浙江省金华市金东、浦江、兰溪2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末检测英语试题

这是一份浙江省金华市金东、浦江、兰溪2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末检测英语试题，共13页。

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一、听力 (本题有15小题，满分25分)
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项， 回答问题。 (共5 小题； 每小题 1分, 满分 5分)
1. Wh tk the pht f nature?
A. Linda. B. Simn. C. Jhnny.
2. Which sprt des Cathy like best?
A. Tennis. B. Baseball. C. Badmintn.
3. What will the weather be like tmrrw?
A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Snwy.
4. Where did the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. At a dining hall. B. At a railway statin. C. At a shpping center.
5. What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Dctr and patient. B. Pliceman and driver. C. Salesman and custmer.
第二节：听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。 (共5小题； 每小题2分, 满分10分)
听下面一段较长对话，回答6、7两个问题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. The rules in the museum. B. The phts in the museum. C. The exhibitins in the museum.
7. What des the man shw his ID card fr?
A. Fr a map. B. Fr a prize. C. Fr a ticket.
听下面一段较长对话，回答8~10三个问题。
8. Why des Marie start this cnversatin?
A. Because she passed a test. B. Because she jined a grup. C. Because she bught a bk.
9. Which bk is Marie reading nw?
A. The Beautiful Mind. B. The Great Gatsby. C. The Kite Runner.
10. Hw much time has Frank gt t read the bk?
A. Abut half a mnth. B. Abut ne mnth. C. Abut three mnths.
第三节：听独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，回答问题。 (共5小题； 每小题2分, 满分 10分)
11. When did the stry happen?
A. Last summer. B. Last autumn. C. Last winter.
12. What did William eat fr dinner?
A. Ckies. B. Ndles. C. Hamburgers.
13. Hw did he feel when he heard a nise?
A. Bred. B. Scared. C. Disappinted.
14. Where did the nise cme frm?
A. The bed. B. The desk. C. The windw.
15. What did he d at last?
A. He called his friend. B. He shuted fr help. C. He cntinued t read.
二、完形填空(本题有 15小题； 每小题1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
It is easy t make up excuses when there's smething yu' re afraid f. But real friends will always be ready t help yu find ut yur 16 and supprt yu t slve it.
On a Friday mrning, my friend Mariana visited me and she wuld stay at my huse fr a week. As I planned t 17 a pl party n the weekend,I asked her if she wuld cme alng. Unexpectedly, she 18 the invitatin and tld me she hadn't brught her swimsuit. After hearing her wrds, I shwed my swimsuits t her 19 she lked at them withut saying a wrd.
After a 20 f several minutes, I said,“ My swimsuits are nt new but they are clean. Yu can chse the ne yu like best and 21 .”
“ Oh,I will,” she answered,“ but can I d it after lunch? I'm s 22 .”
After lunch, Mariana still didn't try n the swimsuits. Then she started t explain 23 she desn't want t d it. I culd hardly hear her because her vice was much 24 than usual. Suddenly, I 25 that smething was wrng. I lked at her and said,“I feel yu dn't want t g t the 26 . What's the matter, Mariana?”
Mariana sighed,“I'm afraid f staying in 27 , actually. I will get nervus if my feet can't tuch the bttm f the swimming pl. I'm ashamed f that!”
“I'm s 28 yu tld me the truth,”I said,“ but I prmise that nbdy will 29 that at all. If yu want t play water, I will always stay with yu.” Mariana agreed t give it a try 30 .
The next day Mariana and I went t the party and we enjyed urselves in the shallw(浅的) area f the pl. Thrugh the party, I' ve cme t understand that we can d anything well if we g fr it.
16. A. gal B. lessn C. mistake D. prblem
17. A. hld B. attend C. cancel D. escape
18. A. lst B. stpped C. brke D. refused
19. A. r B. s C. but D. till
20. A. taste B. smile C. silence D. discussin
21. A. try it n B. pick it up C. take it ff D. thrw it away
22. A. busy B. sick C. hungry D. thirsty
23. A. hw B. why C. when D. where
24. A. lwer B. cler C. sfter D. clearer
25. A. replied B. repeated C. realized D. remembered
26. A. party B. cncert C. meeting D. funeral
27. A. wind B. fire C. water D. darkness
28. A. glad B. calm C. angry D. afraid
29. A. wait fr B. care abut C. lk after D. depend n
30. A. luckily B. secretly C. finally D. suddenly
三、阅读理解(本题有15小题。第31~33 小题, 每小题1分: 第34~44小题, 每小题2分; 第45小题5分。满分30分)
阅读下面四篇短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Lcated in Nrtheast China, Harbin is very cld in winter and its temperature is arund -16℃. This allws the city t hst ne f the best winter festivals in the wrld--- Harbin Internatinal Ice & Snw Sculpture(雕塑) Festival.
The festival pens n January 5th, 2024 fr its 40th seasn. It will keep the cldness and excitement ging until late February.
There are tw main exhibitin areas fr the festival. The Sun Island is a playing area alng the Snghua River. Yu can enjy snw in different stages: the first snw, cvered snw, flying snw, etc.
The Ice and Snw Wrld is the festival's highlight. As night falls, it cmes alive with clrful lights shining. A huge Snwflake Ferris Wheel has been newly built this year, s yu can ride n it t verlk the whle ice exhibitins. Mrever, activities such as ice bicycle riding and alpine skiing , make it a“ Snw & Ice Disneyland”.
Activities in ther areas include turing ice lantern exhibitins in Zhalin Park and shpping in the stres alng Central Street! There are plenty f activities t chse frm, but remember t bk tickets early as the festival attracts turists frm different cuntries.
31. Hw lng des the 40th Ice and Snw Sculpture Festival last?
A. Abut tw days. B. Abut tw weeks. C. Abut tw mnths. D. Abut tw years.
32. Where can the visitrs ride n the Snwflake Ferris Wheel?
A. In Zhalin Park. B. In the Sun Island.
C. On Harbin Central Street. D. In the Ice and Snw Wrld.
33. On which f the fllwing websites can we mst prbably read the text?
A. B.
C. D.
B
34. What is Hakdate in Para.1?
A. A fish. B. A twn. C. A beach. D. An island.
35. Which f the fllwing in the dictinary best explains the underlined wrd“ cnsume”?
cn· sume v./kən' sju:m/ ( frmal) [VN]
① t use up energy r time
② t eat r drink smething
③ t cmpletely des try smething
④ t fill smene with a strng feeling
A.① B.② C.③ D.④
36. What might cause the death f fish accrding t the fisherman?
A. The lng- time mving. B. The shrtage f xygen.
C. The plluted sea envirnment. D. The changes in water temperature.
37. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
①We all knw that it is easy t get sick during winter. Once yu frgt t put n yur hat and glves when yu left hme n a cld day, yu started shaking and then yu caught a bad cld. The real reasns fr the illnesses may nt be what yu think. Here are sme f them.
Yu' re indrs mre.
②Staying indrs increases yur risk f getting sick in a few different ways. Researchers in China and at Virginia Tech have fund that students may get sick mre ften when the drs and windws are usually clsed in their classrms. Why? Because the germs(细菌) are able t grw rapidly in enclsed spaces.
Yu' re expsed(暴露) t mre germs.
③If yu prefer t stay indrs, yu are expsed t mre germs. Germs lve t live n desks, chairs, bks, keybards and a number f ther things that yur teachers, classmates, partners r family members are prbably tuching t. ▲
Yur feet are cld.
④Researchers in England have fund in a study that yur immune respnse(免疫反应) may be lwer when yur feet are in a lw temperature. Fr the experiment, 90 students were asked t place their feet in cld water fr 20 minutes. And they were much mre likely t get a cld ver the next five days cmpared t thers, accrding t the research. The result shws that peple shuld keep their feet warm in winter.
38. Hw des the writer apprach(导入) the tpic f the passage in Para.1?
A. By giving an example. B. By raising a questin.
C. By prviding a frm. D. By making a cmparisn.
39. Which f the fllwing is the best t fill in the blank“ ▲ ”?
A. Yu are advised t take mre exercise. B. That's why hand washing is a tp need.
C. Yu'd better nt tuch thers' things. D. It's necessary t keep away frm thers.
40. What des the underlined wrd“ they” in Para.4 refer t?
A. Researchers. B. Experiments. C. Students. D. Feet.
41. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. The latest research n human health. B. Reasns why peple get sick in winter.
C. The imprtance f develping gd habits. D. Suggestins fr ways f keeping healthy.
D
It was clse t Thanksgiving. I rushed int the supermarket fr the big day. I chse a shirt fr my dad and a sweater fr my mum. As I gladly went t the checkut line, a yung wman was in frnt f me. Her elder sn was abut three, running and jumping arund and her newbrn was crying in her arms. My heart went ut t her.
The clerk (收银员) started checking ut the wman's items. I nticed that the tw kids were still making much nise and the line was getting lnger and lnger. After a few minutes, I fund that the wman was lking at her items and trying t decide what she needed t put back. I gt a little impatient s I cmplained.
Just then, I heard a gentle vice behind me,“ Hney, d yu need these fr yur children?”
“ Yes, ma’ am. I need them fr Thanksgiving but I can’t affrd them.” she answered.
Withut thinking, the ld wman put back her wn items and said t the clerk,“ Ring up all her things! I' ll pay fr them.”
The yung wman was mved t tears,“ Thanks, ma’ am. It’s kay. I’ ll put my things back.”
“ Hney, I'm als a mum. I' ve been in yur shes. I knw what it's like. Let me help yu!”
After I heard the whle cnversatin, I put the shirt and the sweater back and turned t the yung wman,“I can als pay part f it.”
“ That is nt necessary, my by.” said the ld wman.
“I knw it's nt, but what yu have just dne fr this yung mther has tuched me. I' ve never gtten t be a part f smething like this.”
The yung wman was crying by this pint,“I dn't knw hw t repay yu.”
42. Which is the crrect rder f the fllwing activities?
①The by cmplained abut the lng line. ②The by chse presents fr his parents.
③The by was mved by the ld wman. ④The by paid partly fr the yung mther.
A.①③④② B.①③②④ C.②①④③ D. ②①③④
43. Why did the yung wman try t put sme f her things back?
A. Because her children were t nisy. B. Because she didn't have enugh mney.
C. Because the clerk was impatient t her. D. Because she didn't need them anymre.
44. What des the underlined sentence“I’ ve been in yur shes.” mean?
A. I' ve brrwed a pair f shes frm yu. B. I wuld like t make friends with yu.
C. I' ve bught a pair f new shes like yurs. D. I can ttally understand hw yu feel nw.
45. If yu were the by, what wuld yu say t the yung wman at last?(请用约40 词回答)




四、词汇运用(本题有15小题； 每小题1分，满分 15分)
A. 用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空。每词限用一次。
silk wide invent recrd manage
Paper was created by Cai Lun abut AD 105. Befre the 46 f paper, peple wrte wrds n leaves, animal skins r rcks. In ancient China, peple used bamb strips(竹筒) t 47 imprtant events but they were very heavy and tk up a lt f space. Later, Chinese peple created a kind f paper which was made f 48 . This kind f paper was much lighter than the strips but it was t expensive t be 49 used. T make a cheaper kind f paper, Cai Lun 50 t make paper by using pieces f ld clth, fishing net s and ther materials. With the imprvement f technlgy, paper gt much cheaper and it was mre suitable fr writing n.
B. 根据短文内容和首字母或中文提示，在空白处写出单词的正确形式。每空限填一词。
New Zealand is a cuntry in the Suth Pacific which is made up f tw islands, the Nrth Island and the Suth Island. The Nrth Island is f 51 fr its ht springs, while the Suth Island is knwn fr high muntains. Every year, this island cuntry attracts 52 (百万) f turists frm all ver the wrld.
Cvering ver 270,000 square kilmeters, New Zealand is abut the same size as the UK, but it has a p 53 f abut 5,000,000. Three- furths f New Zealanders live in several large cities n the Nrth Island. Auckland is the largest ne w 54 lies in the nrthwest f this island and Wellingtn is the cuntry's capital which is lcated at the 55 (南部的) tip.
New Zealand is hme t many animals and 56 (植物) which are nt fund anywhere else. In rder t p 57 them, the cuntry has set up many natinal parks and reserves. Besides, New Zealand's culture is deeply 58 (影响) by Mari culture with its language, arts, and traditins because the Mari came here hundreds f years earlier than Eurpeans.
A 59 it is January, it is summer in New Zealand. The sun is very bright but the weather is seldm uncmfrtably ht. Mst New Zealanders live near the sea s they lve water sprts, like 60 (冲浪), diving, sailing, swimming, r just lying n the beach.
Cme t New Zealand! This beautiful cuntry will leave yu with unfrgettable memries!
五、语法填空(本题有 10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
A new name nw sits atp the Men's Single List f ITTF Wrld Rankings(排名)! The name is Wang Chuqin. Wang is 61 rising star f Chinese table tennis.
When Wang was five, he was encuraged 62 ( play) table tennis t build up his bdy. At the age f 12, he shwed his amazing talent in it, 63 his parents sent him t the Hebei Table Tennis Team fr further training. After that, he had t leave hme alne and lk after 64 ( he). In the first few mnths, Wang fell behind thers, but he didn't give up. He trained 65 ( hard) than any ther player in the team and std ut frm the crwd step by step.
In 2014, Wang wn his 66 ( ne) gld medal in an imprtant internatinal cmpetitin. One year later, he 67 ( chse) as a member f the Natinal Table Tennis Team. In the fllwing years, Wang dealt with many difficulties and challenges. In 2018, he 68 ( successful) gt Gld in many internatinal cmpetitins. But later, he hurt his waist(腰) in a cmpetitin and suffered a lt 69 his waist prblems. Even s, Wang returned t first place in 2021 and wn fur gld 70 ( medal) f the 19th Hangzhu Asian Games in 2023.
Nw Wang is getting ready fr the Paris Olympics 2024. Let's lk frward t his great perfrmance!
六、任务型阅读 (共1小题； 满分5分)
71. 阅读下面这则书评，设计一张信息结构图呈现该书评的要点、内容。可参考文后结构图或自创。
The Old Man and the Sea was written by Ernest Hemingway, an American writer. Hemingway was brn in Oak Park, Illinis, n July 21,1899. He is cnsidered as ne f the mst influential writers f the 20th century. Hemingway had a deep lve fr adventure and had rich persnal experiences. He described the adventure f a tugh man in his master wrk The Old Man and the Sea.
The stry happens t an ld fisherman named Santiag. One day, Santiag ges ut t fish but he has gt nthing fr 84 days. Till the 85th day, he catches a large marlin fish. Hwever, the fish is s strng that it takes him 3 days t kill it. On the way back hme, his bat is attacked by sharks fr many times. He has tried his best t fight against them, while the sharks nly leave him several bnes f the fish at last.
The her f the nvel, Santiag, is brave, psitive and persistent. Santiag des his best t defeat the large marlin fish. Facing the sharks, he keeps fighting and never gives up. Santiag has a friend called Manlin. N matter what happens, Manlin is always there and stays with Santiag. Santiag uses his actins t tell the wrld that nly the human bdy can be destryed, but the human spirit can stand firm and never be defeated.
The Old Man and the Sea is a great bk. It tells us that we must make a great effrt even if we dn't succeed in the end. If we wrk hard, there will be n regrets. As lng as we have a strng will, ne day we will walk n the path f success!
七、书面表达(共1小题； 满分20分)
72. 假定你是 Li Hua，请对英国朋友 Bill的邮件进行回复。词数 100左右，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Hi, Li Hua,
I am s excited that Chinese Spring Festival has been fficially listed as a UN hliday and we can have ne day ff! Culd yu tell me hw I can experience a traditinal Spring Festival? What can I eat with my family? Hw shuld I decrate my huse? Any ther special activities can I d t celebrate it?
I can't wait t enjy my first Spring Festival hliday! Write back t me!
Bill
Dear Bill,



Li Hua

①Arund 1,200 tns f dead fish, mstly sardines, were discvered n a beach in Hakdate, an island in nrthern Japan n Dec.7,2023. Tns f dead sardines were cllected by lcal fishermen.
②Abuta week later, in Nakiri, a twn hundreds f miles away frm Hkkaid,30~40 tns f dead sardines washed up n its cast.
③“ The cause is unknwn at the mment,” Mikine Fujiwara, a fisheries fficial in Japan, tld Mainichi Shimbun Daily,“ but we plan t check the seawater t uncver it.” He als advised lcal fishers nt t cnsume the dead fish,“ We dn't knw fr sure why these fish washed up. They may be harmful t human health.”
④Accrding t scientists at the Hkkaid Research Organizatin, the die- ffs culd be caused by many things, like sudden changes in water temperature, the shrtage f xygen(氧气) r tiredness after lng- time mving.
⑤“I' ve never seen anything like this befre,”a fisherman wh has been wrking in the area fr 25 years said,“I just can’t believe the huge number f the dead fish. It happened just three mnths after nuclear(核) plluted- water was pured int the sea. It makes me feel that the sea ecsystem(生态系统) is changing.”
⑥Generally, it is difficult t find ut the reasns behind the die- ffs. Perhaps the natural wrld is using the die- ffs t remind human t lve the earth and keep the balance f nature.
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2023学年第一学期九年级英语期末考试听力材料
第一节：听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有1个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. M: Linda, wh tk this pht f nature? It's amazing!
W: Well, Simn. Let's take a clser lk. Oh... It was taken by Jhnny Smith.
2. M: Hey, Cathy. Have yu watched the BWF Wrld Tur Finals?
W: Yes, I have. Yu knw, my favurite sprt is badmintn. I was really excited that Jia Yifan and Chen Qingchen wn the wmen's dubles final.
3. M: Hell, Susan. What are yu ding tmrrw?
W:I think I' ll stay at hme, because the weather frecast shws it' ll be cld with heavy rain.
4. M: Excuse me, culd yu lk after my bags fr a while? I want t buy smething t eat.
W: N prblem. But be quick, it was annunced that my train will arrive in 10 minutes.
5. M: Cme and sit dwn, please! Is there anything wrng?
W: Yeah! I' ve cughed up bld. I' ve taken sme medicine but I can't seem t shake it ff.
M: N wrries. Let me check yur thrat first. Open up and say“ Ahh…”!
W: Ahh...
第二节：听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有2或3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6、7两个小题。
W: Welcme t Hangzhu Museum. Please get yur bag thrugh the security at first.
M: OK. Can I take phts f the exhibitins in the museum?
W: It's OK. But yu are nt allwed t tuch them, r yu' ll be fined.
M:I gt it. I' ll be careful.
W: Everyne, please shw yur ID card!
M: OK. But it's fr what?
W: With yur ID card, entry t ur museum is free. One ID card, ne ticket.
M: That's fine. Any ther things shuld I pay attentin t?
W: Yu can't speak ludly when yu are n a visit.
M:I wn't. Thank yu fr telling me.
听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8~10三个小题。
W: Hey, Frank. Can I talk t yu fr a minute?
M: Sure, Marie. What's up?
W:I jined a bk grup three mnths ag. I knw yu d a lt f reading, s I thught yu might be interested.
M: En, that sunds like fun. When des yur grup meet?
W: On the last Saturday f the mnth.
M: What d yu usually d in the grup?
W: Well, every mnth we read a new bk. And then in the next meeting, we’ ll discuss it.
M: What bks have yu read?
W: En… Recently we have read The Beautiful Mind and The Great Gatsby. Nw we are reading The Kite Runner.
M: The Kite Runner? That's a great bk.
W: Wuld yu like t cme with me?
M: That sunds interesting. I'd lve t cme.
W: Great! The next meeting will be held in tw weeks, s yu still have time t read the bk.
M: That is very true. I' ll d it at nce.
第三节：听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。独白读两遍。
M: Yu are listening t Teen Radi. This is William West. Here's a questin: Have yu ever stayed hme alne? Well, let me tell yu my stry. Last winter, my parents left me hme alne fr the first time. I was s happy because I thught I wuld enjy myself. In the afternn, I watched televisin and then I had sme ckies fr dinner. After dinner, I called my friend and we talked n the phne fr a while. Then I sat dwn t read a bk. The huse was very quiet. I fund myself listening very carefully and suddenly I heard a nise cming frm the windw. It seemed that a man wuld break the windw t get in. S I turned ff the lights and hid under the bed. Several minutes later, I walked t the windw and watched carefully. There was nbdy utside. It was just the tree shaking in the wind. It's kind f silly, isn't it? Finally, I clsed the windw, turned n the lights, sat back dwn and picked up my bk.
2023学年第一学期九年级英语期末考试参考答案
一、听力(第1~5题每小题1分，第6~15题每小题2分)
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C
二、完形填空 (每小题1分)
16. D 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C
26. A 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. C
三、阅读理解(第31~33题每小题1分,第34~44题每小题2分, 第45题5分)
31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. D
45. ①Take it easy. I'm s glad t help yu. ②Yu dn't need t repay me! Maybe yu can give me a hug. ③One day in the future, just pay it frward and help smene else when yu have the chance.④Have a nice Thanksgiving!
四、词汇运用(每小题1分)
46. inventin/ inventing 47. recrd 48. silk 49. widely 50. managed
51. famus 52. millins 53. ppulatin 54. which 55. suthern
56. plants 57. prtect 58. influenced 59. Althugh 60. surfing
五、语法填空 (每小题1分)
61. a 62. t play 63. s 64. himself 65. harder
66. first 67. was chsen 68. successfully 69. frm 70. medals
六、任务型阅读 (5分)
七、书面表达 (20分)
76. Pssible versinl: Deng Weishan
Dear Bill,
As Chinese, I'm really excited abut the gd news!
T experience a traditinal Spring Festival, yu can start by cleaning yur huse t sweep away the bad luck. As fr the fd, we usually have a re unin dinner with ur family, s yu can try varius dishes like dumplings, spring rlls and nianga. Furthermre, red is cmmnly used in decrating huses, s hanging big red lanterns, cuplets and paper cuttings at the entry is needed t bring in gd luck and prsperity. Other special activities such as setting ff firecrackers, giving red envelpes, and watching the Spring Festival Gala are als traditinal.
I hpe yu can have a fantastic time celebrating yur first Spring Festival hliday!
Li Hua
(115 wrds)
Pssible versin2: Fu Xialian
Dear Bill,
Happy t hear frm yu and I am willing t help yu experience a traditinal Spring Festival.
Befre its arrival, yu can d sme cleaning and buy sme red rnaments t decrate yur huse, like red lanterns and cuplets. Red means gd luck. Als, havıng a family reunin dinner is ne f ur traditins. Special dishes shuld be prepared, such as rice cakes and dumplings, they als symblizes auspıcıusness and cmpleteness. Meanwhile, there are varius ceremnies and activıties yu can d t celebrate the Spring Festival. Setting ff firewrks, enjying the dragn dance and visiting relatives are all gd chices.
Spring Festival is a time f great jy. D hpe yu can enjy yurself!
Li Hua
(114 wrds)
Pssible versin3:
Dear Bill, Du Chenglng
I'm delighted t tell yu abut hw t experience a traditinal Chinese Spring Festival.
Since Spring Festival is given the meaning fr family reunin, yu can get tgether with yur family members and have a gd taste f delicius traditinal fd like dumplings and rice cakes, which have a beautiful meaning fr gd luck. At the same time, yu are suppsed t decrate yur huses with red lanterns and Spring Festival cuplets s as t sweep away bad luck. Meanwhile, yu can't miss sme special activities such as enjying the dragn and lin dance, setting ff firecrackers as well as watching the Spring Festival Gala.
Hpe yu enjy yur first Spring Festival hliday!
Li Hua
(113 wrds)
2023学年第一学期九年级英语期末考试评分标准
一、第1小题至第5小题，每题1分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第6小题至第15 小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
二、第16小题至第30 小题，每题1分， 不选、多选和错选均不给分。
三、第31小题至第33 小题，每题1分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第34小题至第44 小题，每题2分，不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第45 小题5分。
评分要点：①我很高兴能帮助年轻母亲，成为善意传递的一部分。②我不需要她还钱，可以给我一个拥抱。③只是希望年轻母亲被善意温暖并把它传递下去。④祝愿年轻母亲和全家感恩节快乐。
评分标准：
5分：涵盖至少3个或以上的要点。字数40左右，行文流畅，语言地道。
4分：涵盖任意2个要点，字数40左右，行文基本流畅，语言少量错误。
3分：基本涵盖任意2个要点，字数不足，行文不流畅，语言错误较多。
2分：涵盖任意1个要点，或简单引用原文中与2个要点相关的句子。
1分：简单引用原文中与1个要点相关的句子，或仅抄写相关词语。
0分：不作答，或回答不相关。
四、第46 小题至第60 小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
五、第61 小题至第70 小题，每题1分，凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
六、第71 小题, 共1题, 共计5分。
评分标准：
1. 选用或设计合适的信息结构图，得1分；
2. 涵盖一个要点得0.5分，写出4个要点得2分；
3. 每个要点的对应内容0.5分，写出4块内容得2分；
4. 意义正确即可。单词拼写和语法的错误不扣分。
七、第72 小题, 共1题, 共计20分。
评分标准：
1. 按5个档次给分。中档属第三档(12分——9分)。
2. 按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次(内容分和语言分各占一半)。
3. 总词数不足40个可在本题总得分中扣去3分； 超过120个可在本题总得分中扣去 2分。
4. 评分要点：
(1) 邮件开头和结尾表达礼貌得体(4分) 。
(2) 传统食物(4分)，节日装饰(4分)，活动建议(4分)，美好祝愿(2分)。
(3) 卷面整洁、书写清楚 (2分)。
5. 各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档(很好)： (20分—17分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①信息全。②语言可读性强，语言结构基本正确，有少量错误。
第四档(好)： (16分—13分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
①有主要信息。②语言基本正确，有一些错误。
第三档 (还好)：(12分——9分) 基本完成试题规定的任务。
① 有主要信息。②语言尚可读，有一些错误，但尚能达意。
第二档 (较差) ： (8分—5分) 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。
① 信息不全。②只有个别句子可读，语言错误较多，且不能达意。
第一档 (差) ： (4分—1分) 未能完成试题规定的任务。
① 不能表达有关信息。②只有几个相关单词，语言错误很多，不能达意。
注意：凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。