广东省广州市第三中学2023-2024学年九年级上学期期中英语试题

这是一份广东省广州市第三中学2023-2024学年九年级上学期期中英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁， A， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

本试卷共五大题，7页，满分90分，考试时间90分钟。
注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的考生号、姓名、试室号、座位号，再用2B铅笔把对应这两个号码的标号涂黑。
2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需要改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选择其它答案。不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域的相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，再写上新的答案，改动的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。
一、 语法选择（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从16-30各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A wise man was n his lng jurney with a yung man. Night was falling, s they decided t find a place1 . They searched fr a lng time and at last fund a tiny ld huse. A pr family lived in it. They gave the tw visitrs a warm welcme and prepared a simple meal 2 them including fresh milk and cheese.
After the meal, the wise man asked hw they made a living in such a pr place. In a lw vice the husband replied, “We have 3 cw. We sell her milk t ur neighbrs and keep sme fr 4wn needs — make sme cheese and cream.”
The next mrning, the tw visitrs cntinued their jurney. 5 they walked a few miles, the wise man said t the yung man, “G back and push the cw ff the cliff(悬崖).” “Why? Withut the cw, they 6 nthing.” The wise man repeated his rder, “G back and7 the cw.”
The yung man was 8abut the future f the family. 9finally he returned t the ld huse and did as the wise man tld him.
A few years later, the yung man10n the same rad. He decided t visit the family again. T his 11, he saw a large huse with a beautiful garden there.
He kncked n the dr and a well-dressed man answered it. He was the sn f the family. The man invited him t enter the huse and tld him12 their life changed. “Yu knw, we had 13but a cw t keep us alive years ag. But ne day she fell ff the cliff and died. We had t cme up with new ways f 14 a living. Yu see, we are much 15 than befre.” At his wrds, the yung man smiled.
( ) 1. A. t stay B. stay C. staying D. stays
( ) 2. A. with B. fr C. t D. by
( ) 3. A. a B. an C. the D. /
( ) 4. A. we B. us C. ur D. urs
( ) 5. A. While B. When C. If D. After
( ) 6. A. will have B. have C. having D. has
( ) 7. A. killed B. kill C. t kill D. killing
( ) 8. A. wrry B. wrries C. wrried D. wrriedly
( ) 9. A. S B. And C. Althugh D. But
( ) 10. A. travelled B. travels C. travelling D. has travelled
( ) 11. A. surprised B. surprise C. surprisedly D. surprising
( ) 12. A. what B. when C. hw D. where
( ) 13. A. anything B. smething C. everything D. nthing
( ) 14. A. making B. make C. made D. t making
( ) 15. A. gd B. better C. best D. well
二、 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从31～40各题所给的A、B、C和D项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A yung man went fr a jb interview in a big cmpany. The manager fund that the yung man’s cllege grades were excellent. Then he asked the yung man wh paid fr his 16. The yung man tld the manager that his parents did and they 17 as laundry(洗衣店) wrkers.
The manager nticed that the yung man’s hands were smth(光滑的) and18 . He asked, “Have yu ever helped yur parents wash clthes?”
“N. My parents always make me 19 . Besides, they wash clthes faster than I d.”
The manager asked the yung man t g back hme and wash his parents’20 . When he gt hme, he tld his parents that he wanted t wash their hands. His parents felt surprised but 21 . Then the yung man began t wash their hands slwly.
He was in tears. He 22 his parents’hands were s rugh and pale because f washing a lt f clthes in the cld water. There were als many injuries(伤口) in their hands. After washing his parents’hands, the yung man quietly washed all the 23 clthes.
The next mrning, the yung man went t the manager’s ffice. The manager nticed the yung man’s 24 hands. He tld the yung man that he was 25 .
( ）16. A. jurney B. training C. educatin D. prgramme
( ) 17. A. wrked B. knew C. mved D. practised
( ) 18. A. dirty B. perfect C. ugly D. strng
( ) 19. A. wrk B. bey C. share D. study
( ) 20. A. clthes B. feet C. hands D. dishes
( ) 21. A. srry B. happy C. angry D. sad
( ) 22. A. fundB. made C. expected D. tuched
( ) 23. A. sellingB. missing C. remaining D. lasting
( ) 24. A. nice B. pale C. perfect D. cmmn
( ) 25. A. refused B. included C. prmised D. accepted
三、阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
(A)
26. When did Nelsn Mandela get ut f prisn?
A. In 1969.B. In 1994.C. In 1999. D. It’s nt mentined.
27. Why is Nelsn Mandela a great man?
A. He was the first man t land n the Mn.
B. He was the funder f the first Republic f Suth Africa.
C. He helped black peple get the same rights as white peple.
D. He fught against American invaders during Wrld War II.
28. Which f the fllwing is true accrding t the article?
A. Man landed n the Mn fr the first time in July 1969.
B. Nelsn Mandela fught all his life fr the freedm f the Chinese peple.
C. Famus peple are all willing t help thers.
D. Famus peple must be great peple.
(B)
In a list f child prdigies(神童), Judit Plgár is an interesting example. Her father, László, an educatinal psychlgist, believed that prdigies were nt brn with high intelligence qutient (IQ). It was the result f prper training. He said that any child culd be remarkable at an early age if given the right schling and he even wrte a bk called Raise a Genius!
László’s ideas might sund strange and unusual at the time, but when all three f László’s daughters turned ut t be chess prdigies, nbdy laughed at him. Judit and her sisters were taught at hme as part f an educatinal experiment by their father László. Besides studying languages, they learned t play chess. By the time she was five, Judit culd beat her father at chess. Raised in an envirnment f cntinuing chess practice, the Plgár sisters became better and better at chess cmpetitins.
At that time, it was widely believed that men were much mre excellent chess players than wmen. Hwever, László’s daughters changed the pinin. The eldest daughter, Susan, became the tp wman player in the wrld at age 15. In January 1991, she was the first wman ever t get a grandmaster rank(大师级别) n the same level as men players.
But she was sn beaten by the yungest Plgár sister, Judit. In December 1991, the 15-year-ld Judit became the yungest player ever t get the rank f grandmaster, breaking the recrd set by Bbby Fischer in 1958. During her career, Judit avided wmen’s-nly events. Instead, she fcused n playing against the best men players in the wrld, ften with great success. In 2005, she reached eighth in the cmpetitin f the tp players in chess, becming the nly wman ever t reach the tp ten. “I played against men because it was challenging and interesting, and I felt I culd imprve the fastest and the best against them. It’s very imprtant t knw what yur gals and dreams are,” said Judit.
29. The underlined wrd “remarkable” in Paragraph 1 can be replaced by “_______”.
A. strangeB. excellent C. pleasant D. faithful
30. Hw did László deal with his daughters’ educatin?
A. He asked excellent teachers t teach them.
B. He sent them t schl t learn t play chess.
C. He taught them languages and chess at hme.
D. He did a lt f experiments tgether with them.
31. What did mst peple think f wmen chess players at that time?
A. They were nt as gd as men players.
B. They were much better than men players.
C. They were nt allwed t play against men players.
D. They ften brke the recrds set by men players.
32. What can we learn frm the last paragraph?
A. Judit’s dream was t beat her sister Susan in the chess cmpetitin.
B. Judit thught wmen’s-nly events were challenging and interesting.
C. Judit played against Bbby Fischer and wn the cmpetitin.
D. Judit imprved herself by playing chess against men players.
(C)
When Claire Vlases f Mntana was in Grade 7, she learned abut plans t mdernize her middle schl. Claire asked the schl bard(董事会)t add slar panels(太阳能电池板) t the prject because, she explained, clean energy wuld be helpful t a really mdern schl.
The bard liked the idea but said it culd ffer just $ 25,000—ne-fifth f the cst. S Claire rganized a grup f kids and grwn-ups wh set t wrk raising the rest. They sld their secnd-hand bks, put n talent shws and asked fr dnatins(捐赠), even ging dr-t-dr fr them. One dnated mre than half the cst!
After tw years f hard wrk, the grup paid fr the slar panels, which nw prvide ne-furth f the schl’s electricity needs—saving the neighburhd thusands f dllars. “My favurite part abut this prject was that ne persn culd start smething small and then the prject culd grw and have a big influence n the cmmunity,” Claire said. “There are always ging t be hard parts. When there’s a challenge presented t yu, yu can use it as a chance t learn frm it.”
33. After knwing the prject was still in need f mney, what did Claire d?
A. She raised $ 25,000.
B. She asked fr mre help.
C. She sld ld newspapers.
D. She dnated half the cst.
34. . What des the underlined wrd “them” in the secnd paragraph refer t?
A. Slar panels. B. Secnd-hand bks.
C. Shws. D. Dnatins.
35.. Frm Claire’s wrds in the last paragraph, what can we learn?
A. Hard wrk was her favurite.
B. The prject went smthly.
C. A small thing makes a big difference.
D. Slar panels cst a lt.
36. What wuld be the best title fr the text?
A. dependent girl
B. A mdern schl
C. Dn’t waste energy
D. Never give up
(D)
Yang Hngwei, brn in 1966, is an inheritr (传承人) f the Weifang kite-making technique (技艺). Brn int a kite-making family, Yang ften saw kites with bright clurs and different shapes in her grandfather’s wrkshp.
Yang learned the technique frm her grandfather at the age f 16. After practising the technique fr 10 years, she started her wn shp in 1992.
“Many places arund the wrld have a traditin f flying kites,” Yang said. “But I think the cultural backgrund behind ur kites is unique.”
On Yang’s kites, peple can see nt nly cmmn designs like butterflies and birds, but als sme prints telling Chinese myths and histry. Fr example, she nce made a kite shwing a phenix (凤凰) that was lined with prtraits (肖像) f 50 famus wmen frm Chinese histry n each side.
Yang said that each wman is different in lk, clthes and make-up style. T create their prtraits, she made lts f effrt t check histrical recrds and talk abut details with prfessinals.
“It tk me a lt f time,” Yang said, “but when I explain the stries f the kites t freign peple, I feel a great sense f achievement.”
In her free time, she travels t different cuntries including Germany, Australia, the United States and New Zealand t tell peple stries f Chinese kites and the traditinal ways they are made. “It is an imprtant jb f mine t spread ur heritage (遗产) arund the wrld and nt the next generatin,” she said.
37. Hw ld was Yang Hngwei when she began her wn shp?
A. 10.B. 16. C. 26.D. 57.
38. What’s the meaning f the underlined wrd “unique” in Paragraph 3?
A. The same.B. Special. C. Usual.D. Cmmn.
39. What patterns may NOT be n Yang’s kites?
A. Butterflies.
B. Birds.
C. Chinese characters.
D. Freign stars.
40. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. The nly inheritr f traditinal skills.
B. The imprtance f Chinese traditin.
C. An inheritr f the Weifang kite-making technique.
D. Hw t spread ur heritage arund the wrld.
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读短文及文后A-E选项，选出可以填入56-60各题空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Have yu ever heard the saying “Hme, sweet hme”? This is just anther way f saying that it’s nice t be hme! A lt f the peple and things we lve are at hme.
What d yu like abut being at hme?
What d yu like best abut being at hme? 41 Maybe yu enjy staying with yur mum and dad. Maybe yu have a pet yu like t play with. Spending time with yur family is ne thing that makes being at hme special.
42 Yur tys, yur bks, and yur favurite things are in yur bedrm. Cnsider what yu like best abut yur rm. Is it hw it lks? Is it yur cmfrtable bed that yu sleep n? Maybe yu like t have a quiet place t read a bk r t think abut yur day.
Mealtime can be a special time at hme. 43 It’s a time t share interesting stries abut yur day.
Hw d yu help at hme?
There are a lt f things t d t make hme a special place. Wh des the husewrk like cleaning, cking, and yardwrk(庭院劳动) at yur huse?
44 . Maybe yu can help lay the dinner table r clean the plates. Maybe yu can pull weeds(草) ut f the flwer garden. Maybe yu can water the vegetable garden r the huse plants. 45 .
A. When families wrk tgether t d the husewrk, it seems easier and brings mre fun t everyne.
B. Families sit arund the table t eat the fd Mum r Dad has prepared.
C. Maybe yu like t play with yur brthers and sisters.
D. Think abut what yu can d, s that when yu cme hme every day, yu can say, “Hme, sweet hme!”
E. Yur bedrm is anther thing that makes hme special.
五、 写作（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读短文，根据上下文和所给的首字母写出所缺单词。注意使用正确形式，每空限填一词。答卷时，要求写出完整单词。
When I was grwing up, I did nt recall hearing the wrds “I lve yu” frm my father. T tell (46)______truth, I never (47) e______ my father t say these wrds. And I culd nt remember when I had last said thse wrds t him, (48) e______. Last week, I made a (49) d______ t make the first mve. After sme hesitatin(犹豫), in ur next phne cnversatin, I spke ut the wrds, “Dad, I lve yu!” There was an awkward(尴尬的) silence at the ther end and he replied, “Well, I lve yu t!” A few weeks later, as we met each ther and we realized that this special mment had taken ur father-sn relatinship much clser. S please dn’t frget t shw yur lve t yur parents. Saying “I lve yu” is never ut f (50) d______.
46._________ 47._________ 48._________ 49._________ 50._________
第二节 完成句子（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所给的汉语内容，用英语完成下列句子。(每空只写一词)
51. 谢谢你对本次活动的帮助。
Thank yu fr _________ ________ this activity.
52. 学校通常会给学生设定规章制度。
Schls usually ________ ________ fr the students.
53. 这些提示真有用啊！
_______ ________ these tips are!
54. 看，他们有麻烦了。
Lk, they are _____ _______.
55. 我的妈妈上周买了一件新外套，它是羊毛制成的。
My mther bught a new cat last week and it ____ ______ ___ wl
第三节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
假设你是Jimmy，请根据以下内容写一篇短文介绍你的家庭生活。
Hell everyne. My name is _________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2023-2024学年第一学期初三 期中练习卷
英语(答案)
一、 语法选择（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
1--5 ABACD 6--10 ABCDA 11--15 BCDAB
三、 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
16--20 CABDC 21--25 BACBD
四、阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
26--28 DCA 20 29--32 BCAD 14 33-36 BDCD 37--40 CBDC
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
41-45 CEBAD
五、 写作（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
（评分原则：写出词根，但形式错误扣0.5分。）
46. the 47. expected 48. either 49. decisin 50. date
完成句子（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
（评分原则：1、大小写错误扣0.5分。2、写出词根，但形式错误扣0.5分。）
51. helping（1分） with（1分）
52. set（1分） rules（1分）
53. Hw（1分）useful（1分）
54. in（1分）truble（1分）
55. was （1分）made（0.5分） f（0.5分）
第三节 书面表达（共15分）
参考范文
My name is Jimmy. There are three peple in my family — my father, my mther and me. We are clse t each ther and we share husewrk tgether. My mther cks the meals and washes all the clthes. My father helps with the dishes and cleans the kitchen after meals while I sweep the flr and irn the clthes. On weekends, we g t the park t have a picnic and take sme beautiful pictures. What’s mre, we g t the supermarket and ck a great meal tgether.
书面表达评分细则说明：
采用整体评分法与要素评分法相结合。评分时从提示内容、语言准确性和流畅性三个方面确定考生答案所属档次。
1．内容上： 保证所说的内容覆盖了提示内容，并按要求自主拓展。(6分；请看内容分值分配)
2．准确性：从词汇丰富、得体性，以及语法、句型正确性等方面整体考虑、综合给分；（6分）
3．流畅性：结构、上下文的连贯性、用词造句的流畅度和表达的得体性等，文章是否有亮点等等。（3分）
参考：内容分评分要求
评分标准
内容
（1）覆盖所有内容要点，并能围绕要点内容有一定发挥，给6分；
（2）漏掉一个内容要点，但基本上还是围内容要点进行，给4分；
（3）因未能正确理解要点提示，而漏掉或未写清楚主要内容，写了一些无关内容，给2~ 1分；
（4）只传达了个别信息；或内容太少（只出现有一个句子或个别单词、短语，但与内容相关），给0.5分；
（5）未能传达任何信息；或内容太少（只出现有一个句子或个别单词、短语，与内容无关），给0分。
2)准确性
几乎没有语法错误，语言表达准确，卷面美观，但可能有个别拼写或标点符号等错误。给6分;
所运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，卷面书写清晰，有两至三个拼写与标点符号等错误。错误的主要原因是尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。给5.5 ~ 5分;
语法结构单调，词汇较贫乏，有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的表达，字迹基本清楚，拼写和标点符号错误较多。给4 ~ 3分;
语法结构单调，词汇量少，有较多的语法结构或词汇的用法错误，不能正确表达内容要点，字迹难以辨别，单词拼写和标点符号很多。给2 ~ 1分;
只写出个别句子或单词，词不达意，不成文，字迹不清（或中英文混杂），卷面混乱。给0分。
3）流畅性
短文结构组织严谨，应用了较复杂的语言结构，上下文意思连贯。给3分；
短文结构组织比较紧凑，应用了较简单的语言结构，上下文意思基本连贯。给2.5分；
短文结构组织有些混乱，应用了较简单的语言结构，上下文意思有些不连贯，但表达不大流畅，给2分；
短文结构组织比较混乱，较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性，只能描述部分的要点，给1.5~ 1分；
短文结构组织混乱，没有使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性，只能描述，给0.5分；
只写出个别句子或单词，缺乏语句之间的连接成分，谈不上文章中句子之间的联系。语无伦次，不知所云，无法成文或传递完整的信息的，给0分。
个人信息
名字（0.5分）
年龄（0.5分）
国籍（0.5分）
外貌
个儿高，强壮（0.5分）
褐色短发（0.5分）
家庭
爸爸，妈妈和妹妹（1分）
喜欢的科目和爱好
喜欢的科目：英语、数学（1分）
爱好：做运动，最喜欢足球和篮球（1分）
理想
当一名工程师（0.5分）