江西省上犹中学南校区2024-2025学年高二上学期开学自主学习检测英语试题含答案

这是一份江西省上犹中学南校区2024-2025学年高二上学期开学自主学习检测英语试题含答案，文件包含江西省上犹中学南校区2024-2025学年高二上学期开学自主学习检测英语试题docx、答案docx等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共6页， 欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Which instrument has the man already wned?
A. Drums. B. A pian. C. A vilin.
2. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. A disease. B. A race. C. Glbal warming.
3. When des the man get ff wrk?
A. At 6:30. B. At 6:00. C. At 5:00.
4. What will the man d next?
A. G t the mvies. B. Keep n studying. C. Check ut sme bks.
5. What des the wman think f the apartments in New Yrk City?
A. They are expensive. B. They are valuable. C. They are t small.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What is the feature f the newest tilets in Japan?
A. They have electrnic cvers.
B. They have self-warming seats.
C. They have glass walls that can change clrs.
7. What des the man think f the newest tilets?
A. Advanced. B. Strange. C. Fashinable.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. What is the wman's pinin n smell?
A. It's persnal. B. It's meaningful. C. It's strange.
9.What's special abut smells accrding t the wman?
A. They are as pleasant as music
B. They can last abut thirty days.
C.They remind peple f the past.
10. What's the wman's favrite smell?
A. The smell f the sea. B. The smell f her garden. C. The smell f rses.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. Hw lng will the man's shw be?
A. 5 minutes. B. 10 minutes. C. 20 minutes.
12. What advice did the wman give the man befre?
A. Clsing his eyes t be calm.
B. Imaging the crwd t be cabbage.
C. Remembering the lines frm a mvie.
13. What des the wman expect?
A. T enjy themselves. B. T impress the judges. C. T make the crwd laugh.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. Where will the speakers g first?
A. A museum. B. A shp. C. A restaurant.
15. What des the wman have n interest in?
A. Taking a walk. B. Tasting Indian fd. C. Seeing unique animals
16. Why d the speakers give up ging shpping?
A. They have n enugh mney.
B. The shpping centre is a little far.
C. It will take them t much time.
17. Hw will the speakers g t the seashre?
A. On ft. B. By subway. C. By car.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. Hw did many cuntries prtect whales?
A. By prviding much fd. B. By creating prtected areas, C. By frbidding hunting whales.
19. What can prtected areas ensure?
A. Less used paper. B. Safe water and fd. C. Mre human activities.
20. What is the speaker mainly talking abut?
A. The ways t prtect animals. B. The imprtance f animals. C. The pr situatin f animals.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Our ability t impact the lives f thse in greatest need is nly made pssible by the supprt f ur vlunteers. There are fur wnderful vlunteer pprtunities.
Vlunteer Driver: Deliver meals and / r healthy grceries t peple in need thrughut Santa Clara Cunty. Requirements: Be 18 years r lder; be able t carry bags weighing between10-20 lbs; prvide prf f car insurance, a valid driver' s license and a backgrund check.Yu must fllw a set rute (a smartphne is required) and fllw fd safety rules. Cmmitment: Vlunteers are needed nce a week fr at least six mnths, Mnday thrugh Friday, frm 10:00 am t 1:00 pm.
Meals n Wheels: Srt and put prepared meals int carrying bags fr ur Meals n Wheels prgram. Requirement: Be at least 13 years ld. Cmmitment: Vlunteers wrk Mnday thrugh Friday frm8:30 am t 11:00 am.
Dear Friend Prject: Help make the day brighter fr senirs and thse living with lng-term health prblems by writing messages f encuragement. Pstcards will be prvided. Requirement: Be able t write in English; knwing Spanish, Vietnamese r Chinese is an advantage. Cmmitment: Vlunteers wrk weekly n Wednesdays frm 9:00 am t 12:00 am.
Free Grcery Vlunteer: Srt and give fresh prduce and gds t cmmunity members in East San Jsé. Requirements: Be at least 16years ld; be able t speak English; knwing Spanish r Vietnamese is an advantage. Cmmitment: Vlunteers wrk n the first Wednesday f the mnth frm 9:00 am t 12:00 pm.
21. What requirement d the vlunteer drivers need t meet?
A. Having a smartphne. B. Being at least 20 years ld.
C. Knwing a secnd language. D. Vlunteering fr mre than six mnths.
22. When d the vlunteers fr Meals n Wheels prgram wrk?
A. On Wednesdays frm 9:00 am t 12:00 am.
B. Mnday thrugh Friday frm 8:30 am t 11:00 am.
C.Mnday thrugh Friday frm 10:00 am t 1:00 pm.
D. On the first Wednesday f the mnth frm 9:00 am t 12:00 pm.
23. What d the vlunteers fr Dear Friend Prject d?
A. Teach senirs Spanish r Chinese.
B. Help prepare meals with fresh prduce.
C. Write wrds f encuragement n pstcards.
D. Live with peple having lng-term health prblems.
B
My sister Katie had a serius car accident and was airlifted t hspital in Plymuth. I went there t jin ur parents. Katie, 21, had suffered head injuries and it wasn't clear whether she wuld survive the first night. In a intensive care fr tw weeks, she then experienced cardiac arrest (心脏停搏). We were tld she prbably wasn' t ging t make it and t say ur gdbyes. But again, she pulled thrugh.
As Katie imprved, I had the idea f walking the length f the UK's 15 natinal parks within a year, climbing the highest pint in each, as a way t raise mney fr the Devn air ambulance service, which had saved Katie' s life. I wanted t feel as if I was giving smething back.
I set ff in January 2017, a year after Katie's accident. On average, I walked 50 miles in each park s abut 750 miles in ttal. The trips had t befitted in arund wrk, s nne tk lnger than three days, but ding them all ver a shrt space f time made it physically challenging.
I walked the Cairngrms in tw days, seeing many reindeer, and Dartmr in 36 hurs. I' d carry everything I needed, including a tent fr wild camping. It was amazing, and I experienced sme f the mst beautiful places in Britain. I liked the Nrth Yrk Mrs, which is ne f the least visited natinal parks.
I had a mment f realisatin while walking in Dartmr. The breathtaking surrundings helped me deal with the stress frm wrk and the pain brught by Katie's accident. It als encuraged me t cnsider a ttally new career directin, even if it meant I wuld need t leave everything I had built up, and start again.
It didn't happen vernight. In the years afterwards, I sld my business.Last year, I set up CampWild with a friend t make wild camping accessible.Nw I wrk t find beautiful and previusly inaccessible places fr ther peple t g and have sme wnderful experiences.
24. What des the underlined part "pulled thrugh” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Disappeared. B. Cried. C. Survived. D.Accepted.
25. Why did the authr start walking the length f the UK'S 15 natinal parks?
A. T sec all the different landscapes arund the UK.
B. T set a psitive example fr his sister.
C. T develp a gd exercise habit.
D. T give back by raising mney.
26. What can we learn abut the authr' s trips t the natinal parks?
A. They were challenging and relaxing B. They were dangerus and cheerful.
C. They were lng and expensive. D. They were tiring and bring.
27. What did the authr d after cmpleting the trips t the natinal parks?
A. He changed his wrking habits. B. He made a new start in business.
C. He invited his sister t walk with him. D. He explred the imprtance f family.
C
In February, when a terrible earthquake hit Türkiye and Syria, hundreds f thusands f children watched their wrld fall apart.
Mre than 50,000 peple died in Türkiye alne. Hmes and schls were damaged r destryed. Families mved t makeshift “cntainer cities,”ften far frm friends. Many children were affected emtinally. Accrding t a UN reprt, mre than 5.4 millin children acrss the quake zne are at risk f develping mental diseases.“I’ve spken t many families wh say, ' I dn't recgnize my wn children,'”says Ceyda Yelkalan, the cmmunicatins manager f Save the Children Türkiye.
What these children need t heal, Yelkalan says, is a place where they can fcus n just being kids. That means creating new safe spaces where children can d smething fun, like playing sccer. Thrugh"Pitches f Hpe" - a prject created by Master card and put int actin by Save the Children - Yelkalan and her teammates are building thse spaces.Thrughut suthern Türkiye, they are restring sccer pitches that were destryed and inviting kids t jin sccer-related activities, believing in the healing pwer f sprt.
Mehmet Ali Akil, wh is Save the Children's child prtectin crdinatr, and his teammates develped a series f sccer-related games that encurage teamwrk and imprve mental well-being.Prgrams like Pitches f Hpe are much needed, he says, since children can, and ften d, becme separated frm their family and friends after disasters.S he develped activities that fcus n increasing cmmunicatin and encuraging respectful and kind behavir.
One girl said that she hadn't played sccer befre because she thught it was a game fr men. "Nw she' s saying 'I have mre curage,'"Yelkalan says. "These children are learning life skills and the imprtance f equality and inclusin f every child. They re getting away frm the wrries f daily life and making new friendships.
28. What des paragraph 2 mainly tell us abut the earthquake?
A. The cause f it. B. What effect it had.
C. What peple think abut it. D. The rescue effrts fllwing it.
29. What des Yelkalan expect f Pitches f Hpe?
A. It can teach children hw t stay safe during an earthquake.
B. It can imprve children's sprting perfrmance.
C. It can heal the children's physical wunds.
D. It can ffer children a wrld f jy.
30. What is ne purpse f the games develped by Akil and his teammates?
A. T change the children's bad study habits.
B. T teach children hw t lead a sprts team.
C. T encurage children t cnnect with each ther.
D. T give children chances t get tgether with their family.
31. What des the authr want t shw by mentining the girl in the last paragraph?
A.The limitatins f the prject. B. The success f the prject.
C. The details f the prject. D. The future f the prject.
D
The US$2.6 billin (2022) bubble tea market will reach US$6.2 billin by 2032, accrding t Brainy Insights' new reprt. The bubble tea industry has had huge grwth thrughut the years and is still grwing rapidly. The market is expected t increase as a result f factrs such as rising cnsumer demand, new prduct develpment,glbalizatin, and the grwing interest in Asian fd and drinks.
Taiwan, China is where bubble tea was riginally cnsumed and intrduced, and ne f the biggest drinkers f bubble tea is Thailand, where each persn had six cups f bubble tea n average mnthly in December2019. The usage f scial media by cnsumers and influencers als increased prduct demand fr bubble tea in the Asia Pacific regin.
The market fr bubble tea has a significant fruit flavr categry that prvides cnsumers with a variety f delicius chices. Fr thse wh enjy bubble tea, fruit flavrs are ppular because they give the traditinal tea-based drink a fruity tuch. Bubble tea establishments usually develp unique tastes by mixing several fruits tgether. Fr example,strawberries and mang can be mixed fr a special flavr. These creative pairings satisfy the needs f custmers wh are lking fr unique and fascinating flavr experiences. In the bubble tea market, the green tea categry is expected t grw at the fastest speed. This is because green tea is full f gdness.
Many bubble tea businesses nw ffer lw-sugar r sugar-free varieties, as well as different milk chices such as sy milk. These healthier bubble teas have attracted custmers wh lve healthy prducts, making the bubble tea custmer base bigger.
The new nline platfrms - like TikTk - have allwed bubble tea businesses t access mre cnsumers and increase sales. Fr bubble tea businesses, establishing a strng nline presence is very imprtant.
32.Which wrd can best describe the bubble tea industry in the near future?
A. Uncertain. B. Prmising C. Slw-grwing. D.High-tech equipped.
33. What rle d scial media influencers play?
A. They help increase prduct quality.
B. They bring Thailand t mre peple' s attentin.
C. They cntribute t ever-grwing cnsumer demand.
D. They bring peple in the Asia Pacific regin tgether.
34. Why is the green tea categry s ppular?
A. It prvides unique flavr experiences.
B. Green tea has a psitive health effect.
C. It helps keep the traditinal tea drink alive.
D. Green tea can be paired with varius fds.
35. What are bubble tea businesses like nw accrding t the last but ne paragraph?
A. They're trying t ffer persnalized service.
B. They're discuraging peple frm buying sugary drinks.
C. They' re reaching their custmers by ffering varius chices.
D. They re turning t yunger generatins t build up their custmer base.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Yu’re cnsidering getting a fish tank but may wnder if it’s a wise investment fr yur family - especially fr yur children. Gd news - wning a fish tank fr kids has numerus benefits.
Firstly, it teaches respnsibility. Keeping a pet can make yur child respnsible. Shw them hw t feed the fish, hw much fd they need and hw ften t feed them. 36 If yur child is ld enugh, put them incharge f feeding the fish.
Yu culd als enlist a child’s help with cleaning the fish tank. 37 A yung child culd simply watch and hand yu the things yu need. Kids in grade schl culd help clean the utside f the fish tank with an aquarium-safe cleaner. Teens culd help mre with the actual cleaning prcess.
Keep a checklist where they can “check ff” whether they’ve fed the fish. 38 This way, they can share the respnsibility and the fun
Mrever, it can be therapeutic (有助于放松精神的). There’s a reasn many dctr' s ffices have fish tanks. 39 In ne study, peple reprted being in a better md and feeling mre relaxed and calmer after watching live fish in a tank fr five minutes. S why nt bring that experience t yur hme?
T add t the benefits, it inspires creativity. One f the mst fun parts f having a fish tank fr kids is selecting frm a range f fascinating decratins, plants and “underwater tys.” 40 Yur kids culd even pick ut seasnal decratins t change the way the fish tank lks.
A. Explain hw fish breathe underwater.
B. Keeping the fish healthy is very imprtant.
C. Give them respnsibilities that make sense fr their age.
D. Sure, they' re cl t lk at, but they can als help peple feel calmer.
E. If yur child is very yung, yu culd have them hand yu the fish fd.
F. And if yu have mre than ne child, let them take turns feeding the fish.
G. The varied chices fr underwater decratins make persnalizing a fish tank fun.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
In September 1957, I was a freshman at Sanfrd High Schl, which was larger than my 41 ne-rm schl.
At Sanfrd, my first class was English. The teacher arrived and began writing her name n the chalkbard. That was when I 42 I had a visin prblem. I culd nt read what she had written.
I tld my mther abut my 43 and the next day she tk me t see an ptmetrist. In tw weeks, I had 44 . That evening, I put them n and lked in my wall mirrr. 45 my head, I said t myself, I can’t wear these; everyne will 46 me and call me fur eyes.
My glasses stayed in my schlbag and I 47 thrugh the classes week after week withut
48 them. But this was all t 49 in the winter.
One snwy winter night I 50 a sng n the radi titled Peggy Sue by Buddy Hlly. Every night I wuld listen t WMEX in Bstn, which played rck 'n rll recrds. I was 51 hping t hear Peggy Sue, and I ften did.
Then came an afternn when I was watching American Bandstand n televisin and Buddy Hlly was the guest 52 that day. I had never 53 Buddy, but there he was, standing n the stage and singing my favrite sng, Peggy Sue. 1 culd nt 54 it- Buddy Hlly was wearing what I cnsidered “thse 55 glasses.”
The next Mnday I walked int the classrm, wearing my glasses.
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
As a traditin with a rich histry, the Yuyuan Garden Lantern Festival is usually held in 56.
heart f the lively city f Shanghai. This year, the Festival has been brught t Paris.
At the Jardin d'Acclimatatin, a fun park in the French capital especially 57. (design) fr kids, the beginning f the Year f the Lng celebratins is brightened with 2,000 well-made
58. (lantern), dragns and mythical creatures frm the ancient Chinese text The Classic f Muntains and Seas, 59. cntinues t be the rigin f many myths still ppular tday.
At the park, visitrs will start a magical and cultural jurney where each mment is a 60.
(discver): amazing dragns, fantastic creatures, friendly characters shining in 61. (difference)
clurs, as well as ther experiences: Chinese craftsmanship wrkshps, delicius Asian fd and martial arts shws, t name just a few.
Whether yu are yung r ld, a Parisian r just passing by, a fan f Chinese culture r 62.
(simple) expecting wnders, the Festival prmises an experience full f surprises and memries that yu wn t want 63. (miss)!
In additin, the Festival is part 64. the 60th-anniversary celebratins f diplmatic (外交的) relatins between France 65. China and als marks the China-France Year f Culture and Turism in 2024.
第四部分书面表达（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华,你于暑假期间参加了市图书馆举办的汉服(hanfu)文化节。请你给加拿大笔友Natalia写一封邮件分享这一经历,内容包括:
1.活动的时间和地点;
2.活动的过程:观看汉服时装秀(fashin shw)、穿汉服拮摄写真等;
3.你的收获。
注意: 1.写作词数应为80左右； 2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。



第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构
成一篇完整的短文。
Suddenly I felt my face turn red with embarrassment.. Hw culd I have never nticed? Every Christmas my mther enjyed creating special memries and traditins fr her family. Mm lved Christmas- the shpping, cking, decrating, music, gifts even the hustle and bustle (拥挤喧器) the seasn brings. Her enthusiasm encuraged my brther, sister, and me t experience the jy and wnder f the seasn. Althugh we culd receive varius gifts, we were taught that the real reasn fr the seasn was t celebrate the getting tgether f the whle family.
Many years have passed since I was a child. Yet I can still smell the arma(香味) f Mm’s sugar ckies as she prepared a special treat fr her family. These sweets were a sure sign that Christmas Day was near.
On Christmas Eve my mther laid all ur stckings under the beautifully decrated pine tree my father had picked ut and cut dwn in the frest. Later, in the middle f the night, she secretly filled the stckings. The next mrning we excitedly pened ur gifts, leaving ur Christmas stckings fr last.Our stckings were always full f tiny tys, trinkets, nuts, ranges,apples, and clrful hard candies in varius shapes and sizes
In my twenties, I went Christmas shpping with a friend. She began lking fr a small gift t place in her mther’s stcking.“Yu fix a Christmas stcking fr yur mther?”I asked. “Yes," she replied. “Every year I fill a stcking with little treats and have it waiting fr her n Christmas mrning. I culdn’t bear fr my mther t nt have a Christmas stcking, especially since she prepares ne fr everyne else.
That’s when I felt my face turn red with embarrassment. I realized my mther had nt had a Christmas stcking fr as lng as I remembered. And, even wrse, n ne had nticed her stcking was missing.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在相应位置作答。
My sister and I were determined t start a traditin f ur wn that year.

Lking at the stcking, my mther s eyes filled with tears.
41. A. mdern
42. A. hped
43. A. feeling
44. A. plans
45.A. Hiding
46. A. laugh at
47. A. searched
48. A. wearing
49. A. disappear
50. A. wrte
51. A. gradually
52. A. speaker
53. A. seen
54. A. make
55. A. useless
B. private
B. frgt
B. teacher
B. eyeglasses
B. Lifting
B. care abut
B.slept
B. cleaning
B. happen
B. heard
B.pssibly
B. painter
B. nticed
B. believe
B. hrrible
C. frmer
C. realized
C.cnfusin
C. dreams
C. Shaking
C. argue with
C. walked
C. repairing
C. change
C. sang
C. immediately
C. editr
C. expected
C. finish
C.shining
D.funny
D.replied
D. prblem
D. schlbags
D. Cvering
D. cme acrss
D. struggled
D. buying
D. fall
D. remembered
D. especially
D. perfrmer
D. supprted
D. understand
D. cstly