人教版（2024）七年级上册（2024）Unit 6 A Day in the Life习题

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第一部分 听力(共四大题, 满分20 分)
I. 短对话理解(共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
( ) 1. What time des Millie g t schl?
A. B . C.
( ) 2. What des the girl usually d after dinner?
A. B. C.
( ) 3. When des the girl g t the party?
A. On Saturday mrning. B. On Saturday afternn.
C. On Sunday afternn.
( ) 4. What des the girl ften d after she gets up in the mrning?
A. Take a shwer. B. Brush her teeth.
C. D sme exercise.
( ) 5. Where are the speakers nw?
A. At hme. B. At schl. C. In the classrm.
II. 长对话理解(共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
听下面一段对话, 回答第6、7 题。
( ) 6. What time des Bill usually get up?
A. At 6:10. B. At 6:30. C. At 6:50.
( ) 7. What des Bill d after he gets up?
A. Play sprts. B. Play the guitar. C. Play chess.
听下面一段对话, 回答第8 至10 题。
( ) 8. What time des Peter have breakfast?
A. At 6:00. B. At 7:00. C. At 8:00.
( ) 9. When des Anna g t schl?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
( ) 10. Wh ges t bed at abut 9:30?
A. Anna. B. Tm. C. Peter.
III. 短文理解 (共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
( ) 11. What time des Jane get up?
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 8:00.
( ) 12. Hw des Jane g t schl?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus.
( ) 13. Hw many classes des Jane have every day?
A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight.
( ) 14. Where des Jane like t g after schl?
A. T the library. B. T the playgrund.
C. T the sprts center.
( ) 15. What des Jane d at 9:00 p.m.?
A. She ges t bed. B. She watches TV.
C. She des her hmewrk.
IV. 信息转换 (共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题, 满分35 分)
V. 单项填空(共10 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分10 分)
( ) 21. Rick has ________ breakfast at seven ’clck.
A. a B. an C. / D. the
( ) 22. As students, it is ur ________ t lve ur schl and make ur schl mre beautiful.
A. ability B. duty C. magic D. reasn
( ) 23. Dn’t eat t much candy. It’s nt gd fr yur ________.
A. nse B. head C. eyes D. teeth
( ) 24. Bb ________ his arm, and his friends take him t the hspital.
A. takes B. breaks C. makes D. meets
( ) 25. My father is busy with his wrk, but he always gets hme befre it is ________.
A. dark B. fine C. full D. early
( ) 26. —________ des yur father g t wrk n Mnday?
— At half past eight.
A. Where B. When C. What D. Why
( ) 27. —Help yur brther ________, Anne.
—OK, but where are his sweater and trusers?
A. watch TV B. take a shwer
C. get dressed D. have breakfast
( ) 28. Lk at the clck. It’s ________ 12:00. Let’s g and have lunch.
A. already B. nly C. really D. usually
( ) 29. Betty is slw in ding anything, s it’s impssible (不可能的) fr her t ________ the wrk n time.
A. finish B. spend C. remember D. discver
( ) 30. —________, Dad?
—It’s 9:00 p.m. It’s time fr yu t g t bed.
A. What’s the time B. Hw are yu
C. What’s this D. Where are yu
VI. 完形填空(共20 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分20 分)
A [2024 淮北濉溪孙疃中学月考改编]
Hi! My name is Bill Smith and I’m ten years ld. I live in a village with my parents. The village is nt 31 . There are nt many peple there. My mther is a husewife and my father is a teacher. He 32 in a middle schl. Every day, I get up 33 in the mrning. I get dressed and have breakfast. Then I take the bus t schl. Classes start at eight am and 34 at 3:30 pm, s I have lunch at schl. My favurite 35 is PE. We d sme exercise and play sprts. I dn’t like maths because I think it is very 36 .
When I get hme, I take a shwer first. Then I d my hmewrk and 37 schl things fr the next day. Next, I have dinner and walk the 38 . The dg’s name is Lulu. After that, I 39 friends. I have sme gd friends 40 Mike is my best friend. We always have fun riding everywhere. At ten ’clck, I g t bed.
( ) 31. A. fat B. new C. ld D. big
( ) 32. A. jins B. wrks C. needs D. knws
( ) 33. A. really B. usually C. early D. exactly
( ) 34. A. finish B. begin C. spell D. teach
( ) 35. A. festival B. questin C. number D. subject
( ) 36. A. interesting B. difficult C. different D. amazing
( ) 37. A. paint B. cllect C. prepare D. make
( ) 38. A. dg B. bird C. duck D. rabbit
( ) 39. A. call B. help C. take D. meet
( ) 40. A. because B. but C. r D. s
B
Amy is a student. She gets up very 41 in the mrning. She is the first t cme t the classrm every time. After she gets up, she reads English because it’s her favurite 42 . Then she has breakfast at 7:00 a. m. At 7:20, she 43 t schl with her friends because her hme is nt far frm schl. She makes friends 44 her classmates and they all lve her. She has six classes every day.
After schl, she ften des lts f activities. Smetimes, she reads bks in the schl 45 . It’s a nice time fr her. Smetimes, she 46 because she jins the schl music club. She thinks her schl life is 47 . She gets hme at 6:00 p.m. After dinner, she always des her 48 first. She likes studying. On weekends, she is free, s she has 49 time t exercise. Running and swimming are her favurite sprts. Her parents are 50 every day, and they have n time t stay with her.
( ) 41. A. early B. late C. happily D. really
( ) 42. A. game B. subject C. shw D. bk
( ) 43. A. runs B. likes C. walks D. rises
( ) 44. A. with B. fr C. at D. f
( ) 45. A. bkcase B. party C. library D. restaurant
( ) 46. A. plays the vilin B. ges swimming
C. plays chess D. paints pictures
( ) 47. A. interesting B. useful C. difficult D. imprtant
( ) 48. A. class B. shwer C. hmewrk D. husewrk
( ) 49. A. many B. much C. little D. lt
( ) 50. A. free B. happy C. busy D. excellent
VII. 补全对话, 其中有两项多余(共5 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
A: D yu have healthy habits?
B: 51. __________ Every day I get up early and g t bed early.
A: What time d yu usually get up?
B: 52. __________
A: D yu eat healthy fd every day?
B: Yes. 53. __________
A: And d yu exercise every day?
B: 54. __________
A: Well, what time d yu g t bed in the evening?
B: 55. __________
A: Oh, yur habits are really gd.
第三部分 阅读(共两节, 满分30 分)
VIII. 阅读理解(共15 小题; 每小题2 分, 满分30 分)
第一节 阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Gd habits are imprtant t everyne. They make us happy and healthy. Here are sme useful tips fr yu t fllw.

Wake up early. Have breakfast. Drink 3 liters f Enjy the mrning
water a day. sun.

Get away frm the cmputer Take a shrt nap. Exercise regularly.
every 30 minutes.

Brush yur teeth. Read a bk befre ging t sleep. G t bed by 10 pm.
( ) 56. What shuld yu d in the mrning accrding t the text?
A. Drink 3 liters f water. B. Eat a lt f fd.
C. Wake up early. D. Take a shwer.
( ) 57. What’s the meaning f the wrd “nap”?
A. Sit. B. Sleep.
C. Think. D. Watch.
( ) 58. What time shuld yu g t bed at night accrding t the passage?
A. By 9:00. B. By 9:30.
C. By l0:00. D. By 10:30.
( ) 59. Which f the fllwing sentences are gd habits accrding t the text?
① Enjy the mrning sun. ② Get away frm the cmputer.
③ Exercise and read. ④ Brush teeth.
A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①③④ D. ①②④
B
Nancy gets up early in the mrning. She has her breakfast at hme and then ges t schl. She walks t the bus stp and takes a bus. She gets t schl at half past seven.
Nancy is never late fr schl. Classes begin at 8:00. She has six classes every day. Nancy is gd at all her lessns, and she likes Chinese best. Nancy usually has lunch at schl. Smetimes, she helps her classmates with their lessns.
She ges hme at five in the afternn. After dinner she usually watches TV. Then she des her hmewrk. She ges t bed at abut 9:30. Nancy is a gd girl.
( ) 60. Where des Nancy have her breakfast?
A. At hme. B. At schl.
C. On the bus. D. On her way t schl.
( ) 61. What time des Nancy get t schl?
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00.
C. At 7:30. D. At 8:30.
( ) 62. What is Nancy’s favurite subject?
A. Chinese. B. Maths.
C. English. D. Science.
( ) 63. What can we learn abut Nancy accrding t the text?
A. She walks t schl every day.
B. She is kind t help her classmates.
C. She never watches TV at hme.
D. She has dinner with friends at schl.
C
I’m Linda. Nw let me tell yu abut my days.
I get up at seven ’clck every mrning n schl days. I brush my teeth and get dressed. Then I have eggs, milk and bread fr breakfast. I like drinking range juice, but my mm desn’t let me drink it ften. After breakfast, I leave hme at abut a quarter t eight and g t schl by schl bus. I have lessns between half past eight and twelve ’clck in the mrning. I have lunch with my friends at schl at a quarter past twelve. Befre I g hme at six ’clck, I g t the music club at five ’clck in the afternn and play beautiful sngs with my vilin. I usually get hme at abut a quarter past six and d my hmewrk. I have dinner with my family at eight ’clck. After dinner, I g t my rm and listen t music. I read a bk befre I g t bed. I always sleep at half past nine.
What d I d n weekends? On Saturday, my family and I usually g t a supermarket and d the shpping. We smetimes g fr a walk in the park and feed the birds there. On Sunday, I d my hmewrk first, and then I g ut t play with my friends. I usually have a great time.
( ) 64. Hw des Linda g t schl?
A. B. C. D.
( ) 65. What des Linda d in the music club?
A. She sings.
B. She dances.
C. She plays the vilin.
D. She writes sngs.
( ) 66. Where is Linda at 7:00 pm n schl days?
A. At hme.
B. At schl.
C. In the park.
D. In the library.
( ) 67. What is the last paragraph abut?
A. Linda’s family.
B. Linda’s weekends.
C. Linda’s schl days.
D. Linda’s favurite animal.
第二节 阅读下面短文, 并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
D
Chen Hetu is frm Shanghai, China. He is twelve years ld. Many peple knw him, because he speaks English very well, and his favurite subject is English. Students are having their winter hliday (寒假) nw. Hw’s Chen’s day in the hliday? Let’s have a lk.
In the mrning, he plays sccer at 8:00. He thinks it’s gd fr his health. He learns maths at 9:00. He always takes a prgramming(编程)class n the Internet at 10:00. At 11:00, he reads English bks.
What des he d in the afternn? At 2:00, he plays sprts with his grandma. He reads Chinese stries at 2:30. After that, he plays chess with his grandpa. At 4:00, he learns English n the cmputer.
Chen’s day is very busy, but he thinks it is great, because he can learn a lt.
68. Why des Chen play sccer?(不超过10 个词)
_____________________________________________________
69. Hw lng des Chen take the prgramming class?(不超过5 个词)
_____________________________________________________
70. Hw des Chen feel abut his day?(不超过5 个词)
_____________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共三大题, 满分35 分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5 小题；每小题1 分, 满分5 分)
71. Huang Mei wrks as a r (记者)fr a newspaper.
72. There are sme great r (餐馆) in the new shpping mall.
73. It’s 5:30. Let’s p (准备) fd fr dinner.
74. Exercise shuld be a part f ur d (日常的) life.
75. [2023 安徽]Students u (通常) listen t the teacher’s advice(建议) and act n it.
X. 根据汉语意思完成句子, 每空一词(共5 小题; 每小题2 分, 满分10 分)
76. 他常常帮助他的妈妈做家务。
He ften helps his mther ___________ ___________.
77. 我总是在睡觉前洗个澡。
I always ___________ ___________ ___________ befre I g t bed.
78. 你爸爸几点上床睡觉？
What time des yur father ___________ ___________ ___________?
79. 周末你常常做什么？
___________ ___________ yu ften d ___________ ___________?
80. 我的姐姐在星期天上午值班。
My sister is ___________ ___________ n Sunday mrning.
XI. 书面表达(共1 小题; 满分20 分)
你们班准备开展以“健康生活每一天”为主题的征文活动, 请以“My Healthy Life”为题, 写一篇英语短文参加此次活动。
要求：1. 条理清晰, 语句通顺, 语法正确, 书写规范, 时态准确；
2. 词数：不少于60。
参考词汇：smething 某事 finish 结束
My Healthy Life
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Unit 6 综合素质评价 答案及点拨
【听力原文】
I. 短对话理解
你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Millie ften has breakfast at 7:00, right?
W: Yes. And she ges t schl at 7:30.
2. M: What d yu usually d after dinner?
W: I usually d my hmewrk. Smetimes I read bks. I never watch TV.
3. M: Jenny, can yu cme t my party n Saturday afternn?
W: Sure, I’d lve t.
4. M: D yu ften take a shwer after getting up in the mrning?
W: Nt really. I ften exercise fr half an hur and then have breakfast.
5. M: The English class begins at 8:00.
W: Let’s g int the classrm.
II. 长对话理解
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7 题。
W: What time d yu usually get up, Bill?
M: I usually get up at 6:10.
W: Ww, that’s early.
M: Yes. I play chess fr half an hur after I get up.
W: That’s great.
听下面一段对话，回答第8 至10 题。
W: D yu get up very early, Peter?
M: Yes, I get up at six ’clck in the mrning. Then I have breakfast at seven ’clck. What abut yu, Anna?
W: I get up at eight ’clck.
M: Eight ’clck?
W: Yes. I g t schl in the afternn.
M. That’s interesting. Well, what d yu usually d in the evening, Anna?
W: I usually d my hmewrk at seven thirty and I watch TV at nine ’clck.
M: Oh, I dn’t watch TV. I usually take a walk with my brther Tm after I finish my hmewrk. Then I g t bed at abut 9:30.
III. 短文理解
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Jane usually gets up at half past six. She has breakfast at seven. Then she takes a bus t schl. She has fur classes in the mrning and three classes in the afternn. After schl, she likes t g t the sprts center and play ball games. Then she ges hme and has dinner with her parents at hme. At abut nine p. m. , she ges t bed.
IV. 信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容, 写出下面表格中所缺的单词, 每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Dear Jiang Min,
I usually get up at five twenty. At six ’clck I run. Then I take a shwer at seven. I have breakfast at seven thirty. I always have sme bread and milk fr breakfast. I g t schl with my cusin at eight. I start my classes at eight thirty. Schl ends at fur thirty in the afternn. And I usually help my mther d sme husewrk at five ’clck.
What abut yur schl days? Please write t me sn.
Yurs,
Li Ming
答案及点拨
第一部分 听力
I. 1~5 CABCB
II. 6~10 ACBBC
III. 11~15 ACBCA
IV. 16. Run 17. shwer 18. 7:30
19. cusin 20. husewrk
第二部分 语言知识运用
V. 21. C 【点拨】一日三餐前不加冠词，故选C。
22. B 【点拨】句意：作为学生，爱护我们的学校、使我们的学校更美丽是我们的职责。ability 能力；duty 责任，职责；magic 魔法；reasn 原因。故选B。
23. D 【点拨】句意：不要吃太多的糖果，对你的牙齿不好。根据常识可知，吃太多的糖对牙齿不好。故选D。
24. B 【点拨】根据句意可知应是Bb 摔坏了胳膊。break有“损坏”之意。故选B。
25. A 【点拨】 句意：我爸爸工作很忙，但他总是在天黑之前到家。dark 昏暗的；fine 好的；晴朗的；full 满的；early 早的。故选A。
26. B 【点拨】Where 哪里；What 什么；When 什么时候；Why 为什么。根据答语“At half past eight.”可知，问句是对时间提问，故选B。
27. C 【点拨】根据答语“ where are his sweater and trusers?”可知，此处表示帮助你的弟弟穿衣服。 get dressed 意为“穿衣服”，符合语境，故选C。
28. A 【点拨】句意：看时钟，已经12 点了。让我们去吃午饭吧。already 已经，符合语境。 故选A。
29. A 【点拨】根据“Betty is slw in ding anything”可知，此处是说她不可能按时完成这项工作。finish 符合语境。故选A。
30. A 【点拨】根据“It’s 9:00 p. m.”可知是询问时间。故选A。
Ⅵ . A【主旨大意】本文主要介绍了Bill 一天的学习和生活状况。
31. D 【点拨】根据“There are nt many peple there.”可知，村里没有很多人，所以该村不大。故选D。
32. B 【点拨】根据上文可知，作者的爸爸是一名教师，所以应是在一所中学工作。故选B。
33. C 【点拨】get up early 意为“起得早”。
34. A 【点拨】句意：上午八点开始上课，下午三点半结束。finish 完成；结束，符合语境。
35. D 【点拨】根据常识可知“体育课”是一门“学科”，故选D。
36. B 【点拨】根据“I dn’t like maths”可知作者不喜欢数学，认为它很难。interesting 有趣的；difficult 困难的；different 不同的；amazing 令人惊奇的。故选B。
37. C 【点拨】根据“schl things fr the next day”可知是准备明天的学校用品。故选C。
38. A 【点拨】walk the dg 意为“遛狗”。
39. D 【点拨】meet friends 意为“见朋友；和朋友见面”。
40. B 【点拨】句意：我有一些好朋友，但Mike 是我最好的朋友。上下文有转折关系。故选B。
B【主旨大意】本文主要介绍了Amy 一天的学习和生活状况。
41. A 【点拨】根据“She is the first t cme t the classrm every time.”可知，Amy 起床很早。故选A。
42. B 【点拨】根据“Then she reads English”可知，英语是一门学科。subject 意为“学科”，符合语境。故选B。
43. C 【点拨】 根据“because her hme is nt far frm schl”可知，Amy 和她的朋友步行去上学。walk 意为“走路”。故选C。
44. A 【点拨】make friends with sb. 意为“和某人交朋友”，是固定短语。故选A。
45. C 【点拨】根据“she reads bks”可知，是在学校图书馆。 故选C。
46. A 【点拨】根据“because she jins the schl music club” 可知，只有A 项和加入学校音乐俱乐部有关。故选A。
47. A 【点拨】根据“After schl，she ften des lts f activities. Smetimes, she reads bks in the ’s a nice time fr her.”可知，Amy 的生活很有趣。interesting 意为“有趣的”，故选A。
48. C 【点拨】d ne’s hmewrk 意为“做某人的家庭作业”，故选C。
49. B 【点拨】time 是不可数名词 ，要用much 修饰，故选B。
50. C 【点拨】根据“and they have n time t stay with her”可知，她的父母很忙。busy 意为“忙碌的”，故选C。
VII. 【主旨大意】本文主要是两个人关于生活习惯的对话。
51. C 【点拨】根据“Every day I get up early and g t bed early.”可知，此处是说我有好的习惯，选项C 符合语境，故选C。
52. F 【点拨】根据“What time d yu usually get up?”可知，此处应回答几点起床，选项F 符合语境，故选F。
53. G 【点拨】根据“D yu eat healthy fd every day?” 及“Yes.”可知，此处是说“我”每天吃健康的食物，选项G 符合语境，故选G。
54. B 【点拨】根据“And d yu exercise every day?”可知，此处是询问每天是否锻炼，回答也应和锻炼相关，选项B 符合语境，故选B。
55. E 【点拨】根据“what time d yu g t bed in the evening”可知，这里是询问晚上几点睡觉，回答也应和睡觉有关，选项E 符合语境，故选E。
第三部分 阅读
VIII. A【主旨大意】本文通过图片展示了一天的活动。
56. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据所给图片及内容可知，在早晨应该早起。故选C。
57. B 【点拨】推理判断题。根据图片可猜测，此处nap的意思是“小睡”。故选B。
58. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及“G t bed at l0 pm.”可知选C。
59. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及“Get away frm the cmputer every 30 minutes.”可知，你应该每30 分钟离开电脑一次，而② Get away frm the cmputer 意为“远离电脑”，与材料描述不符，故选C。
B【主旨大意】本文主要讲述了Nancy 一天的日常生活。
60. A 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“She has her breakfast at hme and then ges t schl.”可知，在家吃早餐，故选A。
61. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“She gets t schl at half past seven.”可知，七点半到学校，故选C。
62. A 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第二段中的“and she likes Chinese best”可知，最喜欢语文，故选A。
63. B 【点拨】推理判断题。根据第二段中的“Smetimes, she helps her classmates with their lessns.”可知，有时她帮助她的同学学习功课，故选B。
C【主旨大意】本文主要讲述了Linda 一天的学习和生活情况。
64. D 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第二段中的“After breakfast, t schl by schl bus.”可知，Linda 乘坐校车上学。故选D。
65. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第二段中的“I g t the music play beautiful sngs with my vilin.”可知，Linda 在音乐俱乐部中拉小提琴，演奏动听的歌曲。故选C。
66. A 【点拨】推理判断题。根据第二段中的“I usually get hme at abut a quarter past six and d my hmewrk. I have dinner with my family at eight ’clck.” 可知，Linda 6:15 到家，然后做家庭作业，8:00 和家人一起吃晚饭，故推断Linda 下午七点在家。故选A。
67. B 【点拨】段落大意题。根据最后一段第一句“What d I d n weekends?”可知，本段介绍的是Linda 的周末活动。故选B。
D【主旨大意】本文主要介绍了在寒假期间陈鹤途一天的安排。
68. Because it’s gd fr his health. 【点拨】根据“In the mrning, he plays sccer at 8:00. He thinks it’s gd fr his health.”可知，他认为踢足球对他的健康有好处。
69. Fr ne hur. 【点拨】根据“He always takes a prgramming (编程)class n the Internet at 10:00. At 11:00, he reads English bks”可知，他上一个小时的编程课。
70. It’s busy but great. 【点拨】根据“Chen’s day is very busy, but he thinks it is great”可知，他的一天虽然忙碌但是很棒。
第四部分 写
IX. 71. reprter 72. restaurants 73. prepare
74. daily 75. usually
X. 76. d/with husewrk 77. take a shwer
78. g t bed 79. What d; n weekends 80. n duty
XI. One pssible versin:
My Healthy Life
I have a very healthy life. Let me tell yu smething abut my life.
I usually get up at 6:20 a. m. Then I have breakfast at 6:40 a. m. At 7:00, I g t schl. I usually ride a bike t schl. It takes me abut 10 minutes. After that I have fur classes in the mrning. In the afternn I have tw classes. My schl finishes at 4:00 p. m. Then I g hme at 5:00 p. m. In the evening I ften d my hmewrk and watch TV. I g t bed at 9:00 p. m.
I live a healthy life.
名师点评：短文按照“三段法”来写日常生活， 从人物、活动时间到活动内容。第一段点明主题； 第二段详细描写日常活动；第三段总结全文。逻辑关系合理，知识点运用准确。
添彩点：①用then 和after 使前后文衔接紧密；②运用频度副词usually, ften 使句意表达更生动。Time
Activities
5:20 a.m.
Get up
6:00 a.m.
16. ___________
7: 00 a.m.
Take a 17. ___________
18. ___________ a.m.
Have sme bread and milk fr breakfast
8:00 a.m.
G t schl with his 19. ___________
5:00 p.m.
Help his mther with 20. ___________
A. I usually walk t schl.
B. Yes. Every mrning I run with my brther.
C. Yes, I d.
D. I get hme at fur thirty.
E. I g t bed at nine ’clck.
F. I usually get up at six ’clck.
G. I eat fruit and vegetables every day.