-15CAACA
听力填空
46. 14 47. China 48. vilin 49. write 50. big
完型填空
16-20 ACBBA21-25 CABCA
阅读理解
26-30 DBCBD31-35 ACDAA
36-40 BCAAD41-45 DBCGF
任务型阅读
51. A big ice-cream. / It lks like a big ice-cream.
52. The first-grade kids/The kids./The little kids.
53. T make the first day f schl less scary.
54. Over 200 years ag.
55. 当树长大后，（孩子们）是时候开始上学了。(翻译的语句含有红色字体，且表达无误，即可）
注：答案可以是关键词或者完整的句子。如果句子含有关键词，但是表达错误，则扣0.5分。
句子翻译
56. live, in57. the, same 58. spend, reading
59. put, up 60. special, start/begin
注：与标准答案不一样，则不得分。
连词成句
61. What class are yu in?
1 1
62. This is ur English teacher.
1 1
63. Whse pian is it?
1 1
64. We ften play ping-png tgether.
1 1
65. Are there any lckers in the classrm?
1 0.5 0.5
看图写话
66. Tm is frm Shanghai. （缺少is扣1分）
Tm cmes frm Shanghai. （缺少三单扣0.5分）
注：is 和cme 同时出现在句中，扣1分。
67. I ften g fishing with my father. / I ften fish with my father.
1 1
注：如果用了第三人称，但是动词无三单，则扣0.5分。
68. My favrite animal is the panda. / My favrite animal is pandas.
1 0.5 0.5 1 0.5 0.5
69. We/I like playing sccer/ftball after schl/class.
1 1
注：如果用了第三人称，但是动词无三单，则扣0.5分。

70. There is a cat behind the bx. /There is a bx in frnt f the cat.
0.5 0.5 1 0.5 0.5 1
补全句子
71. are 72. Lisa’s73. hbby74. last/family75. plays
76. laugh77. smart78. is79. t80. with/in
注：与标准答案不一样，则不得分。
书面表达
1.要点一介绍家庭成员相关信息 3’
要点二介绍家庭成员经常一起做的事情 3’
要点三表达对家人的感情2’以及推荐理由 2’
2. 字数60词左右，不足则酌情扣分，字数超过不扣分。
3. 完全抄写试卷上的完型或者阅读不得分。
4. 书写差的则酌情扣1-2分。

第一档(13-15分): 能清楚地表述自己的观点和想法；语言准确、丰富、流畅，富有个性和说服力；基本无语法错误；
第二档(9-12分)：能清楚地表述自己的观点和想法；行文比较自然，但语言表达较平淡，个性化和说服力较一般，且存在少量语法错误；
第三档(5-8分)： 观点表述不够鲜明，比较缺乏说服力；同时各种语言用法错误较多；
第四档(1-4分)：内容比较空洞或不切题，词汇和句式用法错误很多。
Abut Sara
Age
46. __________ years ld
Cuntry
47. __________
Family
Her parents, her sister and a pet dg
Hbbies
● In her free time, she ften reads funny stries.
● She is gd at playing the 48. __________ every day.
● She can 49. __________ sngs.
Dream
She wants t play in a 50. __________ band.
A. Is he handsme?
B. What is he like?
C. He is gd at basketball.
D. Yu lk s happy tday.
E. Yu are different frm each ther.
F. Maybe yu’ll be friends with him sn.
G. Yes, he has lts f bks in his schlbag.