2023-2024学年山东省德州市宁津县八年级(上)期末英语试卷
展开1、 本试题共150分。考试时间为120分钟。
2、答卷前务必将姓名、班级写在答题纸上。所有试题的答案都写在答题纸上,考试结束,试题和答题纸一并收回。
一、听力部分(共25小题,计30分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
1. 录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。 (5分)
( )1. A. That's a gd idea. B. Yes,I d. C. N,I dn't.
( )2. A. That's t bad. B. Never mind. C. Bad luck.
( )3. A. Yes,I d. B. Yes,I did. C. Yes,I am.
( )4. A. I watch TV. B. I was happy. C. I read a bk.
( )5. A. I studied English. B. I was at my uncle's huse. C. I am sick.
11.录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。(3分)
6. 7. 8.
111.录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 (5分)
( )9. Hw des Li Lin learn English?
A. By reading English nvels.
B. By listening t the radi.
C. By watching English mvies.
( )10. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. An animal. B. A persn. C. A film.
( )11. When did the accident happen?
A. At 5:30. B. At 6:00. C. At 6:30.
( )12. What wuld the by like t drink?
A. Tea. B. Cffee. C. Milk.
( )13. What's the relatinship (关系) between the tw speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Sister and brther. C. Classmates.
IV.录音中有一段长对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C 中选出能回答所给问题
的正确答案。(4分)
( )14. Where is Steve nw?
A. In France. B. In America. C. In England.
( )15. Hw des Steve feel nw?
A. Nervus. B. Excited. C. Happy.
( )16. Where is Steve suppsed t put his bread?
A. Near the plate. B. On the table. C. On the plate.
( )17. Hw is Steve suppsed t eat fruit after he cuts it up?
A. With his hands. B. With a frk. C. With a knife.
V.录音中有3小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。 (3分).
( )18. Linda A. talk with freigners abut her village
( )19. Kate B. have t g back hme because f raining
( )20. Helen C. think the gvernment shuld d smething fr the city
Ⅵ. 听力填表。(10分)
听短文,完成下面的表格。短文读两遍。
二、阅读理解(共20小题,计50分)
阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。
A
Hw t Learn English
Here are sme tips which may help yu t master(精通) the English language.
▲ Speak withut fear
The biggest prblem mst peple face in learning a new language is their wn fear. They wrry that they wn't say things crrectly, s they dn't talk at all. Dn't d this. The
fastest way t learn anything is t d it again and again until yu get it right. Dn't let a little fear stp yu frm getting what yu want.
▲Use all f yur resurces(资源)
Use as many different resurces, methds and tls as pssible, and it will allw yu t
learn faster. There are many different ways yu can imprve yur English. Fr example, the Internet is a fantastic resurce, and fr the language learner it's perfect.
▲
Take ntes in English, put English bks arund yur rm, listen t the radi in English,
watch English news, mvies and televisin, listen t English music. Speak English with yur
friends whenever yu can. Then yu will begin“thinking in English”.
▲ Study as ften as pssible
Only by studying things like grammar and vcabulary and ding exercises, yu can really
imprve yur knwledge f any language.
▲D exercises and take tests
Many peple think that exercises and tests aren't much fun. Hwever, by cmpleting exercises and taking tests yu can really imprve yur English. If yu test yurself, yu will knw hw much yu are prgressing.
26. Hw many tips are mentin ed in this article?
A. Five B. Six C. Seven D. Eight
27 In learning a new language, the biggest prblem peple face is
A. listening B. test C. fear D. exercise
28 The underlined wrd“methds” has the clsest meaning t“ ”
A. magazines B. dictinaries C. websites D. ways
29 Which f the headings can be put n“ ”?
A. Let English be arund yu
B. Practice the English language
C. Imprve English listening and speaking skills
D. Frm a gd habit f thinking in English
30. Which is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. Fear can stp peple frm learning English.
B. Peple can't practice listening and reading at the same time.
C. When listening t the news, yu can hear different accents.
D. If yu test yurself, yu will knw hw much yu are prgressing.
B
By 2050, nearly 70% f the wrld's ppulatin(人口) will live in cities. Many f them will becme large cities with a ppulatin f mre than 10 millin. Mving peple arund each large
city will be difficult. The traffic speed(速度) in Lndn will fall t abut 7 miles per
hur.Arund the same speed it was 150 years ag, in the days f the hrs e and cart. But
city planners are wrking n ways t slve (解决) the prblem.
rbt taxis
Rbt taxis will play a part. There'll be mre than 30 millin Rbt taxis
n the rad by 2040, Drivers dn't need t drive by themselves. By 2050,
there will be mre rbt taxis in the city streets. We can call the taxis very
quickly.
buses
Public transprt (公共交通工具) like buses will be highly
persnalized (个性化). Peple dn't need t lk thrugh the bus
timetable. Buses will be cnnected n the Internet and make the way by
themselves accrding t(根据) where the peple need t g.
bikes
Bikes will be helpful and safe, t. Cities culd build special rads fr
them high abve city streets. Xiamen in sutheast China already has an
8-kilmeter bicycle way t prtect riders like that. That may be anther
kind f transprt in 2050. It will be wnderful.
31 Mst f peple will live by 2050
A. in the big cities B. in the small cities C. in Lndn D. in the villages
32 arewrking n ways t slve the traffic prblem
A. Mving peple B. Peple in Xiamen C. Peple in the streets D. City planners
33 waysf transprt will help the traffic in the future accrding t the passage
A. Tw B. Three C. Fur D. Five
34. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. The traffic speed in Lndn will be slw because f the big ppulatin.
B. There will be rbt taxis drve by peple by 2040.
C. Buses can make the way by themselves.
D. Rads fr bikes will be high abve city streets.
35. Where can we see this article?
A. In a strybk. B. In a magazine. C. In a reprt. D. In a travel guide.
C
In a small Chinese twn, there lived a pr yung man named Ma Liang. He lved painting.
One night, an ld man with a lng bear d visited Ma Liang in a dream. He gave Ma Liang
a paintbrush (画笔).
“Use this magic paintbrush t help the pr,” he said, “but dn't use it t help peple wh are rich and greedy(贪婪的), r the skill will leave yur fingers and yu will never
paint again."
When Ma Liang wke up, he fund the paintbrush lying n the table by his bed. He painted a butterfly, and he was surprised t see it fly ff the page and ut f the windw.
Ma Liang ran ut f his little huse and started painting things fr peple. He painted
a buffal(水牛) t help a farmer, fd fr hungry peple and clthes fr peple wh were cld.
A rich man heard abut the paintbrush and asked Ma Liang t paint sme gld fr him, but
Ma Liang refused(拒绝).
“If yu dn't paint fr me, I'll cut yur fingers ff,”the rich man said “Then yu
will never paint again.”
S Ma Liang painted an island f gld in the middle f a blue sea.“Hw will I get there?”asked the rich man. Ma Liang pinted a bat fr the rich man. Then the rich man gt in it and went n his way tward the island happily.
But when the rich man was half way there, Ma Liang painted a hle in the side f the bat.The bat sank int the water and nbdy ever saw the rich man again.
根据语篇内容,选择最佳选项,并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
36. The ld man wanted Ma Liang t with the paintbrush.
A. draw sme mney B. help the pr peple
C. fight with the rich D. draw a big bat
37 Ma Liang first drew with the paintbrush
A. a butterfly B. a buffal C. sme fd D. sme clthes
38 The underlined wrd“it”in Paragraph 3 refers t“ ”in the passage
A. the dream B. the paintbrush C. the table D. the butterfly
39. What might happen t the rich man at last?
A. He might g back hme silently.
B. He might becme Ma Liang's friend.
C. He might die in the sea.
D. He might live n the bat.
40 Frm the stry we can knw that
A. Ma Liang was a clever and kind by
B. the ld man was Ma Liang's friend
C. Ma Liang was afraid f the rich man
D. the rich man cut ff Ma Liang's fingers
D
Happiness is imprtant fr everyne. Mst peple want t be happy but few knw where t find happiness. Here is a stry t help yu.
Once a bird lived unhappily. S it traveled far away t lk fr its happiness.
It flew and flew. Suddenly it saw a spider climbing up a wall. The spider fell ff the wall halfway. But it kept climbing again and fell ff again. Even s, the spider didn't give up. The little bird asked the spider in surprise.“Why dn't yu have pain but happiness n yur face thugh yu fail again and again? Because I keep making my effrts. I'm happy."said the spider.
Then the little bird saw it: happiness is a will in the heart.
The bird cntinued flying and saw a lame duck help a little duck wh gt lst t find the way back hme. Althugh it was disabled, it had a smiling face.“I'm happy because I can
help thers.”said the lame duck.
S the bird saw it: happiness is a lve in the heart.
The bird went n flying and suddenly saw a little dying flwer, whse face was full f smile.The bird didn't knw the reasn. S it asked the little flwer,“Yu're ging t die. Why are yu still s happy?”“Because my dream will cme true,”said the little flwer.“What
yur dream?”“T prduce sweet fruit.”
The little bird saw it:happiness is a hpe in the heart.
S the little bird n mre lked fr happiness because it had seen the truth: happiness is nt in the faraway(遥远的) place but in yur wn heart. Yu are the maker f yur wn
happiness.
41. Wh never stpped trying althugh it failed again and again in this passage?
A. The bird. B. The duck. C. The flwer. D. The spider.
42. Why is the little dying flwer still s happy?
A. Because it has a will in the heart. B. Because it has a lve in the heart.
C. Because it has a hpe in the heart. D. Because it has a stry in the heart.
43. What can we knw frm the stry?
A. The bird finally fund happiness in its wn heart.
B. The bird fund happiness in the faraway place.
C. The bird didn't knw where happiness was at last.
D. The bird will still lk fr happiness in the future.
44. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. We make happiness by urselves.
B. Happiness is imprtant fr everyne.
C. Peple knw hw t find happiness.
D. Happiness is just in yur wn heart.
45. What is the best title f the passage?
A. Happiness Is Imprtant B. What Makes Peple Happy
C. The Truth f Life D. An Unhappy Bird
三、短文还原(共10分,每题2分)
阅读短文,从所给的六个句子中选择五个还原到短文中,使短文通顺完整、衔接自然。
We see many things like clrs, lights, buildings with ur eyes. But can yu prtect (保护)yur eyes well? 46
Let eyes have a gd rest. Many peple need t lk at a cmputer when they wrk r study.That puts a lt f pressure(压力) n their eyes. S every 20 minutes, yu shuld let yur eyes have a gd rest fr arund 20 secnds 47
Wear a sun ha t r sunglasses. There are sme bad rays frm the sun. They can be bad fr eyes,s it's best t get in the habit f prtecting them frm an early age 48
Have eye-friendly fd. Yu can als prtect yur eyes by eating sme eye-friendly fd.49.
Have a gd sleep 50 Yu may think yu are ding nthing when yu're sleeping
But it's the time fr yur bdy t rebuild and repair (重建和修复) . At night, yur eyes keep cleaning ut the bad things that cme in during the day.
A. Green vegetables and fish are gd t keep yur eyes healthy.
B. Wearing a sun hat r sunglasses is the best way t prtect yur eyes.
C. Here are sme ways abut hw t prtect yur eyes.
D. Yu shuld have a gd sleep at night.
E. Yu shuld lk ut f the windw when yu have a rest.
F. S start exercising befre it's t late.
四、综合填空(共20 空, 每空1.5分, 计30分)
A
阅读短文,从每个方框中的11个词汇中选择10个意义相符的词汇,必要时进行词形变化,填入空白处。
We shuld brush ur teeth every day. Sme peple nly brush the teeth nce a day, but I think it's better t brush ur teeth at 51 twice a day The first time we shuld begin after we get up in the mrning and the 52 time we shuld start befre ging t bed in the evening
Brushing ur teeth regularly(有规律地) is 53 imprtant fr us because it can help keep ur teeth away frm disease. Let me tell yu sme ther reasns why we shuld brush ur teeth ften.
First, brushing teeth helps clear dirty things frm ur teeth 54 we eat, small pieces f fd can stay between ur teeth fr lng. This may cause a tthache. By
brushing ur teeth after 55 , we can keep ur teeth clean and 56
Secnd, regular brushing can help prevent bad breath(口气) 57 brushing ur
teeth,we can keep ur breath fresh and clean.
Third, brushing teeth ften can help take gd 58 f ur teeth and muth
What's mre, it can lwer the 59 f virus(病毒) cming int ur 60
In a wrd, we shuld have the gd habit f brushing ur teeth every day.
B
阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容,从下面方框内所给11个动词中选择10个意义相符的词,必要时进行词形变化(可添加助动词或者情态动词),填入空白处。
hear water(v.) d knw cme watch eat tell happen play understand
It was Sunday mrning Peter,a seven year ld by61 TV in the rm while his
brther was ding his hmewrk Their father 62 the flwers in the garden and
their mther went shpping.
.
At ten, their mther 63 back with a heavy basket Peter ran up t her He wanted 64 what his mther bught He fund a bag f ranges in it He liked them very much and
wanted t eat them. His mther stpped him. She gave five t each s n and went t the
kitchen.
Peter at e up his ranges but his brther was busy 65 his hmewrk and didn't cat them. Suddenly the telephne rang and his brther Bill ran t answer it. Bill's friend asked him 66 ftball with them And when Bill talked with his friend, Peter tk tw ranges away and 67 them Bill fund it, called Peter ut and beat him behind the huse He didn't 68 his parents abut it
The next mrning. Miss Ball taught the students subtractin (减法). She asked Peter a
questin Peter didn't listen t the lessn carefully and culdn't 69 it Miss Ball began t give him an example,“If yur brther has five ranges and yu take tw away frm
him, what 70 ?”Peter thught fr a mment and said,“I'll be beaten ”
All his classmates began t laugh.
五、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分) 阅读短文,回答下面的问题。
阅读短文,根据题目要求完成各小题。
It is a cld evening in the middle f winter. But Harry's
huse is warm. He reads a bk in the rm. The bk is abut a Chinese dctr and his inventin (发明) .
The dctr was called Zhang Zhngjing. It was very
cld in his city. The peple culd nt stay warm. Zhang saw
many pr peple.(A) He wanted t make smething warm
fr them t eat He cked muttn and vegetables Then he
put the muttn and vegetables inside the small dugh (面团) ears. He put them in the sup and
cked them. In this way Zhang invented dumplings! The winter slstice came. It is the shrtest
day f the year. It has the lngest, cldest night. Zhang gave the dumplings t the peple in the
twn. They at e the dumplings and felt warm. Peple thanked Zhang.
After Harry reads the stry, he tries t make Zhang's muttn dumplings. But unluckily when he cks them, all the dumplings break.(B) They taste bad. Harry is sad. It is the winter slstice.His parents will be hme sn. He wants his parents t eat dumplings n this day. Harry lks arund. He finds a bag f muttn dumplings in the freezer(冰箱). He cks them quickly. Harry's parents cme hme. They eat the dumplings tgether with Harry. They lve the dumplings. Harry tells his parents abut the bad dumplings. His mm laughs, “It's OK. We are all tgether, and we have ht dumplings. It's a great winter slstice, isn't it? thank yu!”
71 将文中(A)处划线句子 He wanted t make smething warm fr them t cat 译成汉语。
72.将下列图片按照文中内容的先后顺序排序,并将其字母代号填到答题卡的相应位置。
73. 请从文中找出(B)处划线单词“They”指代内容:
74. 根据文章内容填空。每空一词。
After abut Zhang Zhngjing and his inventin, Harry decides t make dumplings fr his parents n winter slstice The dumplings are nt as as he thinks, s he finally cks a bag f dumplings frm the freezer. He tells his parents abut the bad dumplings,
but his parents still thank him.
75. What d yu think f Zhang Zhngjing? Why?
六、书面表达。(20分)
我们的家乡德州,历史悠久,人杰地灵,是山东省著名的文化古城,更是一座充满活力、宜居宜业的生态文明之城,有着众多的旅游景点和美食文化。作为一名中学生请你为德州代言,向来自世界各地的游客做推介。根据所给思维导图,完成写作任务。
写作要求:
1.包含思维导图中所有信息点,并做适当拓展(如传统文化、交通方式、注意事项等),使行文连贯;
2. 语篇完整,语句通顺,语法正确,书写规范;
3. 不得使用真实姓名和校名;
4. 80词左右。短文开头已经给出, 不计入总词数。
Welcme t my hmetwn---Dezhu
Hell, everyne! Welcme t my hmetwn---Dezhu. Let me intrduce the beautiful city t yu
Infrmatin abut a pp cncert
Hw lng the band will stay
fr 21. days
The place t hld the cncert
in the 22. Music Hall
The place t sell tickets
in the bx 23. f the Music Hall
Telephne number
65425209
The price f the tickets
300 yuan fr an adult and 24. yuan fr a kid
Rules
Dn't 25.
r take yur pets int the hall.
2023-2024学年第一学期末八年级教学质量检测
英语试题参考答案和评分标准
一、听力测试(共25小题,1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分,总计30分)
1-5. ABBCB 6-8. BCA 9-13. ACACC 14-17. AABB 18-20. BAC
21. 7/seven 22. Shanghai 23. ffice 24. 200 25. smke
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2.5分,计50分)
26-30. ACDAB 31-35. ADBBB 36-40. BADCA 41-45. DCACB
评分说明:
1、1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分;与答案不符不得分。
2、26-45题,每小题2.5分;与答案不符,不得分。
三、短文还原(共5空,每小题2分,计10分)
46-50. CEBAD
评分说明
1. 本题共5分,每空2分;
2. 与答案不符,不得分。
四、综合填空(共20空,每空1.5分,计30分)
51.least 52.secnd 53.really 54.After 55.meals 56.healthy
57.By 58.care 59.risk 60.bdies
61. was watching 62. was watering 63. came 64. t knw 65. ding
66. t play 67. ate 68. tell 69. understand 70. will happen
评分说明
1、本题共10分,每空1.5分;
2、与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
五、阅读表达 (共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
71. 他想做点暖和的东西给他们吃。
72. ABDC
73. The dumplings
74. reading delicius
75.I think he is a kindhearted man. Because he always helped the pr.
评分说明
1. 本题共10分,每小题2分;
2. 虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。
六、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
Welcme t my hmetwn---Dezhu
Hell,everyne! Welcme t my hmetwn---Dezhu . Let me intrduce the beautiful city t yu . It’s a city in the nrthwest f Shandng Prvince and has a ppulatin f 5.79 millin. Dezhu has a lng histry f thusands f years.The weather here is ht in summer and cld in winter, I think the best time t visit Dezhu is in spring r autumn because it is very bright and cmfrtable. Dn’t frget t take yur camera because it’s s beautiful here.
There are many famus places t visit, like Dngzi cultural street, China’s sun valley. And it als has many lcal delicius fd,the mst famus is Dezhu braised chicken. Besides, Dezhu is famus fr sme Peple such as Dngfang Su and Dng Zhngshu. They really played imprtant rles in Chinese histry.
The transprtatin is very cnvenient. Yu can g everywhere by car, by bike r by bus.
These years, great changes have taken place in Dezhu. It is ttally different frm what it used t be. Fr example, its streets are much wider and cleaner than befre. The buildings in it are a lt higher, t. What’s mre, peple are becming richer and richer. Our life imprves a lt.
My hmetwn is becming mre and mre beautiful and peple here are friendly and hspitable t all visitrs. I believe yu will fall in lve with ur city and have an unfrgettable trip here.
Welcme t Dezhu! I will take yu arund ur city.
I’m lking frward t meeting yu.
评分说明
要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语,完整准确地表达所提示的内容,并对开放性内容进行适当发挥,书写工整,分五档评分:
1.(18~20分)很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点,结构完整,语句通畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,书写规范。
2.(14~17分)较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,书写较为规范。
3.(10~13分)基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,书写基本规范。
4.(6~9分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,书写欠规范。
5.(0~5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或者意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
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