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    2022-2023学年陕西省西安市未央区高二上学期2月期末英语试题含答案

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    这是一份2022-2023学年陕西省西安市未央区高二上学期2月期末英语试题含答案,共13页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    考生注意:本试卷共分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分,满分150分。考试时间120分钟。请将答案填写在答题十上。
    第Ⅰ卷(选择题 共100分)
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    What des the wman d t get rid f a cld?
    A. Stay in bed.B. Exercise.C. Take sme medicine.
    2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    What des the wman mean?
    A. She agrees t leave n Friday.
    B. She desn’t agree with the man.
    C. She wn’t wait until Friday.
    3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    Where des the cnversatin take place?
    A. At an airprt.B. On a ship.C. On a plane.
    4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    What is the wman’s plan fr this evening?
    A. Ging ut fr dinner.
    B. Taking her sister t the airprt.
    C. Inviting the man fr dinner.
    5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    What is the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
    A. Teacher and student.
    B. Emplyer and emplyee.
    C. Interviewer and interviewee.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    6. What prblem des the wman have with the driving test?
    A. Driving knwledge.B. Emergency respnse.C. Traffic regulatins in Chinese.
    7. Hw are driving skills tested in the third part?
    A. In a similar envirnment.B. In a cntrlled envirnment.C. In the real wrld.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    8. What des the wman ask the man t shw her?
    A. His health insurance card.B. His schl identificatin card.C. His library card.
    9. What fd des the wman advise the man t eat?
    A. Ptat chips and fruits.
    B. Prcessed fd and vegetables.
    C. Fruits and vegetables.
    10. What des the wman advise the man t d at last?
    A. Exercise regularly.B. Eat less.C. Sleep early.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    11. What is the man famus fr?
    A. Ding business.B. Cllecting cins.C. Teaching maths.
    12. Hw des the man get the cins fr his cllectin?
    A. He trades fr rare and ld nes.
    B. His uncle ften gives him sme.
    C. He asks fr sme frm his friends.
    13. What is the wman?
    A. A teacher.B. A salespersn.C. A jurnalist.
    听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    14. Hw did the man react when he saw the wman dancing?
    A. He was annyed.B. He was inspiredC. He was surprised.
    15. Hw des the man usually exercise?
    A. He likes t ride a bicycle.B. He likes t play sccer.C. He likes t run.
    16. What will the speakers prbably d next?
    A. Study fr a test.B. G t the gym tgether.C. Shw each ther their mves.
    听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    17. Which f the fllwing hbbies is NOT mentined?
    A. Cllecting cins.B. Cllecting stamps.C. Cllecting cars.
    18. Hw much is the man’s cin cllectin wrth?
    A. $215.B. $250.C. $600.
    19. What des the speaker’s yungest brther cllect?
    A. Matchbxes.B. Stamps.C. Mdel airplanes.
    20. What d mst peple want t get frm their hbbies?
    A. Freedm.B. Pleasure.C. Mney.
    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下列四篇短文,从每小题后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
    A
    Welcme t the Electrnic Village t explre new ways f language teaching and learning
    Electrnic Village Prgram (Thursday, June 18, 2015)
    Nearpd
    ◇ 9:00 am t 10:00 am
    ◇ Rm 501
    Nearpd is a sftware prgram that creates a rich cntext fr students t learn vcabulary. The presenter will shw hw t use it.
    TEO
    ◇ 2:00 pm t 3:00 pm
    ◇ Rm 502
    Our students cme frm different backgrunds but have the same desire t learn n-line. The presenter will use examples frm his first n-line class t explain hw any teacher can begin teaching n-line with TEO.
    Kaht
    ◇ 10:30 am t 11:00 am
    ◇ Rm 601
    Kaht sftware can be used t create grammar tests which can be graded n a netwrk. It can prvide students with instant feedback(反馈) including reprts abut their strengths and weaknesses.
    Prezi
    ◇ 3:00 pm t 4:20 pm
    ◇ Rm 602
    Uses f Prezi in listening and speaking curses draw students’ attentin t speaking mre fluently. The presenter will shw hw students can use Prezi t cnfidently present n all kinds f tpics, including intrducing family, friends, and hbbies.
    21. What can Nearpd be used t d?
    A. Offer grammar tests.B. Teach listening n-line.
    C. Help vcabulary learning.D. Gain fluency in speaking.
    22. If yu want t imprve yur speaking skills, where can yu g?
    A Rm 501.B. Rm 502.C. Rm 601.D. Rm 602.
    23. Which f the fllwing can test yur grammar learning?
    A. Nearpd.B. Kaht.C. TEO.D. Prezi.
    B
    The arts, especially music, shuld be part f every schl’s lessns at every grade level. Students will be much smarter if they have sme musical experience. They culd imprve their classrm skills, like paying attentin and fllwing directins. Peple develp all these skills when they learn music. Making music als lets children use their imaginatin. It prvides students with a chance t try ut their wn ideas.
    Music nt nly makes children better students, but als gives them smething psitive t d. In a music prgram, children can be part f a band instead f jining a gang (一群可能肇事的年轻人). Parents can enjy listening t their children’s music instead f seeing them glued t a cmputer r TV screen. In a schl band, students get t be part f a team. They can get alng well with ld friends and make new friends thrugh music.
    Music builds self-cnfidence, t. It gives children a sense f achievement and success. Making music is smething fr them t be prud f, and it lets kids practice perfrming in frnt f an audience. Music gives children an pprtunity fr self-expressin, and that helps develp their self-cnfidence.
    In a wrd, music is imprtant because it can make children better students, give them smething psitive t d, and build their character. That is why music shuld be ffered in every single grade in every schl.
    24. Accrding t the passage, music culd make students smarter by ________.
    A. imprving their classrm skills
    B. imprving their classrm skills and imaginatin
    C. imprving their attentin and imaginatin
    D. imprving their skills f making achievements
    25. What des the underlined phrase “glued t” in the secnd paragraph mean?
    A. Unwilling t turn n.
    B. Always lking at.
    C. Unwilling t watch.
    D. Always playing.
    26. What des the third paragraph mainly tells us?
    A. Music culd give children self-expressin and self-cnfidence.
    B. Music culd bring children achievement and success.
    C. Music culd give children smething t be prud f.
    D. Music culd develp children’s self-cnfidence.
    27. What’s the best title f this passage?
    A. Music is a must as a curse at schl
    B. Music builds children’s self-cnfidence
    C. Music makes students much smarter
    D. Learning music and making music are bth imprtant
    C
    Mental health is deterirating(恶化)amng yung peple glbally.The incidence f depressin and anxiety is increasing, and this nt nly lwers quality f life, but can have a lasting negative impact as an adlescent reaches adulthd.
    Many experts are trying t get at the rt causes f this decline, in rder t find ways t prevent further deteriratin and t prvide mre effective help when needed. Tw “emerging determinants f interest” are (a) ver use f screen-based technlgy, and (b) t little time spent in nature. Mst research t date has cnsidered these factrs independently, but a grup f scientists frm University f Adelaide recently decided t lk at them jintly, t see if the cmbinatin f high screen time (ST) and lw “green time” (GT), culd affect mental wellbeing.
    The result is published n September 4, 2020, in the scientific jurnal PLOS One. In it, the researchers analyzed data frm 186 studies that lked at children's interactins with screen-based technlgy and nature and their psychlgical utcmes, including mental health, cgnitive(认知的) functining, and academic achievement.
    What they fund was that, in general, excessive screen time results in prer psychlgical health, whereas green time imprves mental wellbeing. Ten years ag in the U.S., the average daily screen time fr 8-t-18-year-lds was 7.5 hurs. As the study states, “This greatly exceeds recreatinal ST guidelines f 2 hurs r less per day,” and is made even mre challenging by the fact that s many schls are using technlgy t teach classes.
    While sme screen time can be beneficial, such as prmting cnnectins and enabling tasks t be dne mre efficiently, there are many ways in which it is harmful. Excessive screen time “replaces imprtant prtective behavirs fr mental health such as physical activity, getting adequate sleep, in-persn scial interactins, and academic activities.”
    And yet, when children d g utside, they becme mre physically active. Their day-night rhythm is regulated, thanks t the expsure t sunlight, thus “encuraging healthy sleep-wake cycles and imprved sleep, which is key fr psychlgical well-being.”
    28. The research f the University f Adelaide is different because________?
    A. The researchers tried t find the rt causes.
    B. The researchers analyzed large amunts f data.
    C. The researchers tried t find a slutin.
    D. They cmbined ST and GT.
    29. What are the findings f their research?
    A. Mental health is wrsening amng yung peple glbally.
    B. Schl technlgy cntributes t the mst screen time.
    C. ST and GT have ppsite impact n mental health.
    D. Guidelines f screen time shuldn’t be mre than tw hurs.
    30. Why des ver screen time affect mental health?
    A. It replaces mentally healthy behavirs.
    B. There is t much unhealthy infrmatin n the screen.
    C. Teens can’t break away frm screen addictin.
    D. Teens can’t sleep well after screen time.
    31. What is implied in the passage?
    A. Over screen time wrsens teens’ health.
    B. Teens need mre green time, less screen time.
    C. Teens shuld be banned frm any screen time.
    D. Screen-based technlgy shuldn’t be allwed in schls.
    D
    The US gvernment has recently helped peple learn mre abut the dangers f earthquakes by publishing a map. This map shws the chances f an earthquake in catch part f the cuntry. The areas f the map where earthquakes are mst likely t ccur are called earthquake belts. The gvernment is spending a great deal f mney and is wrking hard t help t discver the answers t these tw questins:
    Can we predict earthquakes?
    Can we cntrl earthquakes?
    T answer the first questin, scientists are lking very clsely at the mst active fault (断层) systems in the cuntry, such as the San Andreas fault in Califrnia. A fault is a break between tw sectins f the earth’s surface. These breaks between sectins are the places where earthquakes ccur. But it will prbably be many years befre we can predict earthquakes crrectly. And the cntrl f earthquakes is even farther away.
    Hwever there have been sme interesting develpments in the field f cntrlling earthquakes. The mst interesting develpment cncerns the Rcky Muntain Arsenal earthquakes. Here water was put int a layer f rcks 4,000 metres belw the surface f the grund. Shrtly after this injectin (注射) f water, there was a small number f earthquakes. Scientists have decided that the water which was injected int the rcks wrked like il n each ther.
    When the water “iled” the fault the fault became slippery and the energy f an earthquake was given ut. Scientists are still experimenting at the site f these earthquakes. They have realized that there is a cnnectin between the injectin f the water and the earthquake activity. They have suggested that it might be pssible t use this knwledge t prevent very big, dangerus earthquakes, that is, scientists culd inject sme kind f fluid like water int faults and change n a big earthquake int a number f small, harmless earthquakes.
    32. Earthquakes belts are .
    A. maps that shw where earthquakes are likely t ccur
    B. znes with a high prbability f earthquakes
    C. breaks between tw sectins f the earth's surface
    D. the tw layers f earth alng a fault
    33. The San Andreas fault is .
    A. an active fault system
    B. a place where earthquakes have been predicted crrectly
    C. a place where earthquakes have been cntrlled
    D. at the ft f the Rcky Muntain
    34 What did scientists learn abut earthquakes at the Rcky Muntain Arsenal?
    A. They ccur at abut 4.000 metres belwgrund level
    B. The injectin f water int earthquake faults prevent earthquakes frm ccurring.
    C. They are usually caused by the il in the faults.
    D. Harmful earthquakes culd be prevented by causing harmless earthquakes.
    35. What can be said abut the experiments at the Rcky Muntain Arsenal?
    A. They have n practical value in earthquake preventin.
    B. They may have practical value in earthquake preventin.
    C. They are certain t have practical value in earthquake preventin.
    D. Nthing is tld abut their practical value in earthquake preventin.
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空自处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项
    Technlgy has dne wnders fr sciety. Healthcare, transprtatin, and cmmunicatin have als imprved dramatically in recent years. Hwever, it can’t be denied that the fast-paced, cnvenience-riented mindset f mdern sciety has significantly shrtened attentin fllwing ways may help yu imprve yur fcus s yu can better seize every mment.
    ____37____
    It’s already been determined that electrnics are causing many t lse fcus. There are almst t much infrmatin and entertainment fr us t handle with easy access t scial media. T get yur screen time under cntrl, remve scial media apps and games frm yur phne.
    Remve distractins
    Yur mbile device wn’t be the nly thing calling fr yur attentin. Any number f distractins can squeeze yur attentin. Even minr distractins, such as backgrund nise can cause yu t lse fcus.____38____.
    Take ntes
    If yu find yurself in a particularly bring meeting r classrm envirnment, yu may as well be begging fr smething t distract yu. This attitude carries ver t even the mst imprtant f meetings, where yu culd miss vital infrmatin____39____.This activity demands yur fcus, which will help with that shrt attentin span. Get the right amunt f sleep
    Get prper sleep
    T imprve yur attentin span, make sure yu’re getting the right amunt f sleep every night. Develp a cnsistent sleep schedule that helps yu get t bed at a decent time each night. This will help yu stay well-rested each day. T little sleep stretches yu thin, while t much can make yu feel weak and inactive.____40____.
    A. Cntrl yur screen time
    B. Get invlved in real-wrld activities
    C. Bth are extremes that yu’ll want t avid
    D. Yu can start taking ntes t change this mindset
    E. It can negatively affect yur wrk and persnal life
    F. Figure ut what they are, and yu can wrk n remving them
    G. It imprves memry prvides physical reminders fr thse imprtant details
    第三部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
    第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。
    An American wh was travelling in England went int a shp in Lndn. He wanted very much t___41___an ld glden watch. He saw ne that he liked, ____42____the wner f the shp asked as much as five hundred U.S dllars ____43____it. The American hesitated fr mment. Suddenly a yung man came int the shp, ____44____the watch ut f the wner’s ____45____, and ran away with it. It all happened in a few____46____. When the____47____ran ut after the thief, he was already ____48____amng the crwds. The American went n. At the cmer f the street he ____49____the thief with _____50_____ watch in his hand. “D yu want t buy a fine watch, sir?” he _____51_____. “It’s _____52_____ne hundred dllars.”
    “It’s clear the thief _____53_____that I saw him stealing the watch.” The American thught. He paid at nce and went back t his_____54_____with the watch. He culdn’t help _____55_____his friend abut his gd _____56_____
    His friend tk a lk at the watch and____57____, saying, “Yu’ve been made a ____58____f. This watch isn’t wrth _____59_____ten dllars. I’m sure that the shp wner and the thief _____60_____tgether.”
    41. A. seeB. enjyC. buyD. sell
    42. A. sB. butC. rD. and
    43. A. frB. fC. withD. n
    44. A. stleB. snatchedC. rbbedD. tk
    45. A. tableB. bagC. handD. pcket
    46. A. mnthsB. hursC. daysD. secnds
    47. A. shpkeeperB. plicemanC. AmericanD. assistant
    48. A. missedB. lstC. gneD. seen
    49. A. sawB. caughtC. recgnizedD. seized
    50. A. antherB. the stlenC. a newD. a nice
    51. A. explainedB. shutedC. whisperedD. cried
    52. A. rightB. justC. exactlyD. nly
    53. A. didn’t knwB. knewC. didn’t nticeD. nticed
    54. A. huseB. htelC. hmeD. shp
    55. A. talkingB. sayingC. tellingD. shwing
    56. A. luckB. stryC. watchD. experience
    57. A. enjyedB. appreciatedC. criedD. laughed
    58. A. jkeB. fdC. funD. trick
    59. A. evenB. less thanC. mre thanD. nly
    60. A. sldB. didC. plannedD. cnsidered
    第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共50分)
    第三部分英语知识运用
    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    The giant panda ___61___ (lve) by peple thrughut the wrld. Chinese scientists ___62___ (recent) had a chance t study a wild female panda with a newbrn baby. She was a very ___63___(care) mther. Fr 25days, she never left her baby, nt even t find smething ___64___ (eat)! She wuld nt let any ther pandas cme near. She licked the baby cnstantly t keep it clean. Any smell might attract natural ___65___(enemy) that wuld try t eat the little cmfrting panda. The mther held the baby in her frnt paws much the way a human des. ___66___ it cried, she rcked it back and frth and gave it little cmfrting pats. The mther cntinued t care fr the yung panda ___67___ mre than tw years. By that time, the panda n lnger needed ___68___(it) mther fr fd. Hwever, it stayed with her and learned abut the ways f the frest. Then, after tw and a half years, the mther ___69___ (drive) the yung panda away. It was time fr her t have a new baby, ____70____ it was als time fr the yung panda t be independent.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
    第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    71. 假定英语课上老师必求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
    增加:在缺词处加一个漏词符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
    修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1.每处错误及修改均仅限一词;
    2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
    My neighbr Mrs Li is a curius lady. Yesterday mrning, a mailman rang my drbell. Hear the bell, Mrs Li put her head ut f the windws immediately and asked in a lud vice “What’s the matter?” “Are yu Li Xia? There’s package fr yu,” answer the man. “Where is it cme frm?” Mrs Li asked. “It’s frm Lndn.” Then Mrs Li asked the mailman t pen it. Feeling puzzling, he replied that he culdn’t pen the package and asked Mrs Li t cme dwn and pen it herself. Mrs Li refused plite. The mailman was a little bit angry but asked impatiently, “Why?” “Because I’m nt Li Xia. She lives next dr I played a jke f yu.”
    第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
    72. 假定你是李华,你校要在多功能大厅(Multi-Purpse Hall)举办一次为期三天的艺术节(Art Festival)活动,请你用英文给Mr. White写一封信,邀请他来参加。内容要点如下:
    活动具体时间:下午15:00-17:00
    活动日期和内容:
    ▲4月28日,乐器演奏
    ▲4月29日,歌舞表演
    ▲4月30日,师生联欢
    注意:1.词数100左右,开头和结尾已给出;
    2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    Dear Mr. White,
    I’m very glad t tell yu that a three-day Art Festival ...
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs sincerely,
    Li Hua
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