还剩5页未读，
继续阅读
陕西省西安市第三中学名校联考2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题
展开
这是一份陕西省西安市第三中学名校联考2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（考试时间：120分钟 分值：120分）
第一部分（听力 共30分）
Ⅰ. 听选答案（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的选项中选出最恰当的一项（共10小题，计10分）
( ) 1. A. A scientist.B. An actr.C. An inventr.
( ) 2. A. Watch mre mvies.B. D mre exercise.C. Keep a diary every day.
( ) 3. A. At the man’s huse.B. At the wman’s huse.C. At a farm.
( ) 4. A. Sunny.B. Cludy.C. Windy.
( ) 5. A. It’s bring.B. It’s relaxing.C. It’s meaningful.
( ) 6. A. A waiter.B. A dctr.C. A teacher.
( ) 7. A. The blue ne.B. The red ne.C. The black ne.
( ) 8. A. Saturday.B. Sunday.C. Wednesday.
( ) 9. A. Visit the sick children.B. Clean the city park.C. Visit his grandparents.
( ) 10. A. Ck them.B. Eat them.C. Mix them up.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，计10分）
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
( ) 11. Wh likes playing tennis?
A. Tm.B. Ann.C. Alice.
( ) 12. What des the girl think f playing basketball?
A. Interesting.B. Difficult.C. Exciting.
听第12段材料对话，回答第13至15下列小题。
( ) 13. When will the film start?
A. At five ’clck.B. At fur ’clck.C. At three ’clck.
( ) 14. What dn’t they need t make the fruit salad?
A. An range.B. A banana.C. Sme butter.
( ) 15. Hw much ygurt d they need?
A. One cup.B. Tw cups.C. Three cups.
Ⅱ. 听填信息（共5小题，计10分）
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。（每空不超过三个单词）
16. The schl will hld an activity in the schl hall tmrrw ____________ and 257 students will attend it.
17. The activity will tell us sme skills abut hw t behave ____________ in public.
18. The activity will start at 9:00 and last ____________ hurs and a half.
19. All students need t ____________ smething t make a speech.
20. Yu can call Mr. Zhang at 685-3778 if yu have any ____________.
第二部分（笔试 共90分）
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共20小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
D yu like listening t the radi? Nw yu dn’t have t use 21 real radi. Yu can use an App n 22 mbile phne t listen t the radi. The App is called The Himalaya (喜马拉雅).
The Himalaya is a ppular App. Nw lts f peple 23 it. They say they can learn a lt 24 it.
There 25 many different kinds f prgrams n the App, such as music and talk shws. And this App isn’t just a radi. Yu can find sme audi bks n it, t. Fr example, yu can find sme famus bks like Jurney t the West by Wu Chengen. The Himalaya is als a useful tl fr 26 . There are sme English prgrams fr students f different ages. Besides, there are sme English speeches given by famus peple like Bill Gates and Steve Jbs. In additin (另外), if yu 27 sleep well at night, yu can find light music t listen t. It will help yu fall asleep 28 . 29 yu feel tired, there are lts f jkes t make yu relaxed.
What else des the App have? 30 nt dwnlad (下载) it? Then yu will find mre interesting prgrams n it.
( ) 21. A. aB. anC. theD. /
( ) 22. A. yuB. yurC. yursD. yurself
( ) 23. A. will useB. usingC. usedD. are using
( ) 24. A. tB. frmC. frD. abut
( ) 25. A. amB. isC. areD. were
( ) 26. A. learnB. t learnC. learnedD. learning
( ) 27. A. mustn’tB. needn’tC. can’tD. shuldn’t
( ) 28. A. quickB. quicklyC. luckyD. luckily
( ) 29. A. AlthughB. IfC. UntilD. Unless
( ) 30. A. WhatB. WhenC. HwD. Why
第二节：阅读下面短文，理解大意，然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
My mm wrks hard. She 31 me and my yunger brther. Every day when she gets hme frm wrk, she makes dinner fr us.
One day, I decided t ck dinner fr her. I didn’t 32 a lt abut cking. But it desn’t lk s difficult. Right? Ndles are easy t ck. All I need t d is t pur and bil water in a 33 . Then add the ndles and keep biling. This was 34 I saw my mm ding it many times. I was really excited. “Tday, when Mm cmes back hme, dinner will be 35 . Hw happy she will be!” thught.
After schl, I ran hme and started cking. I biled the water in the pt and 36 the ndles. I was very careful. I cked the ndles fr a lng time.
Just 37 Mm gt hme, I turned ff the stve. The ndles were nt like the kind my mm 38 made. They were very mushy (糊状的). Mm was 39 when she came hme. She put the ndles in the bwl and sat with me and ate her ndles. “Mmm! These are the best ndles in the wrld. I knw yu are 40 t help ut. Thank yu, my daughter,” she said.
( ) 31. A. lks frward t B. lks frC. lks afterD. lks like
( ) 32. A. chseB. standC. shareD. knw
( ) 33. A. ptB. bwlC. blenderD. plate
( ) 34. A. hwB. whyC. whatD. when
( ) 35. A. terribleB. readyC. fullD. nrmal
( ) 36. A. puredB. threwC. addedD. passed
( ) 37. A. sB. thughC. befreD. unless
( ) 38. A. neverB. usuallyC. hardlyD. truly
( ) 39. A. bredB. wrriedC. interestedD. surprised
( ) 40. A. believingB. tryingC. sendingD. building
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提出问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。（共10小题，计15分）
A
Last Friday, my friend Debrah asked me if I wuld like t learn hw t make tfu.
I culdn’t think f any gd reasn nt t be interested in, s I said. “Yes.” S the next day I met her and the ther three nice peple at the Hd Sy Beanery in Oakland. I enjyed the tur. I gt a lt frm the trip. The fllwing is what I learnt.
Tfu has a histry f 2,000 years. Althugh the wrd “tfu” is frm Japanese, the fd may cme frm China. There are tw main kinds f tfu sft tfu and firm tfu (老豆腐). In sme parts f Asia, peple use tfu as a kind f meat.
Duhua is ne kind f sft tfu. It is a ppular breakfast fd in China. Because it is very sft, peple can’t eat it with chpsticks, but with a spn. Peple ften eat it as a dessert and ften add spring nins and sauce t it. In Malaysia, peple usually eat duhua with white r dark sugar water.
( ) 41. When did the writer g t Hd Sy Beanery?
A. Last Thursday.B. Last Friday.C. Last Saturday.D. Last Sunday.
( ) 42. We can learn frm the passage that the fd tfu may cme frm ________.
A. JapanB. ChinaC. OaklandD. Malaysia
( ) 43. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. Peple began t make tfu 2,000 years ag.
B. Sme peple use tfu as a kind f meat.
C. Duhua is ne kind f firm tfu.
D. Many peple eat tfu as a dessert.
B
Yu knw that exercise is gd fr helping yu relax, but d yu knw balancing (平衡) yur diet is als imprtant? Hw t balance yur diet? Let me tell yu.
Remember that breakfast is the mst imprtant meal f a day. If yu dn’t have time t sit dwn and have a healthy breakfast, try vegetable juice befre yu g t schl. This is much better than cffee.
It’s a gd idea t eat less salt. Fd like ht dgs have lts f salt in them. S give them up.
Yu shuld als stay away frm fd with much fat (脂肪). Yu can eat vegetables, fruit, fish and chicken. They are healthy fr yu and help yu relax as well. Fr example, yu can eat chicken hamburgers instead f beef hamburgers.
Dn’t ften g ut fr lunch. Yu can let yur mther make lunch at hme and take it t schl. Eat sme cabbage r salad with chicken. Drink lts f water every day.
Balancing yur diet t relax is as imprtant as exercise. I hpe yu have a gd meal tday.
( ) 44. What’s the mst imprtant meal f a day? ________
A. Breakfast.B. Lunch.C. Dinner.D. Afternn tea.
( ) 45. Which is TRUE accrding t the passage? ________
A. Cffee is better than vegetable juice.
B. Ht dgs have less salt.
C. Chicken hamburgers have less fat than beef hamburgers.
D. Fd with much salt is gd fr ur health.
( ) 46. Hw many ideas abut balancing diet are there in the passage? ________
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
( ) 47. Wh is the passage written fr?
A. Parents.B. Students.C. Teachers.D. Dctrs.
C
Rbts may be everywhere in the future, in the hmes and in the ffices. And peple will have less wrk t d. Rbts culd change humans’ life. Sme rbts will lk like humans and d the same things as humans. They will live like humans. They can drink and eat. They can walk and dance, t. Maybe when yu meet a beautiful girl in a restaurant, yu will nt knw whether (是否) she is a rbt r nt. Many predictins will cme true. Even sme scientists believe a man might fall in lve with a rbt.
In sme science fictin mvies, rbts becme s intelligent that they decide t take ver (接管) the earth. Will it really happen? Many writers think that rbts will be dangerus fr humans. Hwever, sme scientists believe humans will be able t make rbts fllw the rules in real life. But sme scientists disagree. They dn’t think making rules is a gd methd. If a rbt has the feelings like a man, it will nt be dangerus fr humans.
( ) 48. In the future, when yu meet a girl in a restaurant, yu may ________.
A. leave her sn
B. hate her
C. have n idea whether she is a rbt r nt
D. have a party with her
( ) 49. Sme scientists dn’t believe that rbts will be dangerus fr humans because ________.
A. humans will be able t make rbts lk like peple in real life
B. humans will be able t make rbts fllw the rules in real life
C. rbts are nt s clever as humans
D. humans will decide whether rbts live r die
( ) 50. Sme scientists believe if ________, they will nt be dangerus fr humans.
A. rbts have the feelings like humans
B. rbts fall in lve with humans
C. rbts take ver the earth
D. humans dn’t make rbts any mre
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（共5小题，计5分）
What can yu d when smene hurts yu? Mst peple may be angry r even fight with the ne wh hurts them. 51 The best way is t frgive (原谅) him r her.
Althugh it is nt easy fr us t frgive peple wh hurt us, it is pssible as lng as we try ur best. “Frgiveness makes us mre hpeful. 52 ” says Frederic Luskin, Ph. D, the writer f Frgive fr Gd.
53 The fllwing ways may help yu.
First, think f smething beautiful and try t make yurself happy.
Secnd, dn’t wait fr thers t say srry t yu. If peple hurt yu, they wn’t say srry t yu. They may just want t hurt yu r they just dn’t see things in the same way.
54 Yu can write a letter t yurself frm the ffender’s (冒犯者) pint f view. That can make yu understand thers better and make yurself happier.
55 Fr sme peple, frgiving themselves is the biggest challenge (挑战). As we knw, nbdy is perfect, s learn t frgive yurself. And in this way, it makes yu feel happier and mre relaxed.
Ⅴ. 完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。（共5小题，计10分）
56. 我认为未来将会有更少的小汽车和更多的地铁和公共汽车。
I think there will be ____________ and mre subways and buses in the future.
57. 林老师总是能帮助展现最好的自己。
Miss Lin can always help ____________ the best in me.
58. 凯莉是一个努力工作的女孩，我们都喜爱她。
Kelly is a ____________ girl and we all like her.
59. 当玛丽遇到一些问题时，她总是把他们记下来。
When Mary meets sme prblems, she always ____________.
60. 他比大多数的孩子更严肃。
He is ____________ than mst kids.
Ⅵ. 短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。）（共10小题，计10分）
My name is Cathy. I cme frm England. My parents are bth farmers. We have a hard life. I traveled lng way t schl n 61.__________ every day befre. My father bught me an ld bike later. But I was s 62.__________ that I lst it last term. After thinking twice, I decided t buy anther bike withut using my 63.__________ mney. I tld my parents abut it and they were really 64.__________, and wanted t buy me anther ne. But I refused. I knw I must be respnsible fr (对……负责) 65.__________ mistake. I helped Mr. Smith feed his 66.__________ n his farm and clean the schl yard (院子) 67.__________ a week. I even ate 68.__________ fd than befre at schl t save mre mney. After 69.__________ fr tw mnths, I 70.__________ gt enugh mney. The experience helps me learn hw t slve my wn prblems.
Ⅶ. 任务型阅读：阅读短文，根据所读内容，完成下列各题。（共5小题，计10分）
Many peple knw LEGO. It is frm Denmark, and appeared in the 1950s. In abut 1960, peple began t make LEGO bricks (积木) using a kind f plastic (塑料) called ABS. With ABS plastic, the LEGO bricks wn’t be brken easily. Peple can use them ver and ver again.
Hwever, ABS plastic can’t be recycled (回收利用), and it takes a very lng time t break dwn. That’s a big prblem. There is serius plastic pllutin arund the wrld. And LEGO makes abut 110 billin bricks every year.
T help save the earth, LEGO began t make new bricks in 2015. These bricks wuldn’t pllute the earth s much. Three years later, the factry began making sme LEGO parts, like trees, ut f a kind f special plastic. The plastic is made frm sugar cane (甘蔗).
LEGO is nw trying t make bricks ut f PET plastic. This kind f plastic can be fund in things like bttles and clthing. Peple can make LEGO bricks ut f recycled plastic bttles. The factry is wrking t find ut a way t add clr t the bricks—right nw they’re just white.
71. When did LEGO appear?
LEGO appeared ____________.
72. What’s the prblem with ABS plastic?
It can ____________ the envirnment.
73. Why did LEGO begin t make new bricks in 2015?
Because it wanted t help ____________.
74. Three years later, what is the special plastic made frm?
Three years later, the special plastic is made frm ____________.
75. What clr are the newest bricks?
The newest bricks are ____________ right nw.
Ⅷ. 补全对话（共5小题，计5分）
根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。
A: Gd mrning, Tim. 76.________________________?
B: Seven classes. And schl is ver at 4:20 p.m. Hw abut yu?
A: Me, t. 77.________________________?
B: I have n plans. And yu?
A: Our exams are cming. I want t find sme useful bks in the library. Wuld yu like t g with me?
B: 78.________________________. I can read sme magazines and newspapers there.
A: Great! And then we can g t the swimming pl.
B: Sunds great. 79.________________________?
A: Yes, I’m gd at it. I plan t practice swimming mre t be a great swimmer.
B: I will practice with yu tgether.
A: OK. See yu in frnt f the library after schl.
B: 80.________________________.
Ⅸ. 书面表达（共1题，计15分）
假如你是李华，你的好友Lily前段时间生病了，因而耽误了学习，这次考试没有考好，现在她很沮丧。请根据以下提示，用英语给她写一封电子邮件，给她一些建议，帮助她尽快调整好自己的状态。
参考词汇：
g t bed early, sleep well, d sme sprts, be happy, ask…fr help…
要求：
1. 可选择使用参考词汇，亦可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3. 文中不得出现你的任何真实信息（姓名、校名和地名等）；
4. 词数：不少于70词。（开头和结尾已给出，但不计入总词数）
Dear Lily,
I am srry t hear that yu were upset. I want t give yu sme advice t help yu relax yurself. ____________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I hpe my advice can help yu becme happier.
Yurs,
Li Hua
2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题答案
Ⅰ. 听选答案
1-5 BCAAA 6-10 CCAAC 11-15 BBACC
Ⅱ. 听填信息
16. mrning 17. well 18. 2/tw 19. prepare 20. questins
Ⅲ. 完形填空
21-25 ABDBC 26-30 DCBBD 31-35 CDAAB 36-40 CCBDB
Ⅳ. 阅读理解
41-43CBC 44-47 ACDB 48-50 CBA 51-55 ECDAG
Ⅴ. 完成句子
56. fewer cars 57. bring ut 58. hard-wrking 59. writes/takes them dwn 60. mre serius
Ⅵ. 短文填空
61. ft 62. careless 63. parents’ 64. understanding 65. my
66. chickens 67. twice 68. less 69. wrking 70. finally
Ⅶ. 任务型阅读
71. in the 1950s 72. pllute 73. save the earth 74. sugar cane 75. (just) white
VⅢ. 补全对话
76. Hw many classes d yu have?
77. What d yu want t d?/ What are yu ging t d?/What plans d yu have?
78. Sure. /Yes.
79. Are yu gd at swimming?/ Can yu swim?
80. See yu./ Bye.
Ⅸ. 书面表达
（略）
A. Third, try t see things in thers’ shes.
B. Yu can talk with yur parents.
C. And it als makes us healthier.
D. But hw can we frgive thers?
E. But it’s nt a gd idea.
F. Let’s frget abut it.
G. At last, dn’t frget t frgive yurself.
understand wrk ft parent I care finally little chicken tw
（考试时间：120分钟 分值：120分）
第一部分（听力 共30分）
Ⅰ. 听选答案（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的选项中选出最恰当的一项（共10小题，计10分）
( ) 1. A. A scientist.B. An actr.C. An inventr.
( ) 2. A. Watch mre mvies.B. D mre exercise.C. Keep a diary every day.
( ) 3. A. At the man’s huse.B. At the wman’s huse.C. At a farm.
( ) 4. A. Sunny.B. Cludy.C. Windy.
( ) 5. A. It’s bring.B. It’s relaxing.C. It’s meaningful.
( ) 6. A. A waiter.B. A dctr.C. A teacher.
( ) 7. A. The blue ne.B. The red ne.C. The black ne.
( ) 8. A. Saturday.B. Sunday.C. Wednesday.
( ) 9. A. Visit the sick children.B. Clean the city park.C. Visit his grandparents.
( ) 10. A. Ck them.B. Eat them.C. Mix them up.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，计10分）
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
( ) 11. Wh likes playing tennis?
A. Tm.B. Ann.C. Alice.
( ) 12. What des the girl think f playing basketball?
A. Interesting.B. Difficult.C. Exciting.
听第12段材料对话，回答第13至15下列小题。
( ) 13. When will the film start?
A. At five ’clck.B. At fur ’clck.C. At three ’clck.
( ) 14. What dn’t they need t make the fruit salad?
A. An range.B. A banana.C. Sme butter.
( ) 15. Hw much ygurt d they need?
A. One cup.B. Tw cups.C. Three cups.
Ⅱ. 听填信息（共5小题，计10分）
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。（每空不超过三个单词）
16. The schl will hld an activity in the schl hall tmrrw ____________ and 257 students will attend it.
17. The activity will tell us sme skills abut hw t behave ____________ in public.
18. The activity will start at 9:00 and last ____________ hurs and a half.
19. All students need t ____________ smething t make a speech.
20. Yu can call Mr. Zhang at 685-3778 if yu have any ____________.
第二部分（笔试 共90分）
Ⅲ. 完形填空（共20小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
D yu like listening t the radi? Nw yu dn’t have t use 21 real radi. Yu can use an App n 22 mbile phne t listen t the radi. The App is called The Himalaya (喜马拉雅).
The Himalaya is a ppular App. Nw lts f peple 23 it. They say they can learn a lt 24 it.
There 25 many different kinds f prgrams n the App, such as music and talk shws. And this App isn’t just a radi. Yu can find sme audi bks n it, t. Fr example, yu can find sme famus bks like Jurney t the West by Wu Chengen. The Himalaya is als a useful tl fr 26 . There are sme English prgrams fr students f different ages. Besides, there are sme English speeches given by famus peple like Bill Gates and Steve Jbs. In additin (另外), if yu 27 sleep well at night, yu can find light music t listen t. It will help yu fall asleep 28 . 29 yu feel tired, there are lts f jkes t make yu relaxed.
What else des the App have? 30 nt dwnlad (下载) it? Then yu will find mre interesting prgrams n it.
( ) 21. A. aB. anC. theD. /
( ) 22. A. yuB. yurC. yursD. yurself
( ) 23. A. will useB. usingC. usedD. are using
( ) 24. A. tB. frmC. frD. abut
( ) 25. A. amB. isC. areD. were
( ) 26. A. learnB. t learnC. learnedD. learning
( ) 27. A. mustn’tB. needn’tC. can’tD. shuldn’t
( ) 28. A. quickB. quicklyC. luckyD. luckily
( ) 29. A. AlthughB. IfC. UntilD. Unless
( ) 30. A. WhatB. WhenC. HwD. Why
第二节：阅读下面短文，理解大意，然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
My mm wrks hard. She 31 me and my yunger brther. Every day when she gets hme frm wrk, she makes dinner fr us.
One day, I decided t ck dinner fr her. I didn’t 32 a lt abut cking. But it desn’t lk s difficult. Right? Ndles are easy t ck. All I need t d is t pur and bil water in a 33 . Then add the ndles and keep biling. This was 34 I saw my mm ding it many times. I was really excited. “Tday, when Mm cmes back hme, dinner will be 35 . Hw happy she will be!” thught.
After schl, I ran hme and started cking. I biled the water in the pt and 36 the ndles. I was very careful. I cked the ndles fr a lng time.
Just 37 Mm gt hme, I turned ff the stve. The ndles were nt like the kind my mm 38 made. They were very mushy (糊状的). Mm was 39 when she came hme. She put the ndles in the bwl and sat with me and ate her ndles. “Mmm! These are the best ndles in the wrld. I knw yu are 40 t help ut. Thank yu, my daughter,” she said.
( ) 31. A. lks frward t B. lks frC. lks afterD. lks like
( ) 32. A. chseB. standC. shareD. knw
( ) 33. A. ptB. bwlC. blenderD. plate
( ) 34. A. hwB. whyC. whatD. when
( ) 35. A. terribleB. readyC. fullD. nrmal
( ) 36. A. puredB. threwC. addedD. passed
( ) 37. A. sB. thughC. befreD. unless
( ) 38. A. neverB. usuallyC. hardlyD. truly
( ) 39. A. bredB. wrriedC. interestedD. surprised
( ) 40. A. believingB. tryingC. sendingD. building
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提出问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。（共10小题，计15分）
A
Last Friday, my friend Debrah asked me if I wuld like t learn hw t make tfu.
I culdn’t think f any gd reasn nt t be interested in, s I said. “Yes.” S the next day I met her and the ther three nice peple at the Hd Sy Beanery in Oakland. I enjyed the tur. I gt a lt frm the trip. The fllwing is what I learnt.
Tfu has a histry f 2,000 years. Althugh the wrd “tfu” is frm Japanese, the fd may cme frm China. There are tw main kinds f tfu sft tfu and firm tfu (老豆腐). In sme parts f Asia, peple use tfu as a kind f meat.
Duhua is ne kind f sft tfu. It is a ppular breakfast fd in China. Because it is very sft, peple can’t eat it with chpsticks, but with a spn. Peple ften eat it as a dessert and ften add spring nins and sauce t it. In Malaysia, peple usually eat duhua with white r dark sugar water.
( ) 41. When did the writer g t Hd Sy Beanery?
A. Last Thursday.B. Last Friday.C. Last Saturday.D. Last Sunday.
( ) 42. We can learn frm the passage that the fd tfu may cme frm ________.
A. JapanB. ChinaC. OaklandD. Malaysia
( ) 43. Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. Peple began t make tfu 2,000 years ag.
B. Sme peple use tfu as a kind f meat.
C. Duhua is ne kind f firm tfu.
D. Many peple eat tfu as a dessert.
B
Yu knw that exercise is gd fr helping yu relax, but d yu knw balancing (平衡) yur diet is als imprtant? Hw t balance yur diet? Let me tell yu.
Remember that breakfast is the mst imprtant meal f a day. If yu dn’t have time t sit dwn and have a healthy breakfast, try vegetable juice befre yu g t schl. This is much better than cffee.
It’s a gd idea t eat less salt. Fd like ht dgs have lts f salt in them. S give them up.
Yu shuld als stay away frm fd with much fat (脂肪). Yu can eat vegetables, fruit, fish and chicken. They are healthy fr yu and help yu relax as well. Fr example, yu can eat chicken hamburgers instead f beef hamburgers.
Dn’t ften g ut fr lunch. Yu can let yur mther make lunch at hme and take it t schl. Eat sme cabbage r salad with chicken. Drink lts f water every day.
Balancing yur diet t relax is as imprtant as exercise. I hpe yu have a gd meal tday.
( ) 44. What’s the mst imprtant meal f a day? ________
A. Breakfast.B. Lunch.C. Dinner.D. Afternn tea.
( ) 45. Which is TRUE accrding t the passage? ________
A. Cffee is better than vegetable juice.
B. Ht dgs have less salt.
C. Chicken hamburgers have less fat than beef hamburgers.
D. Fd with much salt is gd fr ur health.
( ) 46. Hw many ideas abut balancing diet are there in the passage? ________
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
( ) 47. Wh is the passage written fr?
A. Parents.B. Students.C. Teachers.D. Dctrs.
C
Rbts may be everywhere in the future, in the hmes and in the ffices. And peple will have less wrk t d. Rbts culd change humans’ life. Sme rbts will lk like humans and d the same things as humans. They will live like humans. They can drink and eat. They can walk and dance, t. Maybe when yu meet a beautiful girl in a restaurant, yu will nt knw whether (是否) she is a rbt r nt. Many predictins will cme true. Even sme scientists believe a man might fall in lve with a rbt.
In sme science fictin mvies, rbts becme s intelligent that they decide t take ver (接管) the earth. Will it really happen? Many writers think that rbts will be dangerus fr humans. Hwever, sme scientists believe humans will be able t make rbts fllw the rules in real life. But sme scientists disagree. They dn’t think making rules is a gd methd. If a rbt has the feelings like a man, it will nt be dangerus fr humans.
( ) 48. In the future, when yu meet a girl in a restaurant, yu may ________.
A. leave her sn
B. hate her
C. have n idea whether she is a rbt r nt
D. have a party with her
( ) 49. Sme scientists dn’t believe that rbts will be dangerus fr humans because ________.
A. humans will be able t make rbts lk like peple in real life
B. humans will be able t make rbts fllw the rules in real life
C. rbts are nt s clever as humans
D. humans will decide whether rbts live r die
( ) 50. Sme scientists believe if ________, they will nt be dangerus fr humans.
A. rbts have the feelings like humans
B. rbts fall in lve with humans
C. rbts take ver the earth
D. humans dn’t make rbts any mre
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（共5小题，计5分）
What can yu d when smene hurts yu? Mst peple may be angry r even fight with the ne wh hurts them. 51 The best way is t frgive (原谅) him r her.
Althugh it is nt easy fr us t frgive peple wh hurt us, it is pssible as lng as we try ur best. “Frgiveness makes us mre hpeful. 52 ” says Frederic Luskin, Ph. D, the writer f Frgive fr Gd.
53 The fllwing ways may help yu.
First, think f smething beautiful and try t make yurself happy.
Secnd, dn’t wait fr thers t say srry t yu. If peple hurt yu, they wn’t say srry t yu. They may just want t hurt yu r they just dn’t see things in the same way.
54 Yu can write a letter t yurself frm the ffender’s (冒犯者) pint f view. That can make yu understand thers better and make yurself happier.
55 Fr sme peple, frgiving themselves is the biggest challenge (挑战). As we knw, nbdy is perfect, s learn t frgive yurself. And in this way, it makes yu feel happier and mre relaxed.
Ⅴ. 完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。（共5小题，计10分）
56. 我认为未来将会有更少的小汽车和更多的地铁和公共汽车。
I think there will be ____________ and mre subways and buses in the future.
57. 林老师总是能帮助展现最好的自己。
Miss Lin can always help ____________ the best in me.
58. 凯莉是一个努力工作的女孩，我们都喜爱她。
Kelly is a ____________ girl and we all like her.
59. 当玛丽遇到一些问题时，她总是把他们记下来。
When Mary meets sme prblems, she always ____________.
60. 他比大多数的孩子更严肃。
He is ____________ than mst kids.
Ⅵ. 短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。）（共10小题，计10分）
My name is Cathy. I cme frm England. My parents are bth farmers. We have a hard life. I traveled lng way t schl n 61.__________ every day befre. My father bught me an ld bike later. But I was s 62.__________ that I lst it last term. After thinking twice, I decided t buy anther bike withut using my 63.__________ mney. I tld my parents abut it and they were really 64.__________, and wanted t buy me anther ne. But I refused. I knw I must be respnsible fr (对……负责) 65.__________ mistake. I helped Mr. Smith feed his 66.__________ n his farm and clean the schl yard (院子) 67.__________ a week. I even ate 68.__________ fd than befre at schl t save mre mney. After 69.__________ fr tw mnths, I 70.__________ gt enugh mney. The experience helps me learn hw t slve my wn prblems.
Ⅶ. 任务型阅读：阅读短文，根据所读内容，完成下列各题。（共5小题，计10分）
Many peple knw LEGO. It is frm Denmark, and appeared in the 1950s. In abut 1960, peple began t make LEGO bricks (积木) using a kind f plastic (塑料) called ABS. With ABS plastic, the LEGO bricks wn’t be brken easily. Peple can use them ver and ver again.
Hwever, ABS plastic can’t be recycled (回收利用), and it takes a very lng time t break dwn. That’s a big prblem. There is serius plastic pllutin arund the wrld. And LEGO makes abut 110 billin bricks every year.
T help save the earth, LEGO began t make new bricks in 2015. These bricks wuldn’t pllute the earth s much. Three years later, the factry began making sme LEGO parts, like trees, ut f a kind f special plastic. The plastic is made frm sugar cane (甘蔗).
LEGO is nw trying t make bricks ut f PET plastic. This kind f plastic can be fund in things like bttles and clthing. Peple can make LEGO bricks ut f recycled plastic bttles. The factry is wrking t find ut a way t add clr t the bricks—right nw they’re just white.
71. When did LEGO appear?
LEGO appeared ____________.
72. What’s the prblem with ABS plastic?
It can ____________ the envirnment.
73. Why did LEGO begin t make new bricks in 2015?
Because it wanted t help ____________.
74. Three years later, what is the special plastic made frm?
Three years later, the special plastic is made frm ____________.
75. What clr are the newest bricks?
The newest bricks are ____________ right nw.
Ⅷ. 补全对话（共5小题，计5分）
根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。
A: Gd mrning, Tim. 76.________________________?
B: Seven classes. And schl is ver at 4:20 p.m. Hw abut yu?
A: Me, t. 77.________________________?
B: I have n plans. And yu?
A: Our exams are cming. I want t find sme useful bks in the library. Wuld yu like t g with me?
B: 78.________________________. I can read sme magazines and newspapers there.
A: Great! And then we can g t the swimming pl.
B: Sunds great. 79.________________________?
A: Yes, I’m gd at it. I plan t practice swimming mre t be a great swimmer.
B: I will practice with yu tgether.
A: OK. See yu in frnt f the library after schl.
B: 80.________________________.
Ⅸ. 书面表达（共1题，计15分）
假如你是李华，你的好友Lily前段时间生病了，因而耽误了学习，这次考试没有考好，现在她很沮丧。请根据以下提示，用英语给她写一封电子邮件，给她一些建议，帮助她尽快调整好自己的状态。
参考词汇：
g t bed early, sleep well, d sme sprts, be happy, ask…fr help…
要求：
1. 可选择使用参考词汇，亦可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3. 文中不得出现你的任何真实信息（姓名、校名和地名等）；
4. 词数：不少于70词。（开头和结尾已给出，但不计入总词数）
Dear Lily,
I am srry t hear that yu were upset. I want t give yu sme advice t help yu relax yurself. ____________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I hpe my advice can help yu becme happier.
Yurs,
Li Hua
2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级英语试题答案
Ⅰ. 听选答案
1-5 BCAAA 6-10 CCAAC 11-15 BBACC
Ⅱ. 听填信息
16. mrning 17. well 18. 2/tw 19. prepare 20. questins
Ⅲ. 完形填空
21-25 ABDBC 26-30 DCBBD 31-35 CDAAB 36-40 CCBDB
Ⅳ. 阅读理解
41-43CBC 44-47 ACDB 48-50 CBA 51-55 ECDAG
Ⅴ. 完成句子
56. fewer cars 57. bring ut 58. hard-wrking 59. writes/takes them dwn 60. mre serius
Ⅵ. 短文填空
61. ft 62. careless 63. parents’ 64. understanding 65. my
66. chickens 67. twice 68. less 69. wrking 70. finally
Ⅶ. 任务型阅读
71. in the 1950s 72. pllute 73. save the earth 74. sugar cane 75. (just) white
VⅢ. 补全对话
76. Hw many classes d yu have?
77. What d yu want t d?/ What are yu ging t d?/What plans d yu have?
78. Sure. /Yes.
79. Are yu gd at swimming?/ Can yu swim?
80. See yu./ Bye.
Ⅸ. 书面表达
（略）
A. Third, try t see things in thers’ shes.
B. Yu can talk with yur parents.
C. And it als makes us healthier.
D. But hw can we frgive thers?
E. But it’s nt a gd idea.
F. Let’s frget abut it.
G. At last, dn’t frget t frgive yurself.
understand wrk ft parent I care finally little chicken tw
相关试卷
85，陕西省西安市莲湖区2023-2024学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题： 这是一份85，陕西省西安市莲湖区2023-2024学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了请将各题答案填写在答题卡上， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
陕西省西安市高新区联考2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题： 这是一份陕西省西安市高新区联考2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共10页。
陕西省西安市第三中学名校联合体2023-2024学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题： 这是一份陕西省西安市第三中学名校联合体2023-2024学年七年级上学期1月期末英语试题，共7页。
