2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市江岸区七年级（下）期中英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市江岸区七年级（下）期中英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，单项选择，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合短文填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第Ⅰ 卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共 4 小题，每小题1分，满分4分)
听下面 4 个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间米作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Yes. I can. B. N. he isn’t. C. Dance.
2. A. I like ranges. B. Pandas. C. China.
3. A. On ft. B. Half an hur. C. Furteen kilmeters.
4. A. Half an hur. B. 8 kilmeters. C. 15 yuan.
第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分)
听下面 8 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. What des the wman’s sn like?
A. Playing ftball. B. Ging swimming. C. Playing basketball.
6. What d kalas d at night?
A. Play and eat. B. Sleep C. Eat bamb.
7. Hw lng des it usually take Elsa t g t schl?
A. Abut twenty minutes. B. Abut frty minutes. C. Abut half an hur.
8. What is Lucy ding nw?
A. Ding her hmewrk. B. Writing a letter. C. Reading a bk.
9. What des Tm’s dad usually d after dinner?
A. He des husewrk. B. He drinks ten. C. He watches TV.
10. Wh is using the bike nw?
A. Sally. B. Lily. C. Rick.
11. Where arc they talking?
A. In the car. B. At schl. C. On the phne.
12. What might Betty d next?
A. B. C.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话回答 13 至 15三个小题。
13. What des Lucy’s brther want t be?
A. A student. B. A musician. C. A teacher.
14. Hw lng des Lucy’s brther sing every day?
A. Fr tw hurs. B. Fr three hurs. C. Fr fur hurs.
15. Hw many music lessns des Lucy’s brther have every week?
A. Abut three. B. Abut tw. C. Abut five.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18三个小题。
16. What des Mary want t d?
A. Play the pian. B. G t the mvies. C. G t the park.
17. What rules des Ben have at hme?
A. D the dishes. B. Make dinner every day. C. D hmewrk first.
18. What isn’t Mary gd at?
A. cking. B. ding hmewrk. C. talking with friends nline.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
19. Where are the speakers nw?
A. In a z, B. On a bus. C. At the schl.
20. What are Maria’s favrite animals?
A. Elephants. B. Giraffes. C. Tigers.
21. What time is the animal shw?
A. At 9: 30. B. At 10: 00. C. At 10: 30.
22. What will the speakers d first?
A. Watch the animal shw. B. See the animals. C. Feed the animals.
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. What is Mrs. Brwn ding?
A. She is making apple pies. B. She is watering the flwers. C. She is watching a mvie.
24. Wh is playing with the lvely dg?
A. Jim. B. Bb. C. Sue.
25. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Mr. Brwn lves plants very much.
B. Bb has tw brthers and ne sister.
C. Sue desn’t like mvies at all.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、单项选择 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
25. —Can yu shw me hw t play the drums?
— ____________. Let’s meet in the music rm this afternn.
A. That’s all rightB. Yu’re welcme C. N prblem D. It’s my pleasure
27. —What are yu ding?
— ____________. I am just washing my clthes.
A. Nt much B. I’d lve t C. See yu then D. Nt really
28. —2024 is “the Year f the Dragn” in China.
—Sure! Dragn is a ____________ (n) f gd luck in China.
A. symbl B. taste C. shw D. subject
29. —Excuse me, where is the restrm?
—There is ne n ____________ end f the hallway.
A. all B. bth C. either D. any
30. —Tu Yuyu ____________ her way t the tp f medical field.
—She is the real her in ur heart.
A. drives B. misses C. saves D. fights
31. —Yu are s great t get the first place in the singing cmpetitin.
—Thank yu. but I want t give parents a surprise. s please keep ____________ abut it first.
A. clean B. quiet C. relaxed D. nisy
32. —What is wrng, Tny? Water is ____________ all ver.
—Oh, Mm! I’m just washing my shes.
A. driving B. brushing C. running D. jining
33. —Hw can we save water arund the hme?
—I think it is a gd way t ____________ shwer time by a minute r tw.
A. take dwn B. cut dwn C. bring dwn D. lk dwn
34. —Lily, can yu play the guitar in the music festival?
—I’m ut f ____________ n it, but I must try my best.
A. wrk B. habit C. practice D. life
35. The idim (成语) “Lve me, Lve my dg” tells us ____________.
A. what animal d yu likeB. what animal peple shuld lve
C. if my dg lves me, I will lve itD. if yu lve smene, yu will lve his things
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中、选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A yung American dctr is sleeping when suddenly his drbell begins t ring. It is already midnight. _ 36 what can the dctr d? He has t 37 put n his cat and g dwnstairs. When he pens the dr, he sees a man standing with his hat in his! 38 ,
“Hw d yu d, dctr?” says the man!
“Can yu: cme at nce t a 39 ut f twn? It’s quite 40 but yu have a car and I can 41 yu the way.”
“Certainly,” says the dctr, “I’m quite 42 . I can cme at nce.”
In a few minutes the car 43 at the frnt dr, and the man, gets n the dctr’s car. They drive n fr a lng time, then the man says, “ 44 we, are. This is my hme. Nw I can 45 yu and yu can g back t twn.”
“But I must 46 the patient (病人),” the dctr says, “Hw can I g back 47 the patient? Where is the patient?”
“There is n patient,” answers the man, “ 48 is ill. I live here. Yu see, ne must g hme frm a twn, mustn’t he? There are n taxis at this time f the night, but a dctr ften makes night calls, s 49 me. Here is yur mney. Thank yu. dctr. Gd 50 .”
36. A. S B. Or C. But D. Because
37. A. get up B. get ff C. find ut D. lk up
38. A. head B. hand C. face D. leg
39. A. rm B. city C. place D. village
40. A. near B. clse C. away D. far
41. A. find B. shw C. take D. miss
42. A. funny B. sleepy C. ready D. busy
43. A. is standing B. is wrking C. is driving D. is running
44. A. That B. Thse C. Here D. These
45. A. pay B. take C. spend D. cst
46. A. hear B. listen C. see D. lk
47. A. with B. withut C. t D. fr
48. A. Smebdy B. Everybdy C. Nbdy D. Nthing
49. A. excuse B. crss C. fight D. feel
50. A. day B. mrning C. evening D. night
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列三篇材料，从每题所给的 A、BIC和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51. In which sectin f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. ART B. SPORTS C. MUSIC D. SCIENCE
52. It’s clear that ____________.
A. wmen play an imprtant part in the lin dance in histry
B. girls are ding better than bys in the lin dance
C. all the yung girls can jin the lin dance team
D. an all-girl lin dance team breaks a “men nly” traditin
53. Heric dance has the clsest meaning t ____________.
A. 狮舞 B. 龙舞 C. 剑舞 D. 英歌舞
54. Hw can players play shadw puppet play?
①Stand in frnt f the screen ②Hld the puppets clse t the screen
③Wear a makeup ④Mve the puppets arund with vices
⑤Stand behind the screen ⑥Hld shrt sticks
A. ①②④ B. ⑤②④ C. ③⑤④ D. ⑥②①
55. Thrugh all the news abve, the writers might want t shw ____________.
A. sme traditin Chinese cultures are still aliveB. the life f peple in Guangdng is clrful
C. players need t d kung fu and play instrumentsD. mre and mre peple are interested in dance
B
At Beijing Freign Studies University (BFSU), students can use their phnes t find schl cats. Students f the university (大学) make a WeChat mini-prgram-Beiwai Cats. On it, every cat in the university has an “ID card”. The cards shw the cats’ phts and als have stries abut them. Cat lvers can als adpt schl cats n the mini-prgram.
Zhu Hengxia, 20, helps make the mini-prgram. He is a member f the BFSU Lve Cats Grup. He says it is gd fr bth the students and the cats.
With the “ID cards”, students can learn mre abut the cats. S they are less likely t get scratched (被抓伤) and the cats are less likely t get hurt (受伤).
The grup is als active n the Internet. “We want t use cats t share (分享) the culture f ur university. When we make mney frm these platfrms, we will use it t feed the cats and help with their illnesses. We dn’t have much mney, but we want t d ur best t give every small life a hme.” Zhu says.
56. Students make Beiwai Cats prgram t ____________.
A. feed street cats B. learn mre abut pet cats
C. find the lst cats D. help the cats in the university
57. The underlined wrd “adpt” prbably means ____________.
A. give a name t B. take…hme C. play with D. take phts f
58. With the help f mini-prgram, a cat lver can ____________.
A. shw phts f catsB. keep himself and cats safer
C. be a member f the BFSUD. have an “ID card”
59. The grup is als active n the Internet because they hpe t ____________.
A. save cats in danger B. make big mney
C. shw ff their schl D. better care fr the cats
60. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Giving cats sweet hmes B. Making a mini-prgram.
C. Sharing the culture D. Giving a hand t BFSU
C
“I dn’t like my parents. They always tell me I shuld d this, and shuld nt d that.” says Zhang Hua, a middle schl student in Guangzhu. D yu have the same prblem? Why d children think parents are unfriendly?
One f the biggest things is that when smene is a parent, he r she likes wrrying things. They wrry abut everything abut yu frm the time yu were brn. They wrry abut the friends yu make, the fd yu eat, hw much sleep yu get. All these things are parts f yur life. They want yu t grw up healthily and happily.
★ It’s easier than yu think. Just make sure yur parents knw what yu’re ding. Call them when yu have t stay smewhere else late. Take respnsibility (责任) fr what yu have dne. Talk abut yur ideas with them.
Mst f all, try t think abut why yur parents d this r d that. They are still practicing being parents and need yur help.
61. At the beginning f the passage, the writer uses Zhang Hua’s wrds t ____________.
A. find the answers B. surprise the readers
C. shw the writer’s idea D. lead t the tpic (主题)
62. Paragraph 2 mainly talks abut ____________.
A. what yur schl life is like B. hw t be kind t parents
C. why parents wrry abut yu D. hw much yu lve yur parents
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. Please think it ver.
B. Parents always nly think abut yu.
C. S what can yu d fr these prblems?
D. Hw can yu make yur parents care abut yu?
64. Accrding t the writer, if yu break the schl rules, yu shuld ____________.
A. ask parents fr help B. call friends t help yu
C. tell teachers the truth D. think abut it by yurself
55. What’s the article mainly abut?
A. Parents’ lve. B. Zhang Hua’s family rules.
C. Hw t be gd with parents. D. Hw t take respnsibility.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文、用方框中所给的单词填空，使短文在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词是多余的。
drive / make / in / at / fun / live / far
Hw d yu g t wrk? Sme peple g t wrk n ft because they _____________ (66) near their wrkplaces. Als, it’s gd fr their health. Sme peple g t wrk by bike because their hmes are a little _____________ (67) frm their wrkplaces, r they like riding bikes. It’s easy and ____________ (68) t ride bikes. Sme peple g t wrk by bus r by subway. Tday mre and mre peple have their wn cars! They can g t wrk _____________ (69) their cars, but smetimes there are many cars n the rad and they have t ____________ (70) very slwly. In the suth f China, sme peple even g t wrk by bat because water is arund their huses. Isn’t it interesting?
六、综合短文填空。 (共10小题，每小题一分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或者括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的形式或括号内单词的适当形式。
Rian Neves cmes frm’ Brazil: He lves Chinese histry and culture very much: He nw lives in Xi’ an. He is a vide blgger.
When he ____________ (71) (ne) came t China abut five years ag, he culdn’t speak Chinese. With the help f his friends, he can speak Chinese nw ____________ (72) knws mre abut Chinese culture. In Xi’ an, Rian sees many peple ____________ (73) (wear) traditinal Chinese clthes hanfu. He thinks they are beautiful and he is very interested in them.
Because f his lve fr hanfu. Rian makes vides and puts them _____________ (74) the Internet. In the vides, he ____________ (75) (dress) up in hanfu and puts n special makeup. These vides are special and ____________ (76) (interest) and bring him ver 16, 000 fllwers nline.
Thanks t Rian’s vides, a lt f peple frm ther ____________ (77) (cuntry) can knw mre abut China. At the same time, mre Chinese peple are interested in Brazil (巴西) and ____________ (78) culture.
Rian is a cmmn persn, but he _____________ (79) (d) smething unusual nw. By shwing the beauty f hanfu, he lets us ____________ (80) (knw) that culture brings us clser and that we learn frm each ther.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分20分)
学期过半，为了展现同学们的学习风采和校园生活，你校英文月刊最近正在开展以”My Schl Life”为主题的征文活动。请你根据以下内容提示写一篇征文。要点如下：
1. When and hw d yu get t schl?
2. What activities d yu have at schl?
3. D yu have any rules at schl? What are they?
4. Smething mre abut yur schl life.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数100词左右；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
My Schl Life
I’m Tny. a middle schl student.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
江岸区2022-2023学年度下学期期中考试
七年级 英语试题 参考答案
一、听力测试
1-5 ABAAC 6-10 ACBAB 11-15 CCBBB 16-20 BCAAB 21-25 CBABA
二、单选选择
26-30 CAACD 31-35 BCBCD
三、完型填空
36-40 CABCD 41-45 BCACA 46-50 CBCAD
四、阅读理解
51-55 ADDBA 56-60 DBBDA 61-65 DCCAC
五、词与短语填空
66. live 67. far 68. fun 69. in 70. drive
六、综合短文填空
71. first 72. and 73. wear/wearing 74. n 75. dresses
76. interesting 77. cuntries 78. its 79. is ding 80. knw
七、书面表达
My Schl Life
I’m Tny, a middle schl student. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my schl life. On schl days, I usually get t schl at 8: 00 a. m. I g there n ft. It’s gd exercise. At schl, there are fur classes in the mrning. We can’t arrive late fr schl. We must listen t the teachers carefully in class and finish hmewrk n time. All these rules help me t be a better student. In the afternn, I always practice playing sccer with my friends because I’m n the schl sccer team. I learn the imprtance f teamwrk. All in all, I live a busy but meaningful schl life.
七年级英语听力稿
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面 5 个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
Text 1. Can yu jin the dancing club?
Text 2. What animals d yu like best?
Text 3. Hw des Cindy g t schl?
Text 4. Hw lng des it take yu t get t schl?
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 Text 5.
M: Des yur sn like playing sprts?
W: Yes, he ften plays basketball. But he never plays ftball.
Text 6.
M: Kalas are very funny.
W: Yes, they sleep during the day, and they play and eat at night.
Text 7.
M: Elsa, why d yu get up s early every day?
W: Because it is far frm here. It usually takes me abut 30 minutes.
Text 8.
M: Lucy, are yu ding yur hmewrk?
W: N, I’m writing a letter t my friend, and later I want t read a bk.
Text 9.
W: My dad likes drinking a cup f tea after dinner. Tm, what abut yur dad?
M: My dad usually helps my mm d the dishes.
Text 10.
W: May I use yur bike?
M: I’m srry, Sally. Lily is using it nw.
Text 11.
M: This is Mike speaking. May I speak t Lisa?
W: Lisa speaking.
Text 12.
M: Betty, stp playing cmputer games. Finish hmewrk first.
W: Srry, dad. I will d it in a minute.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
Text 13听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
M: Lucy, is that yur brther?
W: Yes, it is.
M: What des he d?
W: He is a student. He wants t be a musician.
M: Oh, is he gd at singing?
W: Yes, he is. He sings fr three hurs every day.
M: Hw many music lessns des he have every week?
W: One n Mnday, and the ther n Wednesday.
Text14听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题
W: Hi, Ben. D yu want t g t the mvies tnight?
M: I’d lve t, Mary. But I can’t g ut n schl nights.
W: Really? D yu have many rules in yur family?
M: Yes, I can’t talk with my friends nline because I have t d my hmewrk first.
W: Oh, that’s t bad. What ther rules d yu have?
M: I must help my mum make dinner n Saturday evenings, althugh I’m nt gd at cking.
W: I’m nt gd at cking, either. But I ften d the dishes after dinner.
Text 15回答19至22三个小题
M: Hi, Maria! What animals d yu like?
W: I like giraffes best.
M: Really? I lve them, t. They are very cute. Let’s see giraffes first.
W: But I hear there’s an animal shw at 10: 30.
M: What time is it nw?
W: It’s 9: 30. Let’s g t see the animals first. Then we can watch the animal shw.
M: OK! Let’s g.
Text 16.
It is Saturday. The Brwns are at hme. Mrs. Brwn is in the kitchen. She’s making apple pies. The pies are very delicius. Children like them very much. Mr. Brwn isn’t in the living rm. He is in frnt f the huse. He is watering the flwers. There are a lt f plants in the garden. He lves them and lks after them very well. Jim is in the garden, t. He is playing ftball with his friends. Where is Jim’s sister, Sue? She’s in her bedrm with her classmate, Ann. They are watching mvies. Wh is the little by under the tree? It’s Jim’s brther, Bb. He is playing with the lvely dg.
The ‘lin’ ladies dance
The lin dance hlds a special place in the hearts f peple in Guangdng. In histry, it is a men’s art nly. Hwever, a wmen’s lin dance team changes the, traditin with an all, girl, team. Lin dance needs teamwrk. The team has ver 20 girls aged 7 t 19. Mre girls start t learn lin dance because f them.
Heric dance
Heric dance is a traditinal Chinese flk dance in Guangdng. We als call it “Sng f Heres.” It is a mix f dance, pera and kung fu. Dancers wear a makeup and hld shrt sticks in their hands. With the fast beating drums and the dancers’ cl mves, the dance rcks the streets and makes peple feel pwerful (有力的).
Shadw puppet play
Shadw puppet play is a traditinal Chinese art. During a shadw puppet play, the players stand behind a white screen with lights behind it. The audience sit in frnt f the screen. The players hld the puppets (木偶) very clse t the screen s the audience can see the puppets’ clearly. Then they mve the puppets arund and d the vices f different rles. Mre and mre yung peple are interested in this kind f traditinal art.