河北省石家庄市第三十八中学2024-2025学年高一上学期10月月考英语试题

这是一份河北省石家庄市第三十八中学2024-2025学年高一上学期10月月考英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When did they raise the canteen prices?
A. Last mnth. B. Last week. C. This week.
2. Hw did the man like the presentatin?
A. Gd. B. Bring. C. Attractive.
3. What des the man want the wman t d tmrrw?
A. Cntinue her wrk. B. Put ff her trip. C. Have a rest.
4. Hw many pencils did the wman buy altgether?
A. Sixteen. B. Twelve. C. Six.
5. What did the man think f the play?
A. Prfessinal. B. Just s-s. C. Interesting.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. Wh paid last time?
A. The wman. B. The man. C. Nt mentined.
7. What will the wman have?
A. A sandwich. B. A Cke. C. An ice cream.
听第七段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. Schl reunins. B. Birthday parties. C. Their ld friends.
9. Why did the wman recmmend the Omni Htel?
A. She likes the party rms there. B. Her brther wrks there.
C. The price is quite reasnable.
10. What is the wman nt gd at?
A. Making friends. B. Making decisins. C. Making small talk.
听第八段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Wh made the blg fr Michael?
A. The wman. B. His friend. C. He himself.
12. What culd be fund n his favrite website?
A. Htpt. B. Music. C. Cuisine.
13. What des Michael think f nline chatting?
A. It’s a waste f time. B. It’s quite interesting. C. It’s exciting.
听第九段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. Why did the man take the farther rute this mrning?
A. T meet a girl. B. T make a call. C. T avid buying cigarettes.
15. Why did he fall dwn?
A. He bumped int a tree. B. The rad was rugh.
C. He ran int anther persn.
16. Why did he g back?
A. T g t schl. B. T buy sme cigarettes.
C. T lk fr his cell phne.
听第十段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What are learning disabilities cnnected with?
A. Persnal intelligence.
B. The willingness t wrk hard.
C. The way that brains prcess infrmatin.
18. Which is the mst cmmn learning disability?
A. Language develpment. B. Reading.
C. Wrking with numbers.
19. Hw many American students with learning disabilities have received help?
A. Three millin. B. Five millin. C. Fifteen millin.
20. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
A. Hw t cure learning disabilities.
B. What are learning disabilities.
C. Why learning disabilities are imprtant.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Starting high schl can be difficult.
Everyne is nervus and nbdy knws where t g fr classes. Thinking abut making new friends might make yu feel nervus, t. But dn’t wrry. Yu are nt alne. Yu are ging t schl with a grup f students wh are als yur age, and we have several tips t share.
Frget yur fear and just talk t smene. It might be easier said than dne, but try t take a deep breath and vice. Dn’t be afraid t apprach peple. Intrduce yurself and start a cnversatin abut smething yu have in cmmn. Sit in the middle f the classrm with as many new friends arund yu as pssible.
Jin clubs.
Jin after-schl activities that interest yu and make friends in the club. If yu dn’t jin anything, yu will be just ging t class and then ging hme. Being in a club frces yu t be mre scial.
Stay clean.
N ne likes a bad smell that culd knck smene ver. Shwer every day, brush yur teeth and wash yur hair. Try t make yurself lk neat, whatever yu wear.
Be respectful f peple’s differences.
Everyne has his r her wn pinin abut the wrld and everyne believes in different things. It’s a gd thing t have friends with different pinins because yu can each share yur wn.
We hpe these tips can help yu. The Student Unin is always ready t ffer help. And yu are welcme t jin us!
21. Accrding t the article, why is it beneficial t have friends with different pinins?
A. It makes yu mre ppular. B. It helps yu win arguments.
C. It prmtes exchange f ideas. D. It prevents arguments.
22. What is ne suggestin fr vercming nervusness and making friends in high schl?
A. Calm dwn and have a talk actively. B. Stay silent in class t avid attentin.
C. Avid talking t anyne n the first day. D. Only interact with yur previus schlmates.
23. What is the main purpse f jining clubs in high schl, accrding t the article?
A. T imprve persnal value. B. T imprve scial interactin.
C. T d well in academic studies. D. T have a reasn t leave schl early.
B
Sprt is nt nly physically challenging but can als be mentally challenging. Criticism (批评) frm caches, parents, and ther teammates, as well as pressure t win, can create t much anxiety r pressure fr yung athletes. Pressure can be physical r emtinal and research has shwn that it can lead t burnut (精疲力竭). Burnut has been described as drpping ut f r stpping an activity that was at ne time enjyable.
The early years f grwth are imprtant years fr learning abut neself and the sprts setting (环境) is ne where valuable experiences can take place. Yung athletes can, fr example, learn hw t cperate with thers, make friends, and gain ther scial skills that will be used thrughut their lives. Caches and parents shuld be aware, at all times, that their feedback t yuth can greatly affect them. Yuth may take their parents and caches’ criticisms t heart and find faults in themselves.
Caches and parents shuld als pay attentin that yuth sprts participatin (参与者) des nt becme wrk fr children. The result f the game shuld nt be mre imprtant than the prcess f learning the sprt and ther life lessns. In tday’s yuth sprts setting, yung athletes may stress (强调) mre abut wh will win instead f enjying themselves and the sprt. Fllwing a game, many parents and caches fcus n the utcme and find faults in yuth’s perfrmances. Psitive supprt shuld be prvided regardless f the criticism. Research shws psitive supprt encurages and has a greater effect n learning than criticism. Again, criticism can create high levels f pressure, which can lead t burnut.
24. What is the main idea f the first paragraph?
A. Pressure shuld be made less. B. Sprts can be mentally challenging.
C. Mental pressure shuld be reduced. D. Sprt shuld be made less cmpetitive.
25. Why is sprt imprtant fr yung peple accrding t the passage?
A. It can remind them t criticize themselves.
B. It can help them learn mre abut sciety.
C. It can prvide them with valuable experiences.
D. It teaches them hw t set realistic gals fr themselves.
26. What shuld parents and caches d accrding t the passage?
A. Pay mre attentin t letting children enjy sprts.
B. Help children t win every game.
C. Train children t deal with stress.
D. Make children understand the psitive aspect f sprts.
27. What’s the authr’s purpse f writing the passage?
A. T teach yung athletes hw t avid burnut.
B. T tell yung children nt t wrry abut criticism.
C. T stress the imprtance f encuraging children in sprt.
D. T discuss the skill f putting criticism and encuragement tgether.
C
A Califrnia-based nnprfit is searching t build an AI language that allws humans t mre deeply understand nn-human languages t help change ur eclgical impact n ur Earth.
Aza Raskin is the c-funder and president f the Earth Species Prject (ESP), a nn-prfit that uses a frm f artificial intelligence (AI) t translate nn-human languages. ESP wants t use its machine learning technlgy t translate and make this vital infrmatin widely available (可得到的) t the public.
Raskin emphasized their gal t help cnservatin by explaining, “The end we are wrking twards is, can we decde animal cmmunicatin, discver the nn-human language. Alng the way and equally imprtant is that we are develping technlgy that supprts bilgists and cnservatin nw,” ESP believes that understanding languages can help deepen ur relatinship with animals and allw us t mre efficiently prtect them.
In the past, understanding the cmmunicatin f animals was based n lng and bring bservatins. Frm primate calls f alarms t dlphin whistles, scientists have been fascinated by the different frms f nn-human cmmunicatin present in these animals. With the develpment f new technlgies, researchers have nw begun t understand the huge amunts f data available thrugh machine learning.
Eldie Briefer, an assciate prfessr at the University f Cpenhagen, has recently helped c-develp a pig grunt analyzing sftware that helps scientists understand whether the pigs are expressing psitive r negative emtins. In cntrast, ESP is appraching decding differently, by fcusing n all species, nt just ne. The Earth Species Prject believes that there is a likelihd that scial species cmmunicate with each ther, fr instance, whales and dlphins.
Althugh the Earth Species Prject believes that understanding AI machine learning data is nly ne step t full cmmunicatin, they are hpeful that ne day we will be able t understand entire systems f cmmunicatin.
28. Accrding t Aza Raskin, the gal f the Earth Species Prject is ________.
A. t develp flee advanced AI technlgy fr everyne
B. t cmmunicate with animals such as whales and dlphins
C. t prvide infrmatin f animal species fr the public
D. t help cnserve animals by understanding their languages
29. Accrding t the article, the methds scientists have used t discver the cmmunicatin f animals d NOT include ________.
A. spending a lt f time bserving animal cmmunicatins
B. using a frm f artificial intelligence t translate animal languages
C. develping sftware t analyze a pig’s emtins thrugh its grunts
D. playing recrdings f animal sunds t cmmunicate with ther scial animals
30. Which f the fllwing statement is TRUE accrding t the article?
A. ESP aims t prvide free translatin services fr the public thrugh advanced artificial intelligence technlgies.
B. Machine learning has made it pssible fr researchers t understand huge amunts f data abut animal cmmunicatin.
C. Eldie Briefer has helped develp sftware which is exactly what ESP needs t decde animal language.
D. Researchers in the Earth Species Prject believe that all species n Earth can cmmunicate with ne anther.
31. What is prbably the best title fr the text?
A. Artificial Intelligence and Its Impact n Sciety
B. The Ambitin f Earth Species Prject
C. AI Technlgy Helps Understand Animal Languages
D. Save the Animals and Their Languages
D
Researchers have develped a new sft rbt design that cnducts itself with three behaviurs at the same time: rlling (翻滚) frward, turning like a recrd and fllwing a path that ges arund a central pint. The equipment, which perates withut human r cmputer cntrl, hlds prmise fr develping sft rbts that can be used t AA-head and map unknwn envirnments.
The new sft rbts are called twisted ring-bts (扭曲环机器人) . They are made f smething like a ribbn (缎带) and then jined tgether at the end t frm a ring.
When the rbts are placed n a surface that is at least 55 degrees Celsius, which is htter than the surrunding air, ne part f the ribbn tuching the surface becmes smaller, while ne part in the air des nt. This induces a rlling mvement: the warmer the surface, the faster the rbt rlls. “The ribbn rlls n its hrizntal axis (横轴), giving the ring frward strength,” says Jie Yin, a prfessr f mechanical and aerspace engineering.
The twisted ring-bt als turns alng its central axis. And as the twisted ring-bt mves frward it travels in a path arund a central pint, basically mving in a large circle. Hwever, if the twisted ring-bt meets a bundary- like the wall f a bx-it will travel alng the bundary.
The twisted ring-bts are examples f equipment whse behaviur is gverned by physical intelligence, meaning their actins are determined by their structural design and the materials they are made f, rather than being directed by a cmputer r human.
“Sft rbtics is still a relatively new field.” Yin says. “Finding new ways t cntrl the mvement f sft rbts in a repeatable and engineered way mves the field frward. And advancing ur understanding f what is pssible is exciting.”
32. What makes the rbt rll faster and faster?
A. The ribbn. B. The central axis.
C. The shape and material. D. The higher surface temperature.
33. Hw des the authr intrduce the new sft rbts?
A. By explaining the rbt’s wrking ways. B. By quting experts’ pinins.
C. By making sme cmparisns. D. By ffering reasns and results.
34. What is Yin’s attitude twards twisted ring-bts?
A. Unclear. B. Favurable. C. Negative. D. Dubtful.
35. What is the best title fr the text?
A. The New Sft Rbts B. Ribbns and Their Rlling
C. Three Creative Mvements D. Twisted Rings and the Axis
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Are yu cnfused abut what t d next when yu plan a birthday celebratin fr yur lved family member r try t help yur family prepare fr birthdays? 36 Here are sme tips n birthday celebratins t get yu started.
37 Rather than making a birthday cake in the kitchen, rdering a handmade cake nline is undubtedly a better chice. Yu just chse a special theme, and then yu’ll have a beautiful prfessinal cake t present t yur guests.
Frm a band. If yu want t fully enjy yurselves, instead f turning n the music n the cmputer r phne, yu can invite yur classmates t frm a band fr yur family member’s birthday. They can play as much music as yu like. 38
Find a meeting place. Many peple like t hld their parties at hme. 39 Yu can save a large amunt f stress by finding a meeting place utside. Maybe an pen park is gd fr a birthday party as lng as it desn’t disturb the peple arund.
Invite a special guest. Birthdays are ften mre memrable than the rest. T ensure yur lved ne’s party is special, besides gifts, think abut smene yu can invite that yur family member will be happy and surprised t see. 40 If yu take the time and care t plan r prepare fr yur family member’s party, yu can make her r his day extra special.
A. Buy a special cake.
B. Make a cake at hme.
C. It’s nt always easy t knw where t begin.
D. Yu extremely want t get special birthday gifts.
E. It can be a friend yur family member expects t see.
F. All f yu will enjy yurselves in the live music this way.
G. But nt everyne’s huse is big enugh fr a birthday party.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Have yu ever had prblems in yur life and dn’t knw hw t be happy? If s, yu will find Being a Happy Teenager by Australian writer Andrew Matthews 41 .
In his bk, Matthews 42 us hw t have a happy life and answers the 43 f teenagers.
Matthews writes abut many 44 in the bk, such as parents and friends, and the bk says we shuld stp being angry and learn t frgive. The bk tells us useful skills 45 hw t put what yu have learned int pictures f yur mind t make yur memry better.
Many teenagers think 46 happiness cmes frm a gd exam result, r praise frm ther peple. But yu can 47 be happy even when there are n such “gd” things. Success cmes frm a(n) 48 attitude. If yu 49 frm prblems, yu will have success in the future.
Sme schl students have 50 f being t tall r t shrt. But Matthews tells us that 51 cmes frm thinking abut things in a psitive 52 . If yu are 53 , peple ntice yu and yu can get a better view at the mvie; if yu are shrt, yur clthes and shes 54 less rm in yur bedrm! This is Matthews’ mst imprtant 55 : yu chse t be happy!
41. A. wise B. smart C. useful D. simple
42. A. rders B. tells C. asks D. argues
43. A. methds B. ideas C. questins D. cmments
44. A. rules B. classes C. curses D. tpics
45. A. fr B. like C. at D. with
46. A. what B. hw C. that D. whether
47. A. yet B. already C. still D. rather
48. A. bad B. gd C. independent D. nrmal
49. A. learn B. rescue C. struggle D. separate
50. A. experiences B. difficulties C. persnalities D. prblems
51. A. success B. happiness C. failure D. height
52. A. way B. means C. gal D. spirit
53. A. shrt B. small C. tall D. fat
54. A. take up B. stand up C. turn up D. burn up
55. A. wrk B. lessn C. teaching D. study
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The city f Canberra 56 (date) back t 1913 when it was purpsefully built t be the capital f the natin f Australia. It has grwn ver time t nt nly be the seat f the gvernment f the natin, but als a city with 57 (it) wn culture.
It sits n the shres f Lake Burley Griffin and is ne f the 58 (gd) places t travel t in all f Australia fr anyne lking frward t 59 (find) ut mre abut the histry f the cuntry and the peple. Sme f the mre interesting things t see in Canberra include Australian Natinal Btanic Gardens and kangars in 60 wild, which are exactly fit 61 thse nature-lvers.
Visitrs can enjy themselves in Canberra, but they shuld try t make travel 62 (arrangement), s that they can attend any f the festival activities 63 are interesting and exciting. There are many 64 (ffice) and flk festivals in Canberra. Canberra Day is 65 (actual) a public hliday t celebrate the naming f Canberra. Canberra als ffers the chance t learn a little bit abut hw Australia was frmed, and hw it develped.
第四部分 写作（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 单词拼写（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下列小题，根据空格后汉语或上下文提示完成句子，每空一词。
66. ___________ (交换) students are usually students wh spend a few weeks r a year in a freign cuntry.
67. It isn’t a gd ___________ (策略) t let him g n a hliday alne.
68. Jenny tld me her father was ill and she was_________ (焦急的) t get help frm me.
69. Parents are required t give their children mre free time t ____________ (探索) the natural wrld.
70. I am _________ (好奇的) t knw hw many satellites have been sent t space up t nw.
71. There is a __________ (争论) abut whether teenagers shuld be allwed t use mbile phnes in schl.
72. I experienced a different ____________ (冒险经历) in Lndn every day.
73. I checked the train ___________ (时刻表) t find ut when my cusin wuld arrive.
74. The bxer called ut a ___________ (挑战), but there was n reply.
75. Her mther praised her gd ___________ (举止) in frnt f the guests.
76. On a hill in frnt them std a great __________ (城堡).
77. The ________ (风景) frm the tp f the twer is wnderful.
78. I fully agree t the ___________ (安排) and take delight in it.
79. Every child is _________ (独特的) in the eyes f his/her parents.
80. Having vercme many difficulties, we reached the __________ (目的地) at last.
第二节 单句语法填空（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
81. After leaving schl, Jane set up an ___________ (rganise) t help hmeless peple.
82. Many peple are__________ (cnfuse) abut the fact that the UK is made up f fur cuntries.
83. By the way, des yur package need ________ (pack)?
84. During the Mid-Autumn Festival, family members ften gather tgether __________ (admire) the mn and enjy mncakes.
85. Students learned the practical_________ (apply) f the thery they has learned in the classrm.
第三节 应用文写作（满分15分）
86.假定你是李华，你的朋友Amy来信说她考试前总会出现各种焦虑症状。请给她写封回信，提供一些建议，如：制定切实可行的学习目标，合理安排时间等。
注意：1.词数80左右；
2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Amy,
I’m glad t hear frm yu.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li hua
38中学2024-2025学年第一学期第一次月考
高一英语测试卷答案
选择题
1-20每题1.5分，共30分
1—5 ABABC 6—10 ABABC 11—15 BBACC 16—20 CCBAB
21-40每题2.5分，共50分
21-23 CAB 24-27 BCAC 28-31 DDBC
32-35 DABA
36-40 CAFGE
41-55每题1分，共15分
41-45 CBCDB 46-50 CCBAD 51-55 BACAB
非选择题
第三部分 第二节每题1.5分，共15分
56. dates 57. its 58. best 59. finding 60. the
61. fr 62. arrangements 63. that/which 64. fficial 65. actually
第四部分 第一节每题1分，共15分
66. Exchange 67. strategy 68. anxius 69. explre 70. curius
71.debate 72. adventure 73. schedule 74. challenge 75. behavir
76.castle 77. sight 78. arrangement 79. unique 80. destinatin
第四部分 第二节每题2分，共10分
81. rganisatin 82.cnfused 83.packing/t be packed 84.t admire
85. applicatin
第四部分 第三节满分15分
应用文写作参考范文：
Dear Amy,
I’m glad t hear frm yu. I am writing t tell yu sme f my views n slving varius anxiety symptms. In fact, mst f us feel nervus when taking an imprtant exam.
First f all, I think it’s imprtant fr us t have a psitive attitude twards exams. We needn’t wrry t much abut them. Secndly, we shuld study hard every day, make practical study gals and arrange yur time reasnably. Besides, enugh sleep can make us perfrm well in exams. Therefre, during the examinatin perid, we shuld nt stay up t late. We can als listen t light music befre ging t bed, which may help us have a gd sleep.
I wish yu the best!
Yurs,
Li Hua