2023年内蒙古包头市东河区中考二模英语试题

这是一份2023年内蒙古包头市东河区中考二模英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 _______ 2等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2023年初中学业水平考试二次调研试卷
英语学科（120分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，20分）
听录音，根据各题要求选择最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每项内容读两遍。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
听下面5段对话，根据你所听到的内容选出相应的图片。

A B C D E
1. _______ 2. _______ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。
6. What makes leo feel sleepy?
A. The noise. B. The waste. C. The heavy traffic.
7. How long has the road been built?
A. For three months. B. For six months. C. For ten months.
8. What suggestion does the woman give to Leo?
A. Leaving for vacation.
B. Holding a neighborhood meeting.
C. Reporting the situation to the government.
听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。
9. What's the most probably relationship between the two speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Waiter and customer. C. Father and daughter.
10. What table does the woman want?
A.A table beside the window. B. A table in the center. C.A table near the door.
11. How soon will the woman get her food?
A. In ten minutes. B. In two minutes. C. In twenty minutes.
听第8段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. What are the speakers going to do first?
A. To watch a movie. B. To visit the museum. C. To have a drink.
13. Where is the coffee shop?
A. Next to the cinema. B. In front of the museum. C. Across from the bank.
14. How will the speakers go to the museum?
A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By bike.
听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. What did the man do yesterday morning?
A. He watched a football match.
B. He played tennis with his friends.
C. He worked a little at his computer.
16. Where was the man yesterday afternoon?
A. In his office. B. On the playground. C. At home.
17. When did the woman go to bed last night?
A. At about 10：30. B. At about 11：00. C. At about 11：30.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What should a monitor do?
A. Make a great speech.
B. Collect old books and bottles.
C. Organize activities for the class.
19.Why did Bruce want to recycle used bottles?
A. To make money to have a picnic.
B. To make money for a trip to the beach.
C. To make money to give to the poor children.
20. What did Jenny do to help herself reach her purpose?
A. She held a party at her home.
B. She made a wonderful speech.
C. She gave away money to the poor.
第二部分 语言知识运用（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）
阅读短文，从短文后各题所给的三个选项（A、B和C）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Michael was not happy yesterday morning. He didn't even want to eat his favorite apple pies and didn't want to go to school, 21 , because he got very poor grades in his math test the day before yesterday. He did not dare to tell his mother 22 .
On the way to school, he went into a park 23 school. He sat on a park bench. He was so 24 that he nearly cried out. At that time an old grandpa came near to Michael 25 a smile on his face. That old man sat next to Michael, 26 Michael didn't look at him because he didn't want to 27 the old man. The old man touched his clothes and patted (拍) his head gently without a word, just going on 28 at Michael. It seemed that the old man 29 many fun things, Michael thought. He felt warm from 30 smile. He looked at the sky over his head. It was bluer and 31 . He thought he had no 32 to stay unhappy. He began smiling like the old man.
33 he grew up, he became a mathematician (数学家). But he never forgot the warm smile of that old man who he didn’t know 34 . He believed smile is a kind of magical strength(魔力) that can be passed to other people and 35 them the courage to get over any difficulty. Always smile in our life, and we’ll find nothing is impossible.
21. A. also B. too C. either
22. A. something B. anything C. nothing
23. A. instead of B. because of C. according to
24. A. happy B. sad C. angry
25. A. with B. at C. for
26. A.so B. or C. but
27. A. talk about B. talk with C. talk on
28. A. smiling B. speaking C. complaining
29. A. has B. had C. has had
30. A. his mother's B. his teacher's C. the old man's
31. A. brighter B. darker C. cleaner
32. A. idea B. interest C. reason
33. A. If B. While C. When
34. A. this morning B. that morning C. tomorrow morning
35. A. bring B. take C. carry
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
阅读短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Forest London volunteers contribute more than 10 000 hours of service to our programs every year. We expect you to explore our volunteer chances. Here are many ways for you to join us.

Tree Planter
Volunteer with Forest London to plant native trees in parks and natural areas in the spring and fall.
Time: Usually two to three hours on weekends throughout the fall and spring.
Training: We teach you how to plant a tree at the start of every planting event.

Tree Aftercare Assistant
Care for trees during their first few years to ensure their health. You may, for example, provide the trees with protection from harmful weeds.
Time: Usually 1.5 to 2 hours on weeknights or Saturday mornings during the summer months, July and August.
Training: We will teach you how to care for trees at the start of every aftercare event. Any necessary equipment, such as scissors, will be made available.

Storyteller
If you are a skilled writer and like to take pictures, we have a job for you! Storytellers attend our events to take pictures, interview volunteers and write stories. Your work will be posted on our website.
Time: Usually two hours at events to collect details and take pictures, plus additional time to write stories and upload photos. At least two stories per year are needed.
Training: One-hour basic training.
36.How many stories does each storyteller need to turn in to Forest London every year?
A. At least one. B. At least two. C. At least three. D. At least four.
37.Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. You should provide some good seeds as a volunteer.
B. If you want to plant trees, you must have a good job.
C. You can have two-hour training before being a volunteer.
D. Volunteers have the chance to look after trees.
38. By writing this passage, the writer mainly wants to _____.
A. introduce people to Forest London
B. talk about the importance of planting trees
C. show available voluntary jobs at Forest London
D. thank Forest London volunteers for their efforts
B
Boyan Slat is a 17-year-old Dutch boy. He has been dreaming of cleaning up the world's oceans for a long time.
In 2010, he went on a diving vacation in Greece and was surprised. “I saw more plastic bags than fish in the water," he said.
From then on, he began to pay more attention to ocean pollution. Slat decided to give up higher education and set up the Ocean Cleanup, a Non-Government Organization. Its purpose is to clean up ocean rubbish. He has set up the world’s first ocean cleanup system with his team.
Every year, over 8 million tons of plastic end up in our oceans, and it can take up to 500 years to break down. In 2018, the World Economic Forum predicted that the weight of ocean plastic would match that of all the fish in our oceans by 2050.
Sea animals easily get trapped in plastic so that they can't move. They can even die if they eat it. Smaller plastic pieces can also enter the food chain and end up in our bodies.
Slat's plan was to create an environmentally-friendly, large system to clear out plastic rubbish from the ocean.
After seven years of tests, on Oct. 2, 2019, a device called System 001/B came out. It successfully caught and collected a large amount of plastic rubbish floating in the ocean.
Slat and his team are working to improve System 001/B. Their dream is to clear out 90 percent of all the ocean plastic by 2040.
39. Boyan Slat found ____________while diving in Greece.
A. it was diffcult to stop ocean pollution
B. there was too much plastic in the ocean
C. sea animals died from plastic pollution
D. ocean pollution was more serious in Greece
40. Paragraph 4 mainly talks about ____________.
A. how serious the plastic problem is in the ocean
B. when plastic in the ocean will break down
C. what we should do to protect the ocean
D. where plastic in the ocean comes from
41. The underlined word “trapped” in Paragraph 5 most probably means __________.
A. surprised B. interested C. excited D. caught
42. What do we know about System 001/B?
A. It will come out by 2040.
B. It was dificult to create this system.
C. It will clean all of the rubbish in the ocean.
D. It only catches small pieces of plastic litter.
C
Nowadays more and more children seem to get lost in a“sea of digital(数字)technology”. As they use digital technology too much, they are losing their ability to do simple things. They can't make toys themselves with hands or help Mum cook dinner. And worst of all, they seem to be losing interest in communicating with others.
“I have talked with a number of teachers. They care about the increasing numbers of young pupils who can play with computers or smart phones, but have few or no skills to make things,” said a teacher, Colin Kinney. “Many pupils can't communicate with other pupils but their parents talk proudly of their ability to use a computer or a smart phone.”
Instead of playing with other children, more and more children are choosing to stay indoors and quietly play on a tablet(平板电脑) on weekends and after school. How can a child grow up to be a very good artist if he doesn’t learn how to use a paintbrush and develop his painting skill? How can a child learn to make friends as he gets older if he doesn't learn to communicate with others at a young age?
Digital technology can be used for good or bad. We can use a stone to either break a window or build a house. We shouldn’t blame the children. We should help them make right choices. It is certainly necessary for children to know how to use digital technology in today's world, but what is more important, we should encourage them to develop social abilities which will do them good when they grow up.
43.What's the worst problem that is mentioned in the first paragraph?
A. Children can't make things themselves.
B. Children make too many friends online.
C. Children don't want to communicate with others.
D. Children don't like helping Mum cook meals at home.
44. According to Colin Kinney, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Teachers don't notice that young pupils have few skills to make things.
B. Many parents are very happy that their kids can use digital technology.
C. Many teachers don't care if young pupils can play computers or tablets.
D. Some parents are worried that their kids use digital technology too much.
45.What do many young children choose to do on weekends and after school?
A. To play on a tablet indoors.
B. To paint with their paintbrushes.
C. To play with other children.
D. To make friends with other children.
46.What does the writer mainly want to tell us?
A. It's very important for children to have social skills.
B. It's very helpful for children to do some housework.
C. It's necessary for parents to learn to use digital technology.
D. It's difficult for teachers to make right choices for their pupils.
D
“What's the name of the supermarket? I can't remember right now.” Have you ever heard your grandparents ask questions like this sometimes? Usually, we think that older people's memory becomes bad because their brains get weak. But now a team of scientists at the University of Tubingen in Germany has a new idea. “The human brain works slower in old age,” says Michael Ramscar, the team's lead scientist, “only because it has stored more information over time.” The findings are based on a series of computer tests related to learning and memory.
Scientists had the computers read a certain amount of words and learn new things each day. When the computer “read" a small amount of data (数据), its performance on cognitive (认知) tests was similar to that of a young adult. But if the computer took in larger amounts of data, its performance was similar to that of an older adult. Often it was slower, but not because its processing ability had dropped. Rather, increased “experience" had caused the computer's database to grow, giving it more data to process－which takes more time. This is similar to how old people process information.
Imagine that one person knows just two people's birthdays and can get them right each time he or she is asked. Another person knows the birthdays of 2,000 people, but can only match the right person to the right birthday 9 times out of 10. Can you say the first person has a better memory than the second person?
“The larger the library you have in your head, the longer it usually takes to find a particular word,” Benedict Carey, a science reporter for The New York Times, wrote in an article about the study.
47.Why is the poor memory of elderly people mentioned at the beginning?
A. To lead in the discussion of memory.
B. To describe the way elderly people live.
C. To express his or her care about the elderly.
D. To draw the public attention to elderly people
48. How did the scientists prove(论证)the new idea?
A. By telling stories. B. By doing experiments.
C. Be making surveys. D. By listing others’ opinions.
49. What does the underlined word “it” refer to?
A. The data. B. The brain. C. The computer. D. The information.
50. What does the text mainly tell us?
A. How computers process data. B. How to improve the memory.
C. Old people can remember things easily. D. Much information makes the brain slower.
第四部分 补全对话（共两节，15分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hello. This is Bob speaking. Who’s that?
B: Hi, Bob. This is Tom. We’ll have a long summer vacation after finishing middle school. 51. ___________
A: Of course, I do. I plan to go to Dali and Lijiang.
B: Sounds great! I know they are good places to relax. 52. ____________
A: I’m going to visit my grandparents in Sichuan. They haven’t seen me for a long time.
B: 53. ___________
A: My parents. And how long will you stay in Dali and Lijiang?
B: 54. __________ There are so many beautiful places to see.
A: 55. __________ Have a good time!
B: You, too.
A. Maybe for two weeks.
B. How about you?
C. Do you have any plans?
D. What will you do during the holiday?
E. How wonderful!
F. Who are you going with?
G. I hope so.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hey, Jenny! 56. ___________________? You don’t look well.
B: You got it! I didn’t get good grades in the test because I was so nervous.
A: 57. ___________________. You should try to be relaxed during the test.
B: You’re right. So, 58. ____________________?
A: Sure. You’d better take a deep breath when you are nervous. And sometimes counting numbers may help.
B: Thanks for your advice. By the way, our foreign teacher is going back to America. Tom and I are going to have a surprise party for her.
A: Really? She’s my favorite teacher.
B: 59. __________________________?
A: I’d love to. 60. ________________________?
B: It will begin at 7:00 p.m. this Sunday.
A: OK. See you then.
B: See you.
第五部分 词语运用（共两节，25分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
用括号中所给单词的适当形式完成句子（每空仅限1个单词）。
61.Beijing Opera brings to life many ancient __________(story) that help shape Chinese culture.
62.It is ________(help) for me to improve my listening by watching English movies. I can get good grades now.
63. Bottle museum is such an interesting place that we have fun_________(visit) it.
64.--Our computer is working again! --Yes, our teacher has ______(fix) it.
65.You look different from what you were ten years ago. You’ve _______(complete) changed.
66.--Why did you leave that position ? --I was__________(offer) a better position in another factory.
67.Everything that you learn becomes a part of you and ________(change) you.
68.Thanks to the __________(invent) of the smart phones, it's convenient to take photos anytime.
69.There is a cinema on the________(four) floor of the shopping centre.
70.If he works hard all the time, the bright future will belong to ______(he).
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Nowadays, foreigners from all over the world live in China. They work here and enjoy Chinese food and culture. They also celebrate Chinese festivals.
Last year, many foreigners who live in Shanghai had a party at Kunlun Jing An Hotel 71 (celebrate) the Mid-Autumn Festival. 72 special festival party was held by the Shanghai government. There were traditional Chinese arts such as sugar painting, paper cutting and Kunqu Opera performances. Traditional festival food, like mooncakes, 73 (be) served during the event.
Some of the foreigners went to the party with their 74 (family).
“I like Chinese culture a lot. It is quite different 75 our culture. And there are so many things in Chinese culture that we can keep on discovering” , said Frenchman Yann Bozec, who went there with his Chinese wife and 11-year-old daughter. “We really enjoyed 76 (we) at the party. It was a really good chance for us to enjoy food and communicate with others.”
Cameron Hume, an Australian, also went to the party with his wife and two daughters. Their daughters were dressed in hanfu.
“They didn’t know anything about China 77 they came here with us three years ago. They looked much 78 (beautiful)in hanfu that day. Our two daughters are interested in Chinese culture. And it is 79 (real) nice to have this opportunity to let them know what Chinese people are like. I hope such events will be 80 (hold) every year,” said Hume.
第六部分 书面表达（15分）
初中生活是多姿多彩的，校园里的一切都会在每个人的心里留下美好的记忆。请根据以下提示，以" My junior high school memories "为题，用英语描述一下你的初中生活。

注意：
（1）词数90词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
（2）可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
（3）文中不得出现反映考生信息的真实人名，地名等内容。
My junior high school memories
School life is always colorful and students have their own memories. I 'll leave my junior school soon. But the colorful life gave me too much beautiful memories.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Goodbye, dear teachers. I will remember all of you forever.

2023年初中学业水平考试二次调研英语试卷
评分说明及作答示例（120分)
第一部分 听力（共两节，20分)
听力：1-5 CDBEA 6-10 ABBBA 11-15 CCCAB 16-20 CCCBA
第二部分 语言知识运用（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分)
完形填空：21-25 CBABA 26-30 CBABC 31-35 ACCBA
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分)
阅读理解：36-38 BDC 39-42 BADB 43-46 CBAA 47-50 ABCD
第四部分 补全对话（共两节，15分)
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分)
51-55 CBFAE
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分)
评分说明：
1.在答案符合题意的前提下，在单句中首字母未大写扣一分：单词拼写错误或因书写渣草导致的字母或单词难以辨认一处扣一分（累计最多扣一分):
2.与以下答案不一致，但符合题意，且表达正确，应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分作答示例：
56. What's wrong/ the trouble/ the matter?/ What happened?/ What's up?
57. Sorry to hear that./ Take it easy./ Don't worry.
58. can you give me some advice/ suggestions?
59. Would you like to go to the party/ go with me?
60. When will the party begin?/ When will the party be held?
第五部分 词语运用（共两节，25分)
第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，共10分)
评分说明：
1.大小写不正确或书写潦草导致的字母或单词难以辨认不给分：
2.如考生写出与参考答案不同但与题目要求相符的单词，且形式正确，应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分。
作答示例：
61. stories 62.helpful 63.visiting 64.fixed 65. completely
66 offered 67 changes 68 invention 69 fourth 70.him
第二节（共10小题；每小题15分，共15分)
71. to celebrate 72.The 73.was 74. Families/family 75.from
76. ourselves 77. until 78. more beautiful 79. really 80. held
第六部分 书面表达（15分)
One Possible Version:
My junior high school memories
School life is always colorful and students have their own memories. I'll leave my junior school soon. But the colorful life gave me too much beautiful memories.
My school is big and beautiful. There are many flowers and trees in the school, and they make me feel fresh. The excitement of sports meeting and worries about tests will remain in my heart for long.
I still remember how difficult Physics is. Sometimes I was afraid of the Physics classes, but our Physics teacher is so patient and kind. She helped me a lot with my study and made me love it.
I also make many good friends and they help me a lot. What's more, I am thankful to the people around me and I will remember all of them forever.
Goodbye, my beautiful school, my lovely friend, and my dear teacher!
评分说明：
(1)本题总分15分，按各档次给分。评分时先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(2)评分时应考虑：内容要点是否完整；时态、语态以及人称是否正确，词汇和句式的多样性以及语言的准确性：上下文的连贯性。
(3)如书写较差，影响表达，应视其影响程度，降低一到两个档次：英美两种拼法及词汇用法都可接受。
(4)内容要点可用不同方式表达；应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。
2.各档次的给分范围和要求：
第三档
(11~15分)
(1)能按要求完成试题规定的全部任务；
(2)能运用正确的时态、较高级的词汇及多样的句型结构，体现了较强的
语言运用能力；
(3)逻辑清楚，表意清晰。
第二档
(6-10分)
(1)只完成了试题规定的部分任务；
(2)语法、词汇、句式有些许错误，但不影响对所写内容的理解；
(3)逻辑基本清楚，表意基本清晰。
第一档
(0-5分)
(1)漏掉或根本未完成试题规定的任务；
(2)语法、词汇、句式存在严重错误，严重影响了对所写内容的理解；
(3)逻辑不清楚，表意不清晰。