2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市武昌区武珞路中学七年级（下）期中英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市武昌区武珞路中学七年级（下）期中英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，完形填空，阅读理解，词语短语填空，适当形式填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

(考试时间为120分钟、满分为120分)
命题人： 审核人：
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共80分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面4个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、 B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Sunds gd. B. Nt bad. C. It’s bring.
2. A. At 10: 30 p. m. B. Every Sunday. C. In May.
3. A. 5 minutes. B. It’s 15 meters lng. C. Abut 10 kilmeters.
4. A. Yes, I can. B. I can play the guitar. C. N, I dn’t.
第二节 (共 8 小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面8段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Where can the students have lunch?
A. At a restaurant. B. Outside the schl. C. In the dining hall.
6. What time des the mvie begin
A. At 7: 00. B. At 7: 15. C. At 7: 30.
7. Hw des Alice get t schl tday?
A. On the schl bus. B. By bike. C. By subway.
8. Why is Peter tired?
A. He practiced the pian. B. He went t bed late. C. He didn’t sleep well.
9. Where are the tw speakers prbably?
A. At a fruit shp. B. At the z. C. In a hspital.
10. What will the tw speakers prbably d next?
A. Take a walk. B. Eat ut. C. G shpping.
11. Which flag are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. B. C.
12. What can be inferred (推断) abut the man?
A. He frgets things easily. B. He is lazy. C. He has a big family.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题一分，满分 13 分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. Hw’s the weather in Thailand?
A. Sunny and cl. B. Ht and sunny. C. Warm and rainy.
14. Hw will they g t Chiang Mai?
A. By train. B. By bat. C. We dn’t knw.
15. Where are the tw speakers talking?
A. In Thailand. B. On the phne. C. In a bat.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. Which student can help at the Students’ Sprts Center?
A. Li Ming --plays the pian well. B. Jessica--free frm Mnday t Friday. C. Brad--gd at English.
17. What is Julir gd at?
A. Getting n (相处) with ld peple. B. Telling stnes abut the past. C. Playing the vilin.
18. Wh will help at the ld peple’s hme?
A. Julie. B. Bb. C. Julie and Bb.
听下面一段对话，回答 19 至 22 四个小题。
19. Hw many kinds f transprtatin (交通) are mentined?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
20 Hw lng will the by take English lessns?
A. Fr half a year. B. Fr three mnths C. Fr abut fur mnths.
21. Hw des the girl like studying in New Yrk?
A. Fun and wnderful. B. Busy and exciting. C. Fun but tiring.
22. What des the by have t d in the hst family?
A. Wash the dishes. B. Bring friends hme. C. Cme hme early.
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. Why d the students need t wear swimming suits?
A. T lk smart. B. T swim faster. C. T keep the water clean.
24. What time des the club activity finish?
A. At 3: 30. B. At 4: 30. C. At 5: 00.
25. Which is true abut the club?
A. Kids must d warm-up exercises after they swim.
B. The club meets every week.
C. The cach will be swimming with the kids m the pl.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，将代表该答案的字母在答题卡相应的位置涂黑。
26. Which f the fllwing wrds stresses (重读) the secnd syllable?
A. kala B. beautiful C. Canada D. vilin
27. —Lk at the dark cluds! Is it ging t rain?
— ____________. The radi says that we’re in the rainy seasn nw.
A. That’s all right B. Nt much C. I see D. I’m afraid s
28. —English is really fun!
— ____________. It pens up a different wrld fr me and trains my way f thinking.
A. Here yu are B. That’s fr sure C. I dn’t knw D. Excuse me
29. —Cindy, thanks fr yur map and sleeping bag.
— ____________. Have fun walking in the muntains.
A. Never mind B. N prblem C. I’d lve t D. Yu’re right
30. Happiness is abut making each tiny ____________ cme true thrugh hard wrk.
A. trip B. thing C. wish D. feeling
31. —Will Rick cme here t help fix the cmputer?
—I think he will. He is always ____________ t his wrd.
A. gd B. afraid C. true D. hard
32. —A clse game, isn’t it?
—Yeah. Bth teams put n a gd ____________, s it’s difficult t say wh is winning right until the end.
A. practice B. dream C. rule D. shw
33. Sme kids start ding hmewrk right after they get hme, but many ____________ chse t watch shrt vides r play games first.
A. thers B. the thers C. ther D. the ther
34. —Lk at my new headphne! It csts me 500 dllars.
—Maybe yu shuld ____________ mney fr a rainy day.
A. spend B. save C. take D. pay
35. —I lst my jb last week.
—Why nt try yur ____________ at Eleme? Drivers are badly needed there.
A. wrk B. car C. fight D. luck
36. It’s best t keep away frm a dg even if (即使) it lks ____________, especially when the wner isn’t arund.
A. quickly B. safely C. friendly D. happily
37. —Must I park my car behind the building?
—N, yu ____________. Yu ____________ park it here.
A. mustn’t; need B. dn’t have t; mayC. may nt; must D. needn’t; must
38. —I studied all night but I’m still wrried (担心) abut the cming test.
—Take it easy. Yu’re ____________ yurself t hard.
A. wrking B. keeping C. driving D. racing
39. —May I have a cat at hme, Daddy?
—Yes, yu can. But yu’d better knw hw t ____________ it.
A. lk at B. lk fr C. lk arund D. lk after
40. The famus saying “It’s better t see fr yurself rather than (而不是) t hear many times.” tells us ____________.
A. what we shuld see and hear B. where we can learn things
C. hw imprtant it is t learn frm practice D. why we learn things
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题一分，满分 15 分)
阅读下面2篇短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D这个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Is Zhu Hui als watching the races and eating zngzi? Well, it’s 9: 00 p. m. in New Yrk, and it’s the night befre the festival. But there isn’t 41 Dragn Bat Festival in the US, 42 it’s like any ther night fr Zhu Hui and his hst family. The mther is reading a stry 43 her yung children. The father is watching a sccer game n TV. And what’s Zhu Hui ding? He is 44 n the phne t his cusin in Shenzhen. He misses his family and 46 t have his mm’s delicius zngzi. Zhu Hui likes New Yrk and his hst family a lt, but there is still “n place like hme”.
41. A. the B. a C. an D. sme
42. A. s B. but C. r D. because
43. A. fr B. t C. f D. at
44. A. taking B. telling C. saying D. talking
45. A. likes B. thinks C. wishes D. remembers
B
Mms are mms. When yu are grwing up, yu dn’t always knw 46 they d fr yu. And smetimes they d things that yu remember all yur life.
My mm was like that. When I was six years ld, ne f my frnt teeth was very lse (松动的). When I tuched it, I culd wiggle it back and frth. I was 47 . I didn’t knw what was ging n, s l asked Mm t lk at it.
Mm said, “In the 48 few years, all f yur teeth will fall ut (脱落).”
“I’ll lse all f my teeth?” I cried. “Hw will I 49 ?”
Mm laughed. “Dn’t wrry,” she said. “Each f us gets tw 50 f teeth. Yur baby teeth fall ut just t make a place fr yur permanent teeth (恒牙) t cme in.”
51 , I was wrried. “It will hurt (疼) s much,” I said.
Mm said that she culd help me. She asked me t sit in a chair and clse my eyes.
Mm reached int my muth and tk hld f (抓住) the lse tth. “ 52 smething funny. I will just check (检查) this tth.” she said.
Then, Mm said, “Open yur 53 .” D yu knw what? She was hlding the tth in her hand. I culd nt believe it. While she was talking, she pulled (拔) the tth ut and I did nt 54 a thing!
That’s just the 55 it is with mms. They knw what t d and hw t make it nt hurt.
46 A. hw B. hw much C. why D. when
47. A. scary B. relaxed C. scared D. interested
48. A. last B. past C. rest D. next
49. A. eat B. drink C. say D. sing
50. A. kinds B. halves C. clubs D. sets
51. A. Als B. Still C. S D. Then
52. A. Wrk ut B. Call at C. Think abut D. Leave fr
53. A. muth B. tth C. eyes D. arms
54. A. hear B. see C. miss D. feel
55 A. way B. time C. rule D. wrk
四、阅读理解 (共15 小题，从每小题 2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
56. In which SECTION f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. ANIMALS B. SCIENCE C. WORLD D. ENVIRONMENT
57. Human hair ____________.
A. can be made int clthes B. saves the envirnment
C. is bad fr the Earth D. all ges t the landfills
58. The best heading fr the secnd piece f news wuld be ____________.
A. Dangerus cean trash B. Terrible “hme” fr crabs
C. Trash brings danger t crabs D. Crabs are in danger
59. What is the girl in Picture 3 prbably ding?
A. cutting her hair shrt B. making a sweater ut f trash
C. wearing a sweater made f hair D. wrking at a Dutch cmpany
60. Which f the fllwing may NOT make it harder fr animals t survive (生存)?
A. Their hmes becme t crwded. B. Mre kinds f animals live with them.
C. Predatrs can find them mre easilyD. They have n fd t eat.
B
After serving in the army fr a few years, Zhang Yu jined the SF Express in Wuhan in 2019 and became a deliveryman (快递员) . Since then, he has wrked hard every day and always tries t help thers. When Zhang sends packages t peple, he ften takes nte f their daily habits. He knws which huses have babies, and when clerks are free.
But what made him famus was his brave act. He wn the China Yuth May Furth Medal in 2022 because f it.
In December 2021, Zhang saw a fire while he was delivering packages. He climbed up t the secnd flr f a building and saved a family frm a balcny (阳台) n the third flr. He brught each persn dwn safely.
Peple have since called him a her (英雄). Hwever, Zhang simply said, “I’m just an rdinary man wh did what a kind man wuld d.”
Zhang Yu is nw a deputy (代表) t the Hubei Prvincial Peple’s Cngress-He-wants t speak fr his cwrkers t imprve things fr them. Zhang is wrking t make electric scters (电动车) safer n the rads in Wuhan. This is imprtant because there are a lt f electric scters and smetimes they cause traffic prblems. He wants t help prtect the riders.
61. Frm paragraphs I and 2: 4t’s clear that Zhang Yu ____________.
A. jined the army in 2019B. became famus fr his hard wrk
C. is a careful and helpful deliverymanD. is gd with babies and ffice wrkers
62. The underlined wrd “imprve” in paragraph 5 means ____________.
A. 创造 B. 改善 C. 解除 D. 呼吁
63. Which f the fllwing facts may be fund in Zhang’s nte.
①which huses have ld peple ②where the huse wners wrk
③hw the children get t schl ④when clerks start t wrk
A. ①③ B. ②③ C. ①④ D. ②④
64. What is this passage?
A. A news stry abut a deliveryman.
B. An ad f the SF Express in Wuhan.
C. A ntice n the website f Hubei Prvincial Peple’s Cngress
D. A letter frm a deliveryman t his cwrkers
65. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. Electric Scters -- Rad KillersB. Deliverymen Make a Difference
C. Winners f the China Yuth May Furth Medals D. An Ordinary Her
C
Nw in China many restaurants are knwn fr their pets rather than fd. In these pet-themed restaurants, peple can play with cats, dgs, ducks, rabbits r ther animals while eating r having drinks. With s many pet lvers tday, it isn’t surprising that such restaurants are nw everywhere in Chinese cities. ★ .
In mst f the pet-themed restaurants, many cats r dgs are allwed t walk freely in their living areas and even in the dining space. Even wrse, animal hairs are everywhere, and there’s ften bad smell in the restaurants. In ne f the dg-themed restaurants, the dgs fight, jump nt the dining table r even pp in the dining area.
In Octber, there was a hearing (听证会) abut the fd safety f the pet-themed restaurants in Guangzhu. Sme peple at the meeting talked abut their cncerns. They thught the animals in the pet-themed restaurants might carry parasites (寄生虫) and spread (传播) diseases, which wer bad fr peple. Besides, althugh the animals are kept by the restaurants as pets, they may attack (袭击) peple.
As mre pets are entering Chinese families, they have becme an imprtant part f peple’s daily lives. The grwing pet-themed restaurants have made peple’s lives interesting and clrful. Hwever, withut rules and regulatins, the restaurants can’t be gd chices fr peple.
66. Paragraph 2 talks abut ____________.
A. the activities f the pet-themed restaurants
B. the prblems f the pet-themed restaurants.
C. the dining space in the pet-themed restaurants.
D. the kinds f animals in the pet-themed restaurants.
67. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ .
A. Hwever, is it safe t enjy fd in such an envirnment?
B. That’s why the restaurant wners make a lt f mney.
C. Animals in these restaurants are relaxed and free.
D. They serve delicius fd.
68. The underlined wrd “thev” prbably refers t ____________.
A. Chinese families B. pet-themed restaurantsC. pets D. peple
69. Accrding t Paragraph 3 animals in pet-themed restaurants
A. eat dirty fd B. are in pr health
C. may give diseases t peple D. like attacking peple
70. What is the writer’s attitude (态度) twards the pet-themed restaurants?
A. Peple need them t help keep pets.
B. They shuld be clsed as sn as pssible.
C. Peple can chse any f them as they like.
D. Rules and regulatins shuld be made fr them.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共35分)
五、词语短语填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有 2个单词或短语是多余的。)
welcme / jin / fun / cme true / stp / take pictures / but
A man was sitting n an elephant in the sea at Kh Chang island in Thailand n Feb 24. He was having ____________ (71), while the elephant was having a bath. In the past, many peple rde elephants fr fun, ____________ (72) nw they knw it can make elephants sad. That’s why sme peple ____________ (73) riding them They chse (选择) t just wash elephants and ____________ (74) with them. This change is making elephant-washing places ____________ (75) in Thailand. There are nw three times mre places like this tian there were five years ag.
六、适当形式填空 (共5小题，从每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面句子，用括号中单词的适当形式填空，使句子在结构、语义和逻辑上正确。
76. Yu nse is ____________ (rum), Jack. D yu have a cld?
77. I gt ____________ (lse) n my way here and had t ask the plice fr help.
78. Jenny’s mther is ne f the greatest ____________ (music) in Eurpe.
79. It’s nly five ____________ (minute) wan. frm his hme t schl, but he’s always late fr class.
80. I frgt it was a hliday and gt up at 6: 00 am. as ____________ (usually).
七、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Baduanjin, a frm f Qigng, has a histry f ver 800 years. Originating frm the Sng Dynasty (960-1276) , Baduanjin is ne f the ldest health and fitness (健身) ____________ (81) (exercise) in China.
Cmpared t (相较于) sprts like ball games r swimming, Baduanjin is slw and usually played with sft music, s it’s ften seen as a gd way fr the ld peple ____________ (82) (relax), but yung peple are nw als ____________ (83) (get) interested in it. Mre than 1, 000 vides abut Baduanjin can be ____________ (84) (find) n Bilibili, and ne f the teaching vides is played fr mre than 10 millin times.
But ____________ (85) des Baduanjin becme s ppular? In fact, it’s a perfect sprt fr ffice ____________ (86) (wrk) and students, as they ften sit at the desk. It helps kill ____________ (87) (they) neck and back pain (疼痛) after lng wrking hurs and it desn’t need much effrt (努力), time ____________ (88) space. “I d Baduanjin ____________ (89) abut half an hur every day.” A yung man said, “It gives me a healthy lifestyle and ____________ (90) help) me sleep better and get strnger.” Chinese traditinal fitness is mre and mre ppular amng yung peple arund the wrld.
八、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
假如你是李华，你发布了一条和朋友正在武汉度假的朋友图。你的英国朋友Dave看到后很感兴趣，想简单了解一下你度假的情况。请你根据以下提示信息给它写一封部件。
Hw’s the weather here?
What are yu and yur friends ding?
What d yu think f yur vacatin in Wuhan?
Smething mre abut it.
注意，文中不得透露个人真实信息， 80词左右。开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Dave,
Hw’s everything ging? My friends and I are n a vacatin in Wuhan. _____________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
See yu then.
Yus
Li Hua
武珞路2023-2024学年度下学期期中测试
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (共25小题，每小题1分，满分25分)
1-5 BACBC 6-10 AACBC 11-15 BABAB 16-20 CACBC 21-25 ACBCB
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
26-30 ADBBC 31-35 CDABD 36-40 CBCDC
三、完形填空 (本题共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
41-45 BABDC 46-50 BCDAD 51-55 BCCDA
四、阅读理解 (本题共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
56-60 DABCB 61-65 CBCAD 66-70 BACCD
五、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题，每小题2分，本题共10分)
71. fun 72. but 73. stp 74. take pictures 75. welcme
六、适当形式填空 (共5小题，从每小题1分，满分5分)
76. running 77. lst 78. musicians 79. minutes’ 80. usual
七、综合填空 (本题共10小题，每小题1分，本题共10分)
81. exercises 82. t relax 83. getting 84. fund 85. why
86. wrkers 87. their 88. r 89. fr 90. helps
Caring abut fish
A three-minute film made by Andrew Older, a 13-year-ld student frm the US, recently wn an award at the One Earth Yung Filmmakers Asian Cntest. He used maps t shw hw invasive (入侵的) gby fish came t the lcal river and hw they are making the water t crwded (拥挤的) fr ther fish “Thrugh this film festival, I hpe t share my wrry fr fish. I als want t learn mre abut hw it affects the envirnment (环境).” he tld the lcal newspaper.
______________________
Peple thrw trash (垃圾) n the beach and even int the cean. The trash has becme the “hme” f hermit crabs (寄居蟹). These “trash shells” can bring danger t hermit crabs. It usually has bright clrs, s predatrs (捕食者) can find hermit crabs mre easily. The crabs culd als find it difficult t get ut f the bttles r the tires and starve t death (饿死).
Wuld yu wear yur hair?
Peple wear wl sweaters in winter. But did yu ever think f making a sweater with yur wn hair? A Dutch cmpany did it. It als makes cats and ther clthing with human hair. The cmpany makes these clthes t save the envirnment. Accrding t the cmpany, Eurpean landfills (垃圾填埋场) receive 72 millin kilgrams f human hair waste every year. Making it int clthes is mre friendly t ur Earth.