2023-2024学年江西省南昌市七年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年江西省南昌市七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力，语音知识，词汇运用，补全对话，阅读理解，书面表达，学习技能等内容，欢迎下载使用。

一、听力（每小题1分, 共25分）
A）听对话, 选图片。请听5段对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三幅图画中选出符合对话内容的图画, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
B）听对话, 选答案。请听 5 段对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出符合对话内容的答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
6. Wh has a vlleyball?
A. Jack. B. Mary. C. Paul.
7. When is Bb's gegraphy class?
A. On Mnday and Tuesday.
B. On Mnday and Friday.
C. On Tuesday and Friday.
8. What is David's favrite subject?
A. Science. B. Music. C. Math.
9. Wh likes tmates?
A. Tm. B. Tm's mm. C. Tm's grandma.
10. Where are the tw speakers talking nw? C. At a bkstre.
A. At a clthes stre. B. In a pst ffice.
C）请听两段长对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出符合对话内容的答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话, 回答第11、12小题。
11. What clr des the man want?
A. Blue. B. Black. C. Green.
12. Hw much are the shes? B. $20.
A. $15. C. $ 25
请听第2段对话, 回答第13至第15小题。
13. Why des Jane like music?
A. Because it's interesting.
B. Because it's useful.
C. Because it's relaxing.
14. When des Jane have music?
A. On Friday mrning.
B. On Mnday afternn.
C. On Friday afternn.
15. What can we knw frm the cnversatin?
A. Miss Smith is gd at cking cakes.
B. Jane ften eats delicius hamburgers.
C. Jhn's favrite teacher is Mr. Smith.
D）听短文, 根据短文内容按顺序排列下面五幅图片, 并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。短文读两遍。
A. B. C. D. E.
16. __________ 17. __________ 18. __________ 19. __________ 20. __________
E）请听一段独白, 将听到的有关信息填入下列空白处, 每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。独白读两遍。
二、语音知识（每小题1分, 共5分）
从A、B、C三个选项中选出划线部分读音与其他项不同的选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
26. A. music B. June C. useful
27. A. dllar B. sfa C. clthes
28. A. dinner B. price C. fifteen
29. A. why B. healthy C. busy
30. A. game B. August C. vegetable
三、词汇运用（每小题1分, 共10分）
请阅读以下10个句子, 然后从方框中选择最佳选项完成句子, 并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。每个选项限用一次。
31. Mary is a sprts lver. She always_________ with her friends after schl.
32. My mther likes playing ping-png very much, _________she desn't play it tday.
33. Sally wants t_________ a basketball game n TV.
34. I have an_________ tmrrw. I hpe t get gd grades.
35. _________ is the mnth between July and September.
36. This T-shirt is t big. I need a_________ ne.
37. I am t hungry. I want t have sme_________.
38. —When des yur last class_________ in the afternn?
—At 5:00.
39. —Mm, the skirt lks very nice. Can yu_________ it fr me?
—OK. Hw much is it?
40. —D yu like histry?
—Yes. It is interesting and_________.
四、补全对话（每小题2分, 共10分）
请阅读下面对话, 根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处, 使对话通顺、合理, 意思完整, 并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
（Lily and a wman are in the stre. L=Lily. W=Wman. ）
W: What can I d fr yu?
L: 41. _________
W: What clr d yu like?
L: 42. _________
W: All right. What size d yu want?
L: I want a small ne.
W: What abut this ne?
L: 43. _________
W: Sure.
L: Oh, I like it. 44. _________
W: It's 58 dllars.
L: 45. _________
W: But there is a big sale tday. Everything is at half price.
L: OK! I'll take it.
五、阅读理解（每小题2分, 共30分）
A）请阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
46. When is Alice's birthday?
A. On Octber 9th. B. On May 16th. C. On July 26th.
47. Whse birthdays are in May?
A. Nick's and Zhang Xia's
B. Alice's and David's
C. David's and Zhang Xia's
48. What can we knw frm the fur cards?
A. Nick’s favrite sprt is' tennis.
B. David's birthday is in Octber.
C. Alice and David are bth 14 years ld.
B
My favrite sweater is t small.
I lve that sweater best f all.
My grandma makes it when I am three.
She makes that sweater just fr me.
I get the sweater, a nice blue.
The clr f blue, wet with dew（露珠）
When I am three I am very small.
But nw I'm five and much t tall.
I have a new jacket nw and that's green.
S I give my sweater t ur dg Queen.
Queen just has a baby in the shed（小屋）.
My favrite sweater is nw their bed.
by Bnnie
49. What did the grandma make fr the writer when she was three?
A. A blue sweater. B. A baby shed. C. A new jacket.
50. Wh is Queen?
A. A baby. B. A dg. C. A sweater.
51. What des the underlined wrd "their” in the pem refer t?
A. Bnnie and her grandma's
B. Bnnie and her baby's
C. Queen and her baby's
52. What's the best title（标题）f this pem?
A. My Lvely Grandma B. A Baby in the Shed C. My Favrite Sweater
C
Can animals have their festivals? Yes, sure. And many cuntries have different festivals t shw lve t their animals.
The secnd Sunday f Octber is Canadian Dg's Day. On that day, all the Canadian dgs can have a gd time. It's an imprtant day because peple think dgs are very kind t them and help them a lt. S n that day, all the dgs can g ut t play and have a big dinner.
In a twn f Belgium, the secnd Sunday f May is Cat's Day. Peple there play sme interesting games with their cats t have fun. They can get sme lvely tys frm peple.
In Indnesia, May 7th is Mnkey's Day. Peple give much delicius fd t mnkeys. They als play music fr mnkeys. All the mnkeys will have a gd time n that day.
We live in the same wrld with animals, s we need t be friendly t them and lve them.
53. When is Canadian Dg's Day?
A. The first Saturday f May.
B. The secnd Sunday f May.
C. The secnd Sunday f Octber.
54. On Mnkey's Day, what d peple d?
A. They take mnkeys away.
B. They give fd t mnkeys.
C. They play sprts with mnkeys.
55. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Canadian dgs are nt imprtant.
B. Animals can't have their festivals.
C. Peple need t be nice t animals.
56. Which f the fllwing is the structure（结构）f the passage?
A. B. C.
B）请先阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后根据短文内容完成下面各小题, 并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。
My name is Anna. I am 13 years ld. I am a student in Grade 7. I like t play badmintn and I am strng.
Fr breakfast, I usually eat a piece f bread and sme eggs, and I drink a cup f milk. This gives me abut 400 calries（卡路里）fr the mrning. I ften have rice and sme beef r fish and als a banana fr lunch. But I dn't like apples. This gives me 900 calries fr the afternn and fr a game f badmintn after schl.
Fr dinner, I usually have bread, meat and vegetables. I dn't have hamburgers r Cke because they are nt healthy fr me. But smetimes I have a cake r an ice cream. At dinner, I take in abut 750 calries.
I need t eat a lt f healthy fd. It is als healthy t d sprts every day.
任务一: 请用完整的句子回答下面问题。
57. What des Anna have fr lunch?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
58. What game des Anna ften play after schl?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
59. What d yu think f Anna's day?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
任务二: 请将划线句子翻译成中文。
60. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达（10分）
你的初中生活已经开展一个学期了, 某英文网站正在开展以“我在学校最喜欢的一天”为主题的征文活动。请用英语写一篇短文并投稿, 介绍你在学校某一天的生活。
提示:
（1）What's yur favrite day at schl?
（2）What d yu d n that day?
（3）Why d yu like that day best?
要求:
1. 短文应包括提示中的所有要点, 意思连贯, 符合逻辑;
2. 不要出现真实的人名校名和地名;
3. 60词左右, 开头已给出不计入字数。
My Favrite Day at Schl
Everyne has a favrite day. As fr me, my favrite day is___________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
七、学习技能（10分）
学校餐厅正在开展“新学期餐单”征集活动, 请你根据以下图片中的食物和价格, 设计下学期2024年2月19日—2月23日的午餐餐单, 并用两句话描述你这样设计的理由。
任务一: 在表格中填入相应的日期（例如: January 9th）、合理搭配的食物、每一餐的价格。（共6分）
任务二: 写两个句子, 说明你这样设计的理由。每句话不少于5个单词。（每小题2分, 共4分）
61. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
62. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
2023—2024学年度第一学期期末试卷
七年级（初一）英语 参考答案及评分意见
参考答案
一、听力（每小题1分, 共25分）
1—5 BABAC 6—10 CBBCC 11—12 BC 13—15 CCA 16—20 EBADC
21. red 22. February 23. Wednesday（afternn） 24.13/ thirteen 25. science
二、语音知识（每小题1分, 共5分）
26—30 BABAC
三、词汇运用（每小题1分, 共10分）
31—35 CBJIG 36—40 FEHAD
四、补全对话（每小题2分, 共10分）
41—45 CGBFD
五、阅读理解（每小题2分, 共30分）
A）46—48 AAC B）49—52 ABCC C）53—56 CBCB
D）评分建议: 未使用完整句子答题扣0.5分
57. Anna ften has rice and sme beef r fish and（als）a banana fr lunch. / She has rice, beef r fish and a banana.
58. Anna ften plays（a game f）badmintn after schl.
59. Anna（She）is healthy. /Anna`s（Her）eating habit is healthy.（答案仅供参考, 答案合理即可给分。）
60. 每天运动也是很健康的。
六、书面表达（10分）
七、学习技能（10分）
听力材料
一、听力（每小题1分, 共25分）
A）听对话, 选图片。请听5段对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三幅图画中选出符合对话内容的图画, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Hw much are yur scks?
W: My scks are five yuan.
2. M: D yu want t play tennis this evening?
W: Sure. Let`s g!
3. M: Wh is yur favrite teacher?
W: Mr. Black. He is ur histry teacher.
4. M: D yu have bread and milk fr breakfast?
W: N, I nly eat tw eggs fr breakfast.
5. M: D we have a big day in September, Sally?
W: Yes, it`s n September 10th.
B）听对话, 选答案。请听5段对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出符合对话内容的答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
6. W: D yu have a vlleyball, Jack?
M: N, I dn`t, Mary. But my brther Paul des.
7. W: When is yur gegraphy class, Bb?
M: It`s n Mnday and Friday.
8. M: What is yur favrite subject, Linda?
W: My favrite subject is science. What abut yu, David?
M: Well, I like art and math. But music is my favrite.
9. W: Des yur grandma like tmates, Tm?
M: Yes, she des. But I dn`t like them.
10. M: Can I have this bk, Mm?
W: Of curse. I will buy it fr yu.
C）请听两段长对话, 听完后, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出符合对话内容的答案, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话, 回答第11、12小题。
W: Can I help yu?
M: Yes, please. I want shes.
W: What clr d yu want?
M: Black.
W: What abut these? They lk very nice.
M: OK. Hw much are they?
W: Twenty-five dllars.
M: OK. I`ll take them. Thank yu.
W: Yu`re welcme.
请听第2段对话, 回答第13至第15小题。
M: Hey, Jane. What`s yur favrite subject?
W: Hmm, well, my favrite subject is music. Because it`s really relaxing.
M: When d yu have music?
W: On Friday afternn.
M: Is Miss Smith yur music teacher?
W: Yes. And she`s my favrite teacher. She`s fun. She`s gd at cking cakes. She ften gives us cakes in ur music class. They are very delicius.
M: Hw happy yu are!
D）听短文, 根据短文内容按顺序排列下面五幅图片, 并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。短文读两遍。
My name is Jack. I like playing basketball. I always play it after class. I have fur gd friends. They like ding different things. Jane likes buying nice clthes. She always ges t the clthes stre with her friends n Saturday. Bb lves playing sccer. He has three sccer balls in his rm. Gina likes watching vlleyball games n TV. She thinks it is relaxing. Jhn likes playing ping-png. He has tw ping-png bats.
E）请听一段独白, 将听到的有关信息填入下列空白处, 每个空格不超过 3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。独白读两遍。
Here is a nice pht f my friends. They are brther and sister. Lk! The girl in the red skirt is Kate. She is twelve. Her birthday is in February. Her favrite subject is music. She has it n Wednesday afternn. Her music teacher is Ms. Green. Can yu see the by in blue shrts? His name is Bill. He is thirteen. His birthday is in December. He likes science because he thinks it`s fun. He has science classes n Mnday, Tuesday and Friday. Mr. Smith, Bill `s science teacher, likes him very much.
A pht f my tw friends
Kate
She is in the 21. _________skirt.
She is 12 and her birthday is in 22. _________.
She likes music. She has music n 23. _________.
Bill
He is 24. _________years ld and his birthday is in December.
He likes 25. _________because he thinks it's fun.
A. buy B. but C. plays vlleyball D. useful E. bread
F. small G. August H. finish I. English test J. watch
A. What else（其他的）wuld yu like?
B. May I try it n（试穿）?
C. I'd like t buy a T-shirt.
D. That's t expensive.
E. I dn't like it at all.
F. Hw much is it?
G. I like purple.
Name: Nick Brwn
Birthday: May 6th
Age: 13
Favrite sprt: basketball
Name: Alice Green
Birthday: Octber 9th
Age: 14
Favrite sprt: tennis
Name: David Hand
Birthday: July 26th
Age: 14
Favrite sprt: baseball
Name: Zhang Xia
Birthday: May 16th
Age: 15
Favrite sprt: ping-png
Date
Fd
Price