14，2024年内蒙古自治区包头市东河区中考二模英语试题

这是一份14，2024年内蒙古自治区包头市东河区中考二模英语试题，共17页。试卷主要包含了 答题时, 将答案写在答题卡上等内容，欢迎下载使用。

英 语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共12页, 满分120分。考试时间为120分钟。
2. 答题前, 考生务必先将自己的姓名、座位号、考生号等信息填写在答题卡的指定位
置。请认真核对条形码上的相关信息后, 将条形码粘贴在答题卡的指定位置。
3. 答题时, 将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后, 将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 20分)
听录音, 根据各题要求选择最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每项内容读两遍。
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分, 共5分)
听下面5段对话, 根据你听到的内容选出相应的图片。
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分, 共15分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C 三 个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟；
听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第6段材料, 回答第6至8题。
6. Wh will get the jacket frm the lady?
A. Her sn B. Her brther. C. Her father
7. What clr will the lady chse?
A. Blue. B. Purple. C. Green试卷源自 试卷上新，欢迎访问。8. Hw much des the lady pay?
A. 260 yuan B. 200 yuan. C. 140 yuan
听第7段材料, 回答第9至11题。
9. Where did the by meet Anna's brther?
A. On his way t schl. B. On his way hme. C. On the playgrund.
10. Wh is n the schl basketball team?
A. Anna's brther. B. Anna. C. Bb.
11. What will they d after schl?
A. Watch a mvie. B. G t a cncert. C. Play basketball.
听第8段材料, 回答第12至14题。
12. Why did the man g t France?
A. T learn French. B. T take a vacatin. C. T visit his relatives.
13. Hw lng did the man stay in France?
A. Tw weeks. B. Fur weeks. C. Six weeks.
14. What was the weather like in France when the man was there?
A. It was ht. B. It was cl. C. It was sunny
听第9段材料, 回答第15至17题。
15. Where did the by prbably leave his backpack?
A. In the classrm. B. At the gym. C. At the dining hall.
16. What's the time nw?
A. 5:30. B. 6:30. C. 6:40
17. What can we get frm the cnversatin?
A. Mm advises the by t get his backpack back.
B. Mm advises the by t give his teacher a call.
C. Mm advises the by t d his hmewrk later.
听第10段材料, 回答第18至20题。
18. Wh is the leader f the English writing cmpetitin?
A. Mike. B. Jack. C. Peter
19. When will the speech cmpetitin start?
A. In February B. In March. C. In April.
20. Hw many activities are mentined?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three
第二部分英语知识运用(共15小题；每小题1分, 共15分)
阅读短文, 从短文后各题所给的三个选项 (A、B 和 C) 中, 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
In eighth grade, I had a friend, Peter. He was an amazing sprts star 21 , I never seemed t be any gd at sprts. But Peter was my best friend, and when he jined a team, I did, t. Or at least I 22 _.
Peter was a starter fr the JV field hckey team. He was a 23 , s he picked up the sprt quickly. I, n the ther hand, culdn't seem t hld the stick 24 . Then Peter spend mre and mre time with the ther bys like 25 and I was beginning t be left behind.
Deciding t 26 ur friendship, I asked my mm t buy me my wn hckey stick s I culd practise at hme. Peter lked at my 27 , and I culd tell that he was thinking it was a waste f mney.
I was 28 by his reactin, and again I felt the distance 29 us. If I was ging t keep Peter as a friend, I thught, I simply has t be gd at this sprt. Smehw, I had t learn hw t thrw and catch the ball and be 30 n the playing field. S I practiced and practiced. I ften felt like there was n hpe, but I kept at it.
Then, ne day, 31 happened. I paired ff with Steve, wh had becme my partner since Peter had quickly prven t be t gd t play with me. That day, when Steve sent me his 32 thrw, I caught it. Then I caught his next thrw, and the next. The stick was actually feeling gd in my hands.
I still dn't knw what exactly happened that day, but I will always be 33 fr it.
By the end f the seasn, I was 34 t play fr the JV team. I scred 12 gals that year. My success n the field gave me cnfidence that I really needed. And Steve 35 t be a great friend.
21. A. ThughB. BecauseC. Hwever
22. A. triedB. cheeredC. checked
23. A. generalB. naturalC. central
24. A. safelyB. smthlyC. cmfrtably
25. A. meB. himC. them
26. A. saveB. changeC. remember
27. A. ballB. handsC. stick
28. A. hurtB. mvedC. cheated
29. A. befreB. amngC. between
30. A. activeB. cnfidentC. interested
31. A. nthingB. anythingC. smething
32. A. lastB. firstC. secnd
33. A. thankfulB. helpfulC. useful
34. A. payingB. callingC. starting
35. A. turned utB. came arundC. shwed ff
第三部分 阅读理解(共15小题；每小题2分, 共30分)
阅读短文, 从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和D) 中, 选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将
该项涂黑。
A
Children are talking abut the best ways t prtect the envirnment.
36. Wh suggests chsing used prducts?
A. Tny B. Emily C. Linda D. Sam
37. Hw t recycle the daily wastes?
A. By recycling waste water.
B. By buying reusable and used things.
C. By riding a bike r walking t reduce air pllutin.
D. By sending recyclable prducts t a recycling cmpany.
38. What d the listed students have in cmmn?
A. They disagree with thers' ideas.
B. They ride a bike r walk t schl.
C. They wuld like t prtect the envirnment.
D. They shw great interest in recycling waste water.
B
I'll always remember the first time I tried ballet. My mther was a dancer and I wanted nthing mre than t be like her, but after making mistakes during my first class, I felt like I wanted t stp right away. Hwever, I tld my mm I culdn't wait t dance again because it was nly my first day.
Weeks passed and my dancing didn't get any better. Then my dance teacher said that we were ging t perfrm in a shw. I was scared f falling n my face in frnt f hundreds f peple and disappinting my mm.
Even thugh I practiced hard fr the shw, I culdn't get the hang f it. Finally, I went t my mm t tell her hw I felt. She simply laughed and tld me she wuld teach me all she knew abut ballet.
My mm quickly discvered hw bad at ballet I was, but she still taught me with the greatest patience, lve and understanding. When I jumped and fell, she was there t catch me. When I lst my balance, she held me up. By the time the shw arrived, I was as prepared as I culd be.
The music began and my heart started t race. Breathing calmly, I began mving t the music withut missing a step. When the music stpped, I ran ff the stage and laughed in excitement.
My mm fund me and gave me a huge hug, telling me hw prud she was. I lked my mm in the eye and tld her that I culdn't d well withut her. Thrugh this, I realized ne imprtant fact: My mm will always be there t catch me if I fall.
39. What happened t the writer befre she perfrmed in a shw?
A. She learned ballet by herself.
B. She made n mistakes while dancing.
C. She practiced hard and prepared fr the shw.
D. She hurt herself and lst her balance all the time.
40. What des the underlined phrase “get the hang f it” mean?
A. learned t d it well. B. lst interest in ballet.
C. had truble with ballet. D. jumped high in the air.
41. Hw did the mm feel when the writer preparing fr the shw?
A. Nervus and wrried. B. Calm and cared.
C. Excited and surprised. D. Patient and understanding.
42. What is the purpse f this stry?
A. T tell peple nt t be afraid t disappint thers.
B. T shw the readers a mther's lve is the greatest.
C. T warn kids nt t try smething they are nt gd at.
D. T encurage mms t be prud f their children's prgress.
C
Whether yu want t lse weight r grw high, it's n secret that staying active is a necessary part f a healthy lifestyle. But as fr exactly hw much exercise yu shuld d, it all depends n yur fitness gals.
Still, there are general rules that anyne shuld fllw, accrding t persnal trainer Tm Mans. “The kind f training yu d finally depends n yur ability, gals, likes and dislikes, equipment available, what injuries yu have, and hw much time yu have available, ”Mans tld The Independent. Cnsistency(坚持)is key, and even the small number f exercise can have a big difference n yur health. Mrever, exercise can nt nly make the heart, bnes and muscles strng, imprve memry, sleep and yur brain health, but als help t reduce stress, wrries.
Sadly, hitting the gym nce r twice a week wn't cut it. Fur r five times a week is gd. Mans says yu shuld aim t hit the gym at least three times each week in rder t see real results. “A frequent (经常的)gym activity makes yur bdy a large enugh training effects during the whle week, which makes the bdy t get strnger and healthier, "Mans said. “Each training shuld last fr abut 45 minutes t ne hur. ”His preferred training activity includes a 10-minute warm-up, 30 t 40 minutes f weight training, and five t 10 minutes f cling dwn and stretching(拉伸). Half-hur training wrks best fr cnditining(调节)sessins (一段时间) and interval (间隔)training, t.
Accrding t Mans, it's best t take a day's rest between weight training sessins t allw yur muscles time t recver. If yu're training different bdy parts each time, hwever, it's OK t d weight training n cntinuus days.
43. What decides hw much exercise yu shuld d?
A. Yur lifestyle. B. Yur weight. C. Yur health D. Yur aim
44. Hw ften des the authr suggest ging t the gym?
A. At least twice a week. B. Mre than five times a week.
C. N less than three times a week. D. N mre than fur times a week.
45. Why shuld yu rest fr a day between weight training sessins?
A. T get the best effects. B. T make muscles relax.
C. T train different bdy parts. D. T keep yu frm being t tired.
46. What is the text mainly abut?
A. Useful ways help yu exercise well.
B. Mans' pinins are gd fr ur exercise.
C. Keeping healthy can reduce yur pressure.
D. Gd ways help yu lse weight and grw high
D
In recent years, artificial intelligence (AI 人工智能)technlgy has develped rapidly and is being used in peple's life and wrk. Frm self-driving cars t smart hmes t data analysis (分 析), AI is gradually changing the way we wrk and live. In this situatin, many traditinal human wrk can be replaced by intelligent tls. On the ne hand, peple are happy t have s many useful AI tls t make ur wrk and life easier. On the ther hand, peple are wrried that their jbs will be replaced(代替)by AI tls, and can't find jbs t live n.
Sme yung peple believe that with the ppularizatin f AI translatin tls, the need t learn freign languages is greatly reduced. After all, an APP n a smartphne can translate different languages quickly, helping peple wh speak different languages cmmunicate. In additin, AI tls like ChatGPT, Claude, and many ther such tls r websites can help peple realize all kinds f ideas, such as writing, drawing, making vides, searching fr materials, and analyzing data. Mst AI tls can help with writing in any language. Sme teenagers think the ability t write in a freign language r a native language is nt imprtant, as lng as they can use AI tls. They n lnger need t spend a lt f time learning these "fungible "skills.
Hwever, ther yung peple have different ideas. They believe that imprving infrmatin literacy(信息素养)and the ability t cntrl AI technlgy is mre imprtant in the time f AI. This includes nt nly basic cmputer skills, but als thinking and mral judgment (道德判断).
Anther imprtant aspect is creativity. While AI can certainly perfrm tasks that require lgical reasning and analysis, it is still limited (限制)in its ability t think utside the bx and
cme up with truly creative ideas. Students shuld be prepared t live with AI, learn knwledge, use AI and even develp new AI tls.
47. What can AI translatin tls d?
A. It can translate different languages easily.
B. It can nly help users with written translatin.
C. It can reduce the need t learn a freign language.
D. It can cmpletely replace freign language learning.
48. What des the underlined(划线的)wrd “fungible” mean?
A. useless. B. repeated. C. replaced. D. bring
49. Why can't AI take the place f human?
A. Because peple learn fewer freign languages like befre.
B. Because peple get help frm AI tls and dn't need t many skills.
C. Because peple use data analysis t change the way we wrk and live.
D. Because peple will always imprve their ability and have creative thinking.
50. What is the best title f this passage?
A. Teenagers need AI B. AI changes ur life
C. The realizatin f AI D. AI will replace human
第四部分 情景交际(共两节, 15分)
第 一 节(共5小题；每小题1分, 共5分)
根据对话内容, 从方框内的选项中选出填入空白处的最佳选项。选项内容中有两项为
多余选择项。
Karen met Jasper after their graduatin ceremny.
Karen: Hey, Jasper! Hw excellent yu are! We were all tuched by yur speech n the graduatin ceremny.
Jasper: 51__________ Actually I felt very nervus.
Karen: 52 _____________
Jasper: I prepared it fr a week. By the way, dn't frget the party tnight.
Karen: I almst frgt it. 53____________
Jasper: It's at 6: 00. Hw time flies! After the party, maybe it's time t say gdbye t junir high.
Karen: What are yu ging t d after graduatin?
Jasper: 54 ___________What abut yu?
Karen: I am thinking entering a music schl. Yu knw, my dream is t be a singer.
Jasper: 55 ____________
Karen: Of curse. And my parents think I can make my wn decisin.
Jasper: Lucky yu. Graduatin makes us sad, but the future will be mre exciting!
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分, 共10分)
根据下面的对话情景, 在每一个空白处填上一个适当的句子, 使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A:Hi, Tm. 56 ___________________________?
B:Great!I went t Space Museum this summer vacatin. Hw rapidly China's space technlgy
develps!
A:It has gt a lt f success. 57 _________________?
B:I've learned a lt abut it. 58 _________________?
A:I just stayed at hme. And I was excited t see Shenzhu XVIII rising int space n TV. Did yu watch it n TV?
B: 59 _________________. I feel s prud f ur cuntry.
A:S d I. And Ye Guangfu is an astrnaut I admire. I want t be a persn like them. What is yur dream?
B: 60 ___________________________.
A:Yeah!We have the same dream jb. Let's wrk harder tgether.
第五部分 词语运用(共两节, 25分)
第一节(共10小题；每小题1分, 共10分)
用括号中所给单词的适当形式完成句子(每空仅限1个单词)。
61. There are frty-eight _________in Asia and frty-fur in Eurpe. (cuntry)
62. Zhang Ruxu, a Tang Dynasty pet, is widely __________ fr his pem A Mnlit Night n the Spring River. (knw)
63. The Spring Festival, ne f the traditinal Chinese Festivals, was fficially ____________ as a United Natins hliday in December, 2023. (list)
64. —Hw d yu greet peple in yur cuntry?
—In the past, the handshake was ppular, but at present nearly ne_________ peple chse a hug t greet thers. (three)
65. On May 9, the Olympic trch fr the Paris 2024 Games was lit. The trch relay ___________ its jurney t Paris. (begin)
66. T imprve the envirnment, it is necessary t make everyne knw the _________ f ging green. (imprtant)
67. T save peple's lives, the dctrs and scientists are risking their lives t d ________ research. (medicine)
68. We are suppsed t learn t accept challenges instead f ______________ abut the difficulties. (wrry)
69. —My father will take me t Inner Mnglia Museum this Saturday.
—Really? I hpe yu'll enjy_______________ weekend. (yu)
70. Nbdy can succeed vernight. Yu can ___________ make prgress by keeping n studying hard. (gradual)
第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分, 共15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the Ming Dynasty, in rder t prtect the cuntry and peple, the emperr decided t rebuild the Great Wall. Hwever, building a wall with huge stnes seemed t be 71_______ (pssible) at that time.
Meanwhile, the building f Jiayuguan 72 _________ (require) millins f stnes f the same size. Peple fund that neither men 73_________ hrses culd carry the stnes because they were t heavy.
Winter was cming. The wrkers were 74________ (wrry)abut whether they culd finish the wrk n time. Every day they had a 75 (discuss)abut the way t carry them. One day, 76 ________ wrker accidentally pured water nt the rad, and he fund the water quickly became ice. He stepped n the ice and almst fell dwn. Thanks t this “mistake” , he came up 77________ a perfect way t build an "ice" rad. In the end, this way was quickly put int practice. On the ice rad, every stne was carried t the muntain 78_______ (easy). They finally slved the prblem with their wisdm and diligence (勤奋).
Tday, the Great Wall is nt 79 ________(use) t prtect the cuntry any mre, but it is always the symbl f ur natin's spirit. It gives us the pwer t create and the curage t mve n and get ver all difficulties. We'll be fearless, and we'll wrk tgether 80 (create)the new “Great Wall” f ur time.
第六部分 书面表达(15分)
假如你是李华, 你校英语社团向同学们发出“爱读书、读好书、善读书”的倡议。请你根据以下要点提示, 用英文写一份倡议书。
写作要点：
1. Why d we need t read?
2. What shuld we read?
3. What's ur plan fr reading?
注意：
1. 词数80左右, 文章开头已给出, 不计入总词数；
2. 可适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯；
3. 文中不得出现反映考生信息的真实人名、地名等内容。
Dear schlmates,
Bks are ur best friends. _________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Li Hua
2024年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷评分说明及作答示例
英 语 ( 1 2 0 分 )
第一部分 听力(共两节, 每小题1分, 共20分)
1—5 BCAED 6—10 ACBAA 11—15 BACBB 16—20 CBBAC
第二部分语言知识运用(共15小题； 每小题1分, 共15分)
21—25 CABCB 26—30 ACACA 31-35 CBACA
第三部分阅读理解(共15小题；每小题2分, 共30分)
36—38 BDC 39—42 CADB 43—46 DCBA 47—50 ACDB
第四部分 情景交际(共两节, 15分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1分, 共5分)
51—55 AEBGD
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分, 共10分)
评分说明：
一等(8～10分)
能根据情景准确理解对话场景, 理清人物对话关系, 表意清晰, 语义连贯, 语言得体；能在补 全对话过程中使用准确的词语、句式和时态。
二等(5～7分)
能根据情景基本理解对话场景, 理清人物对话关系, 表意基本清晰, 语义较连贯, 语言基本得体；在补全对话过程中存在部分词语、句式和时态错误。
三等(0～4分)
未能根据情景理解对话场景, 未能理清人物对话关系, 表意不清晰, 语义不连贯, 语言不得体； 在补全对话过程中存在严重词语、句式和时态错误。
评分细则：
1. 在答案符合题意的前提下, 在单句中首字母未大写扣一分；在单句中语法错误、单词拼写 错误或因书写潦草导致的字母或单词难以辨认一处扣一分(累计最多扣一分);
2. 与以下答案不一致, 但符合题意, 且表达正确, 应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分。
作答示例：
56. Hw was yur summer vacatin?
57. What have yu learned?
58. Where did yu g?
59. Yes, I did.
60. I want t be an astrnaut/a spaceman/a taiknaut
My dream is t be an astrnaut/a spaceman/a taiknaut
第五部分词语运用(共两节, 25分)
评分说明：
1. 大小写不正确或书写潦草导致的字母或单词难以辨认不给分；
2. 如考生写出与参考答案不同但与题目要求相符的单词, 且形式正确, 应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分。
作答示例：
第一节(共10小题；每小题1分, 共10分)
61. cuntries 62. knwn 63. listed 64. third 65. began
66. imprtance 67. medical 68. wrrying 69. yur 70. gradually
第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分, 共15分)
71. impssible 72. required 73. nr 74. wrried 75. discussin
76. a 77. with 78. easily 79. used 80. t create
第六部分 书面表达(15分)
One Pssible Versin;
Dear schlmates.
Bks are ur best friends. Reading bks can prvide us with rich knwledge. Reading can als
make us wiser. We can imprve urselves by reading.
First, we shuld read sme classics, such as Jurney t the West, Little Wmen and s n. Secnd, it's better fr us t read at the prper time. We can read either after schl r n weekends. Third, reading in a quiet and cmfrtable place is imprtant fr us. We can read in the library. After reading we shuld write a bk reprt and share it with ur friends.
Reading makes a full man! Let's start reading nw.
Li Hua
评分说明
1. 本题总分15分, 按各档次给分。评分时先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定档次, 然后以该档次的要求来衡量, 确定或调整档次, 最后给分。
2. 评分时应考虑：内容要点是否完整；时态、语态以及人称是否正确；词汇和句式的多样性以及语言的准确性；上下文的连贯性。
3. 如书写较差, 影响表达, 应视其影响程度, 降低一到两个档次；英美两种拼法及词汇用法都可接受。
4. 内容要点可用不同方式表达；应紧扣主题, 可适当发挥。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第三档
(11～15分)(1)能按要求完成试题规定的全部任务；
(2)能运用正确的时态、较高级的词汇及多样的句型结构, 体现了较
强的语言运用能力；
(3)逻辑清楚, 表意清晰。
第二档
(6～10分)(1)只完成了试题规定的部分任务：
(2)语法、词汇、句式有些许错误, 但不影响对所写内容的理解； (3)逻辑基本清楚, 表意基本清晰。
第一档
(0～5分)(1)漏掉或根本未完成试题规定的任务；
(2)语法、词汇、句式存在严重错误, 严重影响了对所写内容的理解； (3)逻辑不清楚, 表意不清晰。
附：听力测试文稿
2024年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷
英语听力测试
听录音, 根据各题要求选择最佳答案, 并将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每项内容读两 遍。
第一节 听下面5段对话, 根据你听到的内容选出相应的图片。
1. W:Excuse me, d yu knw where t exchange mney?
M:Yes. There's a bank between the bkstre and the clthes stre n Center Street.
2. W:What's wrng with yu, Mike?
M:I'm feeling a little cld. I didn't expect it wuld be such a cld day.
3. M:What's the time, Mm? Our sprts meeting starts at eight 'clck.
W:Oh, yu must hurry then. Yu have nly fifteen minutes left.
4. M:I heard yu were in Shanghai yesterday. Did yu g there by plane?
W:N, I went there by train.
5. W:Hw d peple celebrate the Dragn Bat Festival?
M:They usually eat zngzi and watch dragn bat races.
第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选 项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟；听完后, 各 小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第6段材料, 回答第6至8题。
M:Hi, Miss. Can I help yu?
W:Yes, I want t get a jacket fr my sn.
M:There are many kinds f jackets here. What clr des yur sn like?
W:I prefer blue and purple, but green is his favrite.
M:What abut this green ne?
W:It seems t be right. Hw much is it?
M:Tw hundred and sixty yuan.
W:That's t much. Tw hundred yuan is fine?
M:All right. Yu may take it.
听第7段材料, 回答第9至11题。
M:Hi, Anna!I met yur brther n my way t schl just nw. He is much taller than befre.
W:He likes playing basketball. And he is n the schl basketball team nw.
M:Great!Can he take part in ur basketball game next Saturday afternn? W:Err, let me ask him. Where will yu have the basketball game?
M:On ur schl playgrund. By the way, where are yu ging after schl?
W:I'm ging t a cncert. Wuld yu like t g with me?
M:Sure, I'd lve t.
听第8段材料, 回答第12至14题。
W:Haven't seen yu fr mnths, Bb!
M:Yes, Nancy. I've just returned frm France!
W:France? Fr what?
M:Learning French f curse.
W:I thught yu were there traveling r visiting yur relatives. Where did yu g?
M:I mainly stayed in Paris learning, and traveled t sme ther cities.
W:Hw lng did yu stay in France? Fr a mnth?
M:6 weeks in fact. I spent 4 weeks studying and 2 weeks travelling.
W:What was the weather like there? Was it ht?
M:Nt at all! When I was there, it was always cl.
W:I hear it's always rainy, isn't it?
M:Oh, it used t be. Nw it's always sunny there.
听第9段材料, 回答第15至17题。
M:Mm, I think I lst my backpack.
W:When did yu find it was lst?
M:Just nw, when I was ging t d my hmewrk.
W:Where did yu g befre yu came hme?
M:I left the classrm and then played badmintn at the gym with Peter.
W:Yu must leave it at the gym.
M:Prbably. But the gym usually clses at five thirty p. m. It's already six frty nw.
W:Yu have t get it tmrrw.
M:But I have t hand in my math hmewrk tmrrw.
W:Yu'd better give yur teacher a call and tell him abut it.
M:Okay. That's the nly way.
听第10段材料, 回答第18至20题。
Gd afternn, everyne. Welcme t ur English Club. I'm Peter. I'm the president f the
English Club. Let me tell yu mre infrmatin abut ur plans fr this term. We'll have sme
interesting activities. The first activity I'll intrduce is an English writing cmpetitin in September. Anyne wh likes writing can jin it. Well, the leader f the activity is Jack. The secnd activity is the Thanksgiving party. I hpe all f us can learn t give rather than always take. We will have great
fun there. In February, we will have the third activity, a speech cmpetitin. The leading task f it
cmes t Lily. Please ask her t get mre infrmatin if yu are interested.
听力测试到此结束。I'm Tny. In daily life, we waste a lt f things such as plastics, paper, etc. Yu can recycle these wastes instead f thrwing them in a dustbin. Yu can categrize(分类)them int nn-recyclable and recyclable prducts and send recyclable prducts t a recycling cmpany.
I'm Emily. Buying reusable and used things is a great way t prtect the envirnment. By chsing used prducts, the number f new prducts will be cut dwn and f curse, yur mney will als be saved. Visit lcal used furniture(家具)and appliance(家用电器)stres t find the things yu need.
I'm Sam. Never frget t turn ff the water taps after using. And yu car als recycle waste water fr ther uses like cleaning the bathrm r watering gardens. This is als ne f the best ways t prtect the envirnment, s many peple need t knw and fllw it.
I'm Linda. Anther way t prtect the envirnment is t walk r ride the bike fr shrt trips. If yu take a shrt trip and the weather is nice, why nt ride yur bike r even walk? It nt nly helps reduce air pllutin but helps yu enjy the fresh air.