陕西省榆林市横山区横山中学等三校联考2023-2024学年八年级上学期期中检测英语试题
展开八年级英语
注意事项:
1.本试卷共8页,满分120分,时间120分钟,学生直接在试题上答卷;
2.答卷前请将装订线内的项目填写清楚。
第一部分(听力 共30分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一节:听下面10段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。(共10小题,计10分)
( )1.A.Birds. B.Trees. C.Mnkeys.
( )2.A.5067789.B.5067782.C.5066798.
( )3.A.Mike. B.Mike’s brther. C.Mike’s mther.
( )4.A.Great. B.Terrible. C.Bring.
( )5.A.Rainy. B.Sunny. C.Snwy.
( )6.A.A dress. B.A mdel plane. C.A special stamp.
( )7.A.Teacher and student.B.Grandpa and granddaughter.C.Father and daughter.
( )8.A.By plane. B.By train. C.By car.
( )9.A.Because he has t take a cking class.
B.Because he has t watch a ck prgram.
C.Because he has t ck fr his family.
( )10.A.7:00 p. m. B.8:00 p. m. C.9:00 p. m.
第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几道小题,请根据对话的内容,从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共5小题,计10分)
听第11段对话,回答第11、12小题。
( )11.What can we knw abut the ping-png players?
A.They are tw rbts.B.They are tw kids.C.They are tw sprts players.
( )12.Hw much shuld they pay fr the tickets?
A.8 yuan.B.10 yuan.C.16 yuan.
听第12段对话,回答第13至15小题。
( )13.What des Lisa lk like?
A.She is tall. B.She is shrt. C.She has black hair.
( )14.Which subject is Lisa gd at?
A.Maths. B.Science. C.English.
( )15.What des Lisa’s father d?
A.A dctr. B.A teacher. C.A player.
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题,计10分)
本题你将听到一段独白,读两遍。请根据独白内容,用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。(每空不超过三个单词。)
16.This is the ______ f the questin abut the best places in the twn.
17.Bank f China has the ______.
18.There are ______ clthes stres.
19.Peple can buy things ______ at Star Clthes Stre.
20.Peple ften have dumplings fr ______ at Da Zhng Restaurant.
第二部分(笔试 共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题,计20分)
第一节:阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文连贯完整。
I think that a great friend can change my feeling (感受) abut life.
When I was in university, ne f my 21 sat beside me. His name is Wang Ta. He is my 22 friend in my life. He is gd 23 study and handsme. Everyne knws that he is a genius (天才) f 24 university. He is kind-hearted and is always ready t help thers. There is 25 ld saying: A friend in need is a friend indeed. Wang Ta sets a gd example. I remembered that my math 26 bad at that time. He-was nice t answer my -math -questins and help me ut. At last, I 27 high scres in the exam.
We knw that we live in the wrld full f peple, 28 we need a lt f friends. Bad friends may make ur life terrible, while gd nes help t make ur life better. I am 29 happy t have Wang Ta in my life. I can learn a lt frm him, and I want 30 a better persn like him.
( )21.A.classmate B.classmates C.parent D.parents
( )22.A.best B.better C.wrst D.wrse
( )23.A.n B.in C.at D.t
( )24.A.we B.us C.urselves D.ur
( )25.A.a B.an C./ D.the
( )26.A.are B.were C.is D.was
( )27.A.get B.gt C.gets D.am getting
( )28.A.s B.because C.but D.if
( )29.A.quietly B.quiet C.truly D.true
( )30.A.win B.t win C.becme D.t becme
第二节:阅读下面短文,理解大意,然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文连贯完整。
Mari was a little by. He lves cmedies very much and hpes t becme a cmedy 31 ne day.
When he heard abut the cmpetitin at his schl, Mari 32 t take part in. But his classmate Peter said t him, “Yu are nt funny at all. Yu can’t make peple 33 . Nbdy will like yur shw!” Mari felt 34 . But he remembered hw much his friends liked his 35 , and als his teachers said he was very funny. S he started t 36 fr the shw.
Mari did a great jb at the cmpetitin. 37 liked it, and he wn the first prize! As years went n, Mari met sme peple like Peter. 38 , mst peple liked him and sme helped him t becme even funnier. He gt a lt f chances t act in mvies. His fans thanked him because his cmedies gave them 39 when they met terrible things.
Nw Mari is a cmedy star! We can learn frm Mari that as lng as we wrk hard, we will be 40 . S just be yurself!
( )31.A.actr B.magician C.teacher D.student
( )32.A.frgt B.decided C.remembered D.seemed
( )33.A.try B.swing C.dance D.laugh
( )34.A.sad B.happy C.hungry D.necessary
( )35.A.sngs B.jkes C.bks D.pictures
( )36.A.die B.reach C.practice D.happen
( )37.A.Nbdy B.Smebdy C.Anybdy D.Everybdy
( )38.A.Cheaply B.Luckily C.Beautifully D.Really
( )39.A.actin B.army C.hpe D.grade
( )40.A.pr B.meaningless C.similar D.successful
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节:阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料,从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。(共10小题,计15分)
(A)
( )41.When is the New Student Talent Shw?
A.On Friday. B.On Saturday. C.On Sunday. D.On Mnday.
( )42.Hw lng will the shw last?
A.Fr half an hur. B.Fr an hur.C.Fr ne and a half hurs. D.Fr tw hurs.
( )43.If yu want t jin the shw, yu can ______.
A.call 496-1201 fr helpB.wrk at the Student Supprt Office
C.send a vide t Talent Shw@byui.eduD.g t Schl Center n Nvember 27th
(B)
What t eat
What fd shuld yu eat in ur daily life? It is very imprtant. Keeping gd eating habits can help yu stay healthy. A healthy diet (饮食) means chsing right fds t eat and cking them in a healthy way. S, hw t chse the right fd is very imprtant. Als, yu shuld have gd breakfast and healthy lunch. Eat less fr supper.
Change tthbrush (牙刷)
Tthbrush is gd fr yur health. I believe yu use tthbrush every day. D yu ften change yur tthbrush? Yu may think it is nt necessary. A study shws ld tthbrushes bring illness. Yu shuld ften change yur tthbrush. Yu’d better change yur tthbrush nce a mnth.
Exercise
There are many ways t exercise—swimming, running, skating, skiing, dancing and walking. All f them can help yu keep healthy. Yu can als chse smething yu like. Yu shuld exercise at least three times a week and fr twenty minutes r mre each time. It’s nt easy t keep exercise as a life-lng habit. But if yu succeed, yu will get a healthy bdy. D it frm nw n.
( )44.What’s a healthy diet?
A.Cking fd in the way yu like.
B.Drinking as much water as yu can.
C.Eating as many gd fds as yu can.
D.Chsing right fds and cking them in a healthy way.
( )45.The writer suggests changing the tthbrush ______.
A.nce a mnth B.twice a mnthC.every tw mnths D.every three mnths
( )46.Which sprt is NOT mentined (提到) in the passage?
A.Swimming. B.Climbing. C.Dancing. D.Running.
( )47.The passage is mainly abut ______.
A.ways f ding exercise B.hw t brush teeth
C.healthy life habits D.the imprtance f healthy diet
(C)
Friends are imprtant. Friends are there t help us in difficult times and share happiness with us in gd times. Friendship is nt nly imprtant fr peple, but als fr the wrld. When we see peple different frm us as friends, it helps create peace (和平).
Internatinal Day f Friendship started in 1958.Dr. Ramn Artemi Brach and his friends in Paraguay (巴拉圭) wanted t shw hw friendship culd bring peace. In 2011, the UN made 30th July the Internatinal Day f Friendship.
Different cuntries have their wn Friendship Days. Paraguay celebrates (庆祝) n 30th July, while Argentina, Brazil, and Spain celebrate n 20th July. India and the US celebrate n the first Sunday in August. In Finland and Estnia, Friendship Day is n the same day as Valentine’s Day, 14th February.
On this day, friends get tgether. They have meals, send small gifts r greetings nline t shw their lve t each ther. The celebratins may be different, but they all remind us f the imprtance f friends and the pwer f friendship.
( )48.Brazil and Spain celebrate Friendship Day n ______.
A.20th JulyB.30th July
C.14th February D.the first Sunday in August
( )49.The underlined wrd “remind” means “______” in Chinese.
A.忘记 B.提醒 C.覆盖 D.制作
( )50.What is the best title (标题) fr this passage?
A.Hw t Make FriendsB.The Way t Develp Friendship
C.The Histry f Different CuntriesD.Internatinal Day f Friendship
第二节:根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(共5小题,计5分)
If yu can’t get alng well with yur neighburs (邻居), yu will make yur life terrible day after day. But if yu take the time t develp a gd relatinship with yur neighburs, 51.______. Here are sme suggestins fr yu t be a gd neighbur.
◎52.______, intrduce yurself. Say hell, ffer a welcme gift and share r ask abut the places arund the area.
◎Keep yur pet dg n a leash (皮带)53.______, especially if they have a pet f their wn.
◎When yu park yur car, 54.______r leave them very small parking space. Dn’t slam (猛关) yur car drs late at night.
Really gd neighburs lk after each ther. They ften ffer t help each ther when it is necessary. 55.______.
Ⅴ.完成句子:根据所给汉语意思,用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。(共5小题,计10分)
56.看一下菜单,选一个你最喜欢的。
Lk at the ______ and chse yur favrite.
57.你应该认真对待你的健康问题。
Yu shuld take yur health prblems ______.
58.中央大街是这个城市的主要道路。
The Center Street is the ______ street f this city.
59.如果我们多和父母沟通,他们会觉得我们在意他们。
If we talk with ur parents mre ften, they will feel we ______ them.
60.中国文化越来越受欢迎,比如剪纸和中国功夫。
Chinese culture is getting mre and mre ppular, ______ paper-cutting and Chinese kung fu.
Ⅵ.短文填空:用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,使短文完整正确。(每个单词限用一次,每空限填一个单词。)(共10小题,计10分)
I tk a trip t Shanghai with my mther during the seven-day hliday. It tk us mre than tw 61.______ t drive t Shanghai frm my hme in Suzhu. Shanghai 62.______ a busy and large city. Its ppulatin (人口) is ver 24 millin. That’s 63.______ than the ppulatin f many ther cities in China.
On the first day, I just 64.______ in the htel and relaxed. On the 65.______ day, my mther and I went t Nanjing Rad. It is the busiest street in Shanghai. We walked frm ne shp t anther. My mther 66.______ me tw T-shirts and tw pairs f trusers fr the cming summer. She als fund a beautiful dress fr 67.______. On the third day, she tk me t Shanghai Disney Resrt. I tk many phts there. I had a (n) 68.______ time.
Fr the ther days, we went t sme ther 69.______ places, such as the Oriental Pearl TV Twer and the Huangpu River. I didn’t frget t d my hmewrk 70.______ in the evening. I had a full and happy hliday.
Ⅶ.任务型阅读:阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成下列各题。(共5小题,计10分)
71.What is Rcker?
He is a ______________________________.
72.Hw many peple advice Andy t g t San Antni?
______________________________ peple advice Andy t g t San Antni.
73.Wh has the mst “likes” amng the fur peple?
______________________________ has the mst “likes”.
74.Which seasn des Traveler suggest Andy shuld visit?
Traveler suggests that he shuld visit in ______________________________.
75.Why des Andy pst his questin?
Because he wants t ______________________________.
Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题,计5分)
根据下面对话中的情境,在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句,使对话恢复完整。
A: Hell, Henry. 76.______?
B: Hi, Diana. My weekend was great. What abut yurs?
A: It was fantastic. I went t the park.
B: T the park? 77.______?
A: With my friends.
B: 78.______?
A: We did sme singing and dancing there.
B: What did yu sing and dance fr?
A: We wanted t cllect sme mney fr peple in pr areas.
B: 79.______. Can I jin yu in that activity next time?
A: 80.______. We g there every weekend. Next Saturday yu can g with me.
Ⅸ.书面表达(共1题,计15分)
假如你是李华,你刚刚收到英国笔友Peter发来的邮件,他想知道你最喜欢的电视节目。请你结合以下提示,用英语回复一封邮件,介绍你最喜欢的一个电视节目,喜欢的原因以及你的收获。
提示:1.What is yur favrite TV prgram?
2.Why d yu like it?
3.What can yu learn frm it?
参考词汇:Animal Wrld, News, Science Wrld, cartns, mvies, get knwledge (知识),interesting, make me laugh, ...
要求:1.可选择使用参考词汇,亦可适当发挥;
2.语句通顺,意思连贯,书写工整;
3.文中不得出现你的任何真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等);
4.词数:不少于60词。(开头和结尾已给出,但不计入总词数)
Dear Peter,
I wuld like t tell yu smething abut my favrite TV prgram tday. _________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
What is yur favrite TV prgram? I’m lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li Hua
试卷类型:D(人教版)
2023~2024学年度第一学期期中调研试题(卷)
八年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分(听力共30分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
1.B 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.C
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.B
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
16.result 17.best service 18.fur/4 19.cheaply 20.dinner
第二部分(笔试共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题,每小题1分,计20分)
21.B 22.A 23.C 24.D 25.B 26.D 27.B 28.A 29.C 30.D
31.A 32.B 33.D 34.A 35.B 36.C 37.D 38.B 39.C 40.D
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,计15分)
A) 41.B 42.C 43.C
B) 44.D 45.A 46.B 47.C
C) 48.A 49.B 50.D
第二节(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
51.D 52.B 53.E 54.A 55.G
Ⅴ.完成句子(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
56.menu 57.seriusly 58.main 59.care abut 60.such as
Ⅵ.短文填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
61.hurs 62.is 63.larger 64.stayed 65.secnd
66.bught 67.herself 68.enjyable 69.famus 70.carefully
Ⅶ.任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
71.musician 72.Three/3 73.Susan 74.spring r fall
75.ask fr advice/ suggestins/tips abut the tw cities/t knw mre infrmatin abut the tw cities (该题为开放性试题,言之有理即可得分)
Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
76.Hw was yur weekend 77.Wh did yu g there with
78.What did yu d there 79.That’s great/Sunds nice
80.Of curse/Sure(答案不唯一,符合题意即可)
Ⅸ.书面表达(共1题,计15分)
参考范文:
Dear Peter,
I wuld like t tell yu smething abut my favrite TV prgram tday.
Like many students, I enjy watching TV. Of all TV prgrams, my favrite is Animal Wrld. It is abut all kinds f animals all ver the wrld. Why d I like watching it? First, I like animals very much. At the same time, I can get a lt f knwledge abut animals by watching it. I als understand animals have their wrld by the prgram, and they can be bth happy and sad. I als learn that many animals are in great danger. We shuld lve and prtect them. The prgram is really great, isn’t it?
What is yur favrite TV prgram? I’m lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li Hua
听力材料
Ⅰ.听选答案
第一节:听下面10段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
1.W: What did yu see when yu were at the park?
M: I saw many trees.
Q: What did the by see at the park?
2.W: Hell, Rbert. Can yu tell me Haley’s phne number?
M: Sure. Her phne number is 5067782.
Q: What is Haley’s phne number?
3.W: Mike, the banana cake lks nice. Did yu make it by yurself?
M: N, my mm made it fr me.
Q: Wh made the cake?
4.W: Tell me abut the sccer game! What d yu think f it?
M: Great. Our team wn! 1 .00
Q: Hw des the by like the sccer game?
5.W: I heard yu went t the Munt Hua yesterday. Did yu climb t the tp?
M: N. It started t rain in the afternn, s we went back.
Q: What was the weather like yesterday afternn?New Student Talent Shw
Dn’t miss the New Student Talent Shw! It’ll shw the talent f new students. It will be n Saturday, Nvember 25th, 2023, frm 8:30 p. m.—10:00 p. m. Are yu interested in shwing yur talent?
If yu want t auditin (试唱) fr the shw, yu can:
◆ Send a vide f yur talent t Talent Shw@byui.edu
◆ Jin the Talent Shw Auditins n Friday, Nvember 24th, 9:00 a. m.—2:30 p. m. in the Schl Center (Rm 201).
If yu have any questins abut the shw, write an e-mail r call the Student Supprt Office at 496-1420.
A.be sure nt t blck (阻挡) anyne’s drway
B.If yu are new in the neighburhd
C.Yu shuld always be nice t thers
D.yu’ll have a friendly and safe neighburhd
E.if it has a habit f running wildly
F.Dn’t make any nises
G.Great neighburs lead t great neighburhds
be
stay
her
tw
careful
famus
buy
enjy
large
hur
Times>Frum (论坛)>Opinins
Andy
Austin r San Antni?
Hi! I live in Mexic and I plan t visit my uncle in Dallas, Texas, next mnth. I’d like t visit Austin r San Antni fr a few days. I like the utdr activities, music, gd fd, friendly peple, etc. Any tips are welcme.
pst time: Sep 16 19:06
Rcker: I’m a musician and live in Austin. I think the music here is the best in Texas. In fact, Austin is als called “The live music capital f the wrld”. I can send yu the names f sme cl music clubs. We have fantastic restaurants here, t.
1 pst time: Sep 16 19:23
Biker 68: Definitely (当然) visit San Antni. The river walk is ne f the mst ppular things fr visitrs t d. There’s a lt t d utdrs, t. And everyne in Texas is very friendly. See my phts.
1 pst time: Sep 16 20:54
Susan: I disagree with Rcker. I think music is better in San Antni. I have lived in bth cities. There is a lt t d utdrs in Austin, but there is just mre t d in San Antni.
3 pst time: Sep 16 23:09
Traveler: San Antni has the best fd in Texas. D yu like Tex-Mex fd? Yu shuld g in spring r fall. Summer is ht! I suggest travelling by bus. It’s nt expensive.
0 pst time: Sep 17 10:31
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