2024年福建省泉州市泉港区中考三模英语试题(含答案)

这是一份2024年福建省泉州市泉港区中考三模英语试题(含答案)，共13页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分30分）等内容，欢迎下载使用。

（满分：150分；考试时间：120分钟）
Ⅰ. 听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
6. When des Peter watch the cartns?
A. At abut 6:45.B. At abut 7:45.C. At abut 8:15.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
7. Where will they have dinner?
A. At hme.B. At schl.C. At a restaurant.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
8. Wh has brwn hair?
A. Steve’s mther.B. Steve’s father.C. Steve’s brther.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Wh can play the drums?
A. Bill.B. Lily.C. Frank.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10. What did they have fr supper yesterday?
A. Sandwiches.B. Ndles.C. Bread.
11. What may be the relatinship between the speakers?
A. Student and teacher.B. Husband and wife.C. Dctr and patient.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
12. Hw lng did it take Cathy t get t schl by bus?
A. Five minutes.B. Ten minutes.C. Fifteen minutes.
13. What did Cathy’s father prmise t buy her?
A. A bk.B. A bike.C. A mbile phne.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
14. Where des the wman want t g?
A. T a library.B. T a bkstre.C. T a supermarket.
15. Where is the pst ffice?
A. Behind the supermarket.
B. Next t the supermarket.
C. Acrss frm the supermarket.
第三节 听下面短文，根是你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
Ⅱ. 选择填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21. —Hw can I use the temperature measuring rbt?
—I think yu need t read the ________ first.
A. instructinB. cmpetitinC. attentin
22. —What place will yu suggest if I travel t yur hmetwn?
—The best-knwn Munt Qingyuan cmes ________ as the first chice.
A. hardlyB. naturallyC. strangely
23. Taba.cm is ne f ________ shpping websites all ver the wrld.
A. largeB. largerC. the largest
24. —The car can nt start. What can I d?
—Dn’t wrry. Tm and I ________ it a push
A. giveB. gaveC. will give
25. —There is ging t be a dragn bat race in my hmetwn.
—Sund interesting. I can’t wait t watch ________.
A. neB. itC. them
26. —Mum, may I have mre chclate?
—Yu’d better nt, ________ t much sweet fd is bad fr health.
A. whileB. althughC. because
27. —Excuse me. ________ will the package be delivered (投递) t my apartment.
—Srry, I’m nt sure fr that. It might be put ff.
A. Hw snB. Hw lngC. Hw far
28. Jhn is a by wh is always willing t ________ a helping hand t thers.
A. shakeB. lendC. find
29. With the rapid develpment f the science and technlgy, I ________ imagine what ur life will be like in ten years.
A. can’tB. mustn’tC. needn’t
30. —Playing in the nature is very imprtant fr children t ________.
—I quite agree.
A. give upB. grw upC. get up
31. —Shenzhu-18 carried three Chinese astrnauts int space successfully.
—Ww, ________ exciting news! We are s prud.
A. whatB. hwC. what an
32. —Richard, it seems that yu have knwn a lt abut Fujian.
—Of curse. I ________ in Fujian fr ten years
A. stayedB. will stayC. have stayed
33. —Hw can we g t the library this Sunday, by bike r n ft?
—________ is OK. It’s up t yu.
A. BthB. NeitherC. Either
34. —The 2024 Summer Olympics ________ n July 26 in Paris.
—I think it’s the greatest sprts event fr the wrld.
A. are heldB. will be heldC. was held
35. —I wnder ________.
—Yes, it tastes really gd.
A. if this kind f zngzi is delicius
B. where I can buy this kind f zngzi
C. hw much we shuld pay fr this kind f zngzi
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Thugh Kyle Tianshi is nly a 15-year-ld student, he has published five nvels. Hwever, this may nt be his mst famus achievement 36 Kyle just wn the “Her Award”. He received the 37 fr the tl he invented called NEREID. The inventin can detect (检测) if there is smething 38 t peple and the envirnment in water.
Kyle came up with the idea based n his experience grwing up in San Dieg, Califrnia, US. Peple culdn’t get clean drinking water and his parents asked 39 nt t drink tap water (自来水) because the water was in serius pllutin. Kyle spent abut $60 buying the tls needed t detect the tap water. He thught the price was very 40 . Then he used their family’s garage as his 41 , ding research n the pllutin in drinking water. Kyle hpes t invent a tl which is nt expensive fr 42 the drinking water. In this way, he can ffer help t peple wh dn’t have water filtratin (过滤) systems.
Kyle said his sister Emily Tianshi 43 his interest in envirnmental research. T make peple have an eye 44 envirnmental prtectin, they have funded the Clean Water Innvatin prgram t supprt clean water and usually rganize cmmunity clean-up events.
Everyne can 45 t help the earth. Pay attentin t things arund yu, and yu may think f sme creative ideas, t.
36. A. ifB. asC. s
37. A. invitatinB. requestC. prize
38. A. harmfulB. imprtantC. similar
39. A. herB. himC. them
40. A. rightB. lwC. high
41. A. labB. libraryC. bedrm
42. A. checkingB. cleaningC. plluting
43. A. lstB. develpedC. shwed
44. A. frB. inC. n
45. A. take risksB. take ntesC. take actins
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共两节，25小题；满分45分）
第一节 阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
(A)
46. What can we knw abut the cmpetitin?
A. It’s held nce a year.
B. Kids between 6 and 18 can take part in it.
C. The prize is given t the persn wh gets the mst likes.
D. Family members r friends can be nminated as the amazing kids.
47. Why des Gina write her wn recipe bk fr kids?
A. T shw her cking skills.B. T make mney t help thers.
C. T take part in a cmpetitin.D. T encurage ther children t ck.
48. Hw much did Jasper give away t the students in Haiti?
A. 2,200 yuan.B. 2,800 yuan.C. 3,000 yuan.D. 3,200 yuan.
49. Which f the fllwing can best describe Brendan?
A. warm-heartedB. humrusC. strng-mindedD. helpful
50. Where can we read this text?
A. On a website.B. In a diary.C. In a strybk.D. In a news reprt.
(B)
Accrding t a new research, kids can imprve their brainpwer by cking, gardening and cleaning arund the huse.
It’s a study f 207 children. Scientists have fund that husewrk like making meals and caring fr plants had smething t d with planning, self-cntrlling and remembering things.
Cllected frm children aged 5 t 13 in mid-2020, the results shwed 86 percent f kids put their dirty clthes in the right place and cleaned up after playing. But nly 59 percent made their wn beds, just 26 percent srted clthes after washing and 10 percent helped cking.
Older children are mre likely t d husewrk than yunger nes. Girls d mre husewrk than bys. Fr example, nly 49 percent f bys but 70 percent f girls made their wn beds. Arund 60 percent f kids, including 50 percent f bys and 61 percent f girls, helped d the dishes. Only 34 percent f kids aged five t seven did this, but 64 percent f thse aged 11 t 13 helped.
“Children wh ften ck a family meal may be mre likely t be gd at ther ways f life — like schlwrk r prblem-slving,” the lead researcher f the study, Ms. Tepper said.
51. Hw many kinds f husewrk are mentined in Paragraph 1?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Fur.D. Five.
52. Accrding t the survey, what kind f husewrk are the children mst likely t d?
A. Help cking.B. Make their wn beds.
C. Clean up after playing.D. Srt clthes after washing.
53. What can we knw frm Paragraph 4?
A. B. C. D.
54. What is the structure f the text?
A. B. C. D.
55. What is the writer’s attitude twards children ding husewrk?
A. Supprtive.B. Wrried.C. Dubtful.D. Unclear.
(C)
Fenduzhe (Striver) is a Chinese submersible (潜水器). It has finished its first internatinal manned deep-diving (载人深潜) scientific research task in the Pacific Ocean with the Chinese scientific research ship—Tansu 1. The ship returned t the city f Sanya, Suth China’s Hainan Prvince n March 11th, 2023. It had travelled fr 157 days.
The ship cvered mre than 22,000 nautical miles (海里) and finished 63 successful deep dives. Fur dives even exceeded a depth f 10,000 meters and the deepest dive reached a depth f 10,010.9 meters int the sea. Accrding t Xinhua, the develpment f the Chinese-built Striver began in 2016 and then set a natinal recrd by diving t a depth f 10,909 meters in Nvember 2020.
The jurney included 10 rganizatins frm hme and abrad. Amng them, there were tw great peple. Deng Yuqing, a Chinese researcher, tgether with Kareen Schnabel, a scientist frm New Zealand, became the first tw wmen wh had reached the deepest pint f the Kermadec Trench.
The team als reached the bttm f tw abysses (深渊), ne f which was the Diamantina Trench in the suth-eastern Indian Ocean, marking the first-ever such jurney in human histry.
Researchers cllected samples (样品) f things in the abysses like rcks and water. These samples will prvide imprtant supprt fr the understanding f hw the lives in the abysses develp and grw.
This research survey helped us learn mre abut the ceans. It als shwed us hw pwerful China’s technlgy is. We all shuld be prud f ur cuntry.
56. When did the Tansu 1 start t travel?
A. In Octber 2016.B. In March 2023.
C. In Octber 2022.D. In Nvember 2020.
57. What des the underlined wrd “exceeded” in paragraph 2 mean in Chinese?
A. 超过B. 发现C. 限制D. 忽略
58. What can we knw abut the research survey?
① The ship finished 63 successful dives.
② Fenduzhe dived the deepest in 2023.
③ Bth men and wmen tk part in the survey.
④ Researchers brught back rcks and water frm the abysses.
A. ①②③B. ①③④C. ①②④D. ②③④
59. What des the writer think f the scientific research survey?
A. Successful and helpful.B. Expensive and difficult.
C. Difficult but interesting.D. Cmfrtable and meaningful.
60. What is the best title fr this text?
A. The Deepest DiveB. The Chinese Submersible
C. The Tw Great PepleD. The Deep-diving Scientific Research
(D)
Imagine this. There’s an apple and a piece f cake n a table. Which ne wuld yu like? The delicius cake r the healthy apple? A bestseller, Willpwer: Rediscvering Our Greatest Strength, suggests that willpwer (意志力) is the ability t make decisins that are better fr us in the lng term, rather than in the shrt term.
Here is a famus experiment in the bk: The Marshmallw Test. In 1972, Prfessr Walter Mischel tested the willpwer f 600 fur-year-lds t six-year-lds. In the experiment, each child was left alne in a rm fr fifteen minutes with a marshmallw (棉花软糖) n a table in frnt f them. They were given tw chices: they culd either eat it r, if they waited fifteen minutes, they’d be given a secnd ne (and then they culd eat bth).
S, what did the kids d? Well, as yu can imagine, 70% ate the first marshmallw within the fifteen minutes. But the ther 30% shwed willpwer-they cntrlled themselves and waited fr the secnd marshmallw. But then Mischel discvered smething really interesting. Twenty years later, he gt in tuch with the children, wh, by then, were in their early twenties. And he fund that thse wh’d had strng willpwer were getting better marks at university and were mre ppular.
Willpwer is like a muscle (肌肉), and the mre yu exercise it, the strnger it gets. S, if yu d daily “self-cntrl exercises”, such as making yur bed r brushing yur teeth, yu’ll imprve yur verall willpwer. And daily willpwer exercises will help yu with thse bigger gals, such as studying fr an exam r training fr a marathn.
Be careful thugh. Just like any muscle, yur “willpwer muscle” can get tired. If yu’ve had t d lts f things that require willpwer, take a break r give yurself a treat. That way, yu’ll build up yur willpwer again.
And ne last thing, the writer mentins peple wh learn freign languages usually have a lt f willpwer. S, cngratulatins!
61. Hw des the writer start the text?
A. By ffering advice.B. By giving an example.
C. By telling a stry.D. By listing numbers.
62. Hw many children gt tw marshmallws in the Marshmallw Test in 1972?
A. 180.B. 240.C. 420.D. 600.
63. In Paragraphs 2 and 3, the famus experiment explains ________.
A. mre kids have strnger willpwer
B. hw peple practice children’s willpwer
C. willpwer influences peple’s lives greatly
D. marshmallws can help imprve willpwer
64. What can we get frm the text?
A. All the language learners have strnger willpwer.
B. Willpwer can’t be imprved by ding sme daily things.
C. Yung kids dn’t need t practice willpwer like grwn-ups.
D. Peple with strng willpwer can achieve their gals mre easily.
65. Which f the fllwing wuld the writer prbably agree with accrding t the text?
A. Practice makes perfect.B. East r west, hme is best.
C. Where there is a will, there is a way.D. The early bird catches the wrm.
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
(E)
D yu knw what a reslutin is? It’s a kind f prmise. Mst f the time, we make prmises t ther peple. (“Mm, I prmise I’m ging t tidy my rm when I get back frm schl.”) Prmises yu make t yurself are reslutins, and the mst cmmn kind is New Year’s reslutins. 66 When we make reslutins at the beginning f the year, we hpe that we are ging t imprve ur lives. Sme peple write dwn their reslutins and plans fr the cming year. 67 Others tell their family and friends abut their wishes and plans.
There are different kinds f reslutins. Sme are abut physical health. Fr example, sme peple prmise themselves they are ging t start an exercise prgram r eat less fast fd. Many reslutins have t d with self-imprvement. 68 Sme peple might say they are ging t wrk n a hbby like painting r taking phts, r learn t play the guitar. Sme reslutins have t d with better planning, like making a weekly plan fr schlwrk. 69
Althugh there are differences, mst reslutins have ne thing in cmmn. Peple hardly ever keep them! 70 Smetimes the reslutins may be t difficult t keep. Smetimes peple just frget abut them. Fr this reasn, sme peple say the best reslutin is t have n reslutins! Hw abut yu-will yu make any next year?
Ⅴ. 情景交际（每小题2分，满分10分）
根据情景提示，完成下列各题。
71. 你打电话想找Michael, 可以这样说：
Hell! ___________________________________ Michael?
72. 你想知道今天的日期，可以这样问？
______________________________________________ tday?
73. 同学对你的帮助表示感谢，你可以这样应答：
______________________________________________________.
74. 你想知道去图书馆的路怎么走，可以这样问：
Excuse me, ___________________________________ the way t the library?
75. 看到有人在公众场合吸烟，你可以这样提醒他：
Wuld yu mind ___________________________________?
Ⅵ. 看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76. ften77. last Sunday78. twice, as
79. imprtant, save80. while
Ⅶ. 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Over the past three years, Kang Jian has created mre than 400 dugh sculptures (面塑) and becme a city-inheritr (继承人) f the dugh sculpture in Mhe, Heilngjiang prvince.
Kang has shwn an interest in art, 81 (especial) dugh sculpture since he was a child. Every time his parents made dumplings, he wuld ask fr a small piece f dugh t make animals. Thse small dugh animals brught him lts f gd childhd 82 (memry). Hwever, Kang didn’t learn art in cllege. His family was pr and his parents 83 (be) nt able t affrd his art educatin. He spent his spare time after schl studying drawing by 84 (he). Kang left cllege in 2016 85 wrked in the Mhe Frestry Bureau (林业局).
Then in 2018, during a visit 86 a museum in Beijing. Kang learned smething abut dugh sculpting, which greatly attracted him. Then he had the idea f 87 (take) up his childhd interest. He visited sme famus artists and learned t make dugh sculptures frm them. His skills were imprved a lt. As 88 fan f Chinese literature. Kang wuld like t make dugh sculptures f Chinese heres, such as Sun Wukng and Guan Yu.
When Kang is free, he is 89 (invite) t give classes at schls t teach students t make dugh sculptures. He expects mre yung peple t take up this 90 (traditin) art frm. He believes it will be knwn by mre and mre peple at hme and abrad.
Ⅷ. 书面表达（满分15分）
91. 假定你是李华，上周你校开展了向雷锋同志学习的主题活动，以下是同学们参加志愿活动的调查数据。请你根据图表提示，给笔友David写一封邮件，介绍学生参加活动的情况，分享你的经历与感受。词数80左右。
Number f Participants (参加者)
注意事项：
1. 必须包含所提示信息，可适当发挥，开头己给出，不计入总词数；
2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
3. 请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。
Dear David,
Last week ur schl had a themed activity n learning frm Cmrade Lei Feng. It’s an hnr t share the result f my survey with yu. ___________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
泉港区2024年春季九年级教学质量监测英语参考答案
Ⅰ. 听力（共三节，满分30分）每小题1.5分
第一节 1—5 ACCBA
第二节 6—10 BACCA11—15 BCBAB
第三节 16. Saturday 17. big 18. lanterns 19. 4/4:00 20. bring
Ⅱ. 单项选择（满分15分）每小题1分
21—25: ABCCB 26—30: CABAB 31—35: ACCBA
Ⅲ. 完形填空（满分15分）每小题1.5分
36—40: BCABC41—45: AABCC
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共45分，每小题2分，E篇每小题1分）
（A）46—50: DDBCA（B）51—55: BCBDA
（C）56—60: CABAD（D）61—65: BACDC
（E）66—70: DBCEA
Ⅴ. 情景交际 10分
Hell! May/Can/Culd I speak t Michael?
What’s the date tday?
That’s OK./That’s all right./ Yu’re welcme./Nt at all./It’s a pleasure.
Excuse me, which is / culd yu tell me the way t the library?
Wuld yu mind nt smking (in public/here)?
评分标准：每小题能按要求写出正确的内容，得2分； 能写出主要句子结构的得1-1.5分； 能传递个别信息的得0.5分。
Ⅵ. 看图写话 10分
76. The by/He ften helps (his mther...) d/wash the dishes/d the husewrk.
77. They played sccer last Sunday.
78. Ben’s ruler is twice as lng as Tm’s.
It’s imprtant t save water.
Liu Mei was/is playing the pian while Li Ga was/is reading.
评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子得2分； 能基本说明图意，写出主要句子结构的得1-1.5分；能传递个别信息的得0.5分。
Ⅶ. 短文填词 10分（评分标准：每小题 1分，形式错不得分）
81. especially82. memries 83.were 84. himself 85. and
86. t87. taking88. a 89. invited90. traditinal
Ⅷ. 书面表达 15分
91. 参考范文：
Dear David,
Last week ur schl had a themed activity n learning frm Cmrade Lei Feng. It’s an hnr t share the result f my survey with yu. Here are the results. 20% f the students wrked in an ld peple’s hme. 30% f the students helped kids in an after-schl prgram. 15% f them was a guide at a museum. 45% helped clean up the streets. It’s surprising that everyne tk part in the activity.
I helped kids in an after-schl prgram. Because I nt nly like kids but als I’m gd at English. I feel happy t be with them. I think being a vlunteer is great.
We spke highly f the vlunteer wrk. We learnt a lt thrugh practice. We hpe there will be mre meaningful activities in ur schl. D yu want t be a vlunteer?
Yurs,
Li Hua
听力材料原文
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
1. I bught an expensive bag fr my mther.
2. The strybk is very interesting.
3. I can skate with my friends in winter.
4. I like playing ftball best.
5. Lk! That bridge is very beautiful and lng.
听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
W: What time d yu d yur hmewrk, Peter?
M: At a quarter t seven. And I watch the cartns abut an hur later.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
M: D yu knw if Alan’s cming hme fr dinner?
W: He’ll be late.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
W: Tell me abut yur family, Steve.
M: Well, my father is shrt with black hair, my mther is tall with blnd hair, and my brther is tall with brwn hair.
听第4段时话，回答第9小题。
W: I want sme students fr the schl shw. What can yu d, Bill? Can yu play the drums?
M: N, I can’t. But I can sing.
W: D yu knw wh can play the drums?
M: Frank can d it. Als, Ben can play the pian. And Lily can dance.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
M: Have yu cked supper, dear?
W: N. I just dn’t knw what t ck.
M: Hw abut buying sme sandwiches r bread? It’s easy and quick.
W: Sandwiches again? We had them yesterday. Why nt g t a Chinese restaurant instead?
M: All right.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
W: Hi, Nick.
M: Hi, Cathy, yu are early tday.
W: I tk the bus tday. It tk me nly 15 minutes, s I gt t schl earlier than usual. And I knw yu are early every day.
M: Well, yu knw it takes me nly abut five minutes t walk t schl. Why didn't yu ride yur bike tday?
W: Oh, my bike is brken. My father prmised t buy me a new ne.
M: That’s gd news.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题
W: Excuse me. Culd yu tell me where the university library is, please?
M: Oh, yes. When yu leave the bus statin, yu shuld turn right. If yu walk dwn the rad, yu’ll cme t a crssing. Turn right int Hill Rad.
W: OK.
M: As yu walk up Hill Rad, yu’ll see the pst ffice n yur left. Next t it is a large supermarket. The library is just acrss the rad frm it, n yur right.
W: Thanks a lt.
第三节 听对话，根据你所听到的对话内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（对话读三遍）
W: D yu knw when the Spring Festival is this year, Martin?
M: Yes. It’s next Saturday, Cindy.
W: Are yu ging t celebrate?
M: Sure. We’re ging t have a big meal at my cusin’s huse, watch TV and make dumplings tgether.
W: That sunds interesting.
M: Well, yu can cme t jin us this year then. We’re ging t make lanterns in the afternn.
W: Really? I like t d that. What time shuld I cme by?
M: Yu can cme at 4 p.m.
W: Shuld I bring anything with me?
M: Yu culd bring sme beers.
W: N prblem.
The Spring Festival
When
Next 16 .
Where
At Martin’s cusin’s huse.
Hw t celebrate
Have a 17 meal, watch TV, make dumplings and 18 .
When Cindy will cme
At 19 p.m.
What Cindy will 20
Sme beers.
The Amazing Kids Organizatin wants t knw abut the mst amazing children. Every mnth, we give a prize t the mst amazing kid. We’re lking fr peple t nminate (提名) their friends r families. Just intrduce the persn and add the #Amazingkidscmpetitin. Kids must be between the ages f 8 and 18 t take part.
Nancy
My cusin Gina, 14 years ld, gt first prize in the “Yung Ck f the Year” cmpetitin. Nw, Gina is writing her wn recipe (食谱) bk fr kids. She wants t encurage ther children t ck. As she says, “Everyne needs t eat, s it’s a skill that will always be useful!” Gina’s really amazing.
#Amazingkidscmpetitin
Tina
My friend Jasper is 15 years ld. He always saves mney. When there was a terrible earthquake in Haiti, he had saved 3,000 yuan, but he nly kept 200 yuan fr himself and gave away the rest t the students in Haiti. “Mney shuld be used in the mst suitable places,” he says. I think he is the mst amazing kid!
#Amazingkidscmpetitin
Le
My brther, Brendan, lved running. He lst part f ne leg when he was 15. He didn’t give up, hwever. Every day, he practiced running. Even thugh he fell many times, he std up and cntinued running. He says, “I’m happy t be alive and able t keep running.” His attitude (态度) and strength make him an amazing kid!
#Amazingkidscmpetitin
A. There are gd reasns fr this.
B. This helps them t remember their reslutins.
C. These are abut making themselves better persns.
D. The start f the year is ften a time fr making reslutins.
E. Fr example, a student may have t find mre time t study.