山东省泰安肥城市2022-2023学年高三英语学业仿真模拟试题（三）（Word版附答案）

这是一份山东省泰安肥城市2022-2023学年高三英语学业仿真模拟试题（三）（Word版附答案），共15页。
2023年高考适应性训练
英 语 试 题 （三）

注意事项:
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Apply for this year’s UCL Summer School!
Applications are now open for the UCL Summer School, which gives students from universities around the world the chance to study modules in summer.
The Summer School is open to all students who have completed at least one year of undergraduate study at a recognised university. UCL students are qualified for a 10% tuition fee discount but cannot use credit earned on the UCL Summer School towards UCL degree programmes.
Students from universities around the world have a chance to study at UCL for three or six weeks in June, July and August and transfer credit back to their home institution. Students can enrol onto Session1 (26 June－14 July) or Session2 (17 July－4 August), or both Sessions studying one undergraduate UCL module per Session.
The programme offers a unique social and cultural programme to ensure that students make the most of their time in London. Summer 2022 saw over 700 students from 250 universities around the world enrol; 97% of surveyed students said they would recommend the UCL Summer School to a friend. In 2023, the Summer School will offer over 80 bespoke (定制的) undergraduate-level modules from a wide range of UCL departments.
Click here to see all the relevant information on entry requirements, fees and dates. The deadline for applications is 1 June, 2023 but modules do fill up on a first-come-first-served basis, so don’t miss out!
1. Who can apply for the UCL Summer School?
A. A senior high school graduate. B. A senior high school student.
C. A freshman at a university. D. A second year student at a university.
2. What can we know about the programme?
A. All applicants can get a 10% tuition fee discount.
B. Credits earned can be used to degree programmes.
C. Social and scientific programmes are offered.
D. Applicants thought highly of Summer 2022.
3. Where is the text taken from?
A. An academic article. B. A school newspaper.
C. A university website. D. An educational journal.

B
When George Denny hired Mattaliano to care for his three children, he wasn’t expecting to gain a future business partner. They started Goose Valley Natural Foods to sell the rice grown on Denny’s farm in Shasta County which today claims to be the world’s largest producer of organic and natural wild rice.
Mattaliano, who is from Revere, began working for Denny four years after dropping out of Boston University. She cut short her college education after being severely injured in a car accident on the way to her parents’ home. She was certain that a wild rice farm Denny owned in California had big commercial potential.
Denny didn’t buy it at first. After all, for years, Denny had been content to sell his rice to a California company. But Mattaliano saw an opportunity in the growing popularity of natural and organic foods and kept pushing her idea to Denny. “For six years, we can create a brand of wild rice,” she told him, “and it will sell.” Slowly, he came around. “Her dedication and energy were critical to my decision.” Denny said, “Successful entrepreneurs need passion, energy, total belief in their endeavor, and persistence. And Mattaliano has all of that and more.”
“I told him that I learned the agriculture end of the business, I’d cooked the rice every single way, I had a lot of practice, I could sell, and I could build him a brand.” said Mattaliano. She studied 30 New York City supermarkets, interviewed grocers and asked detailed questions about their preferences. “I worked around the clock, morning, noon and night.”
Now a founding partner, Mattaliano handles research and development, marketing, and sales. She earns a six-figure salary. “Just over a decade ago, I was cobbling together an income of about $17,000 rotating through several part-time jobs.” she said, “It was just an idea. And the fact that he trusted in me is just so cool.”
4. What can we learn about Mattaliano from the first two paragraphs?
A. She was satisfied with tending children. B. She saw promise in wild rice.
C. She graduated from Boston University. D. She got injured on her way to work.
5. Which of the following best explains “Denny didn’t buy it”?
A. Denny didn’t buy the farm. B. Denny showed no interest in farming.
C. Denny didn’t accept the idea. D. Denny didn’t expect a business partner.
6. How did Mattaliano contribute to Goose Valley?
A. She did hands-on research. B. She advertised in supermarkets.
C. She consulted agriculture experts. D. She tried to improve cooking skills.
7. What does Mattaliano’s career story tell us?
A. Well begun is half done. B. Dream big and climb high.
C. Practice makes perfect. D. Actions speak louder than words.

C
The town of Herringen, in central Germany, is home to a pile of sodium chloride (table salt), so massive that it has come to be known as Monte Kali, the world’s largest artificial salt mountain.
The origin of Monte Kali can be traced back to the year 1976, when potash (碳酸钾) salt started being extracted from mines around the town of Hessen. Back then, potash was used to make soap and glass, but today it’s an important ingredient in fertilizers, rubber, and even medicines, so extraction strengthened over the last few decades. Sodium chloride, the byproduct, was poured a few miles from Herringen continuously and created a giant salt mountain.
As of 2017, Monte Kali stands at 530 meters above sea level and covers an area of over 100 hectares. You can see it from anywhere in Herringen and it has become somewhat of a tourist attraction. In fact, people could pay to ascend to the top as part of a guided tour which took the average person around 15 minutes.
Although it’s hard to estimate how much salt Monte Kali consists of, its current mass reaches approximately 236 million tons which can cover as large as 114 football fields and is as heavy as 23,600 Eiffel Towers. And with over 1,000 tonnes being added to it every single hour, it’s only getting bigger.
A salt mountain of this size in the center of Germany does raise some environmental questions. Research has found that it has caused the Werra River to become salty, as has the groundwater in the area. Of the 60 to 100 species that once called the area around Herringen home, only 3 remain. But the potash industry is really big in the region, accounting for several thousand jobs. So closing down production isn’t really an option for authorities. The company operating the mines had its license extended until 2060, and even had its request to expand Monte Kali by 25 hectares approved in 2020.
8. How did Monte Kali come into being?
A. By designing it as an artificial attraction.
B. By getting an ingredient from a chemical.
C. By handling the byproduct of potash salt.
D. By exploring mines around Hessen for products.
9. What does the underlined word “ascend” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. Climb. B. Fly. C. Run. D. Inch.
10. What do the figures in paragraph 4 suggest?
A. It’s much harder to get salt from Monte Kali.
B. Monte Kali consists of massive amounts of salt.
C. Researchers have calculated the amount of salt in Monte Kali.
D. The increase of salt in Monte Kali has become a big problem.
11. What message does the author seem to convey in the last paragraph?
A. The potash industry will cease operating soon.
B. The operating company was punished by authorities.
C. The mountain has brought serious environmental problems.
D. The problems are minor to the value the potash industry creates.

D
When special occasions such as birthdays or big holiday events come around, parents often hurry around looking for that special toy for their children. But a study shows gifting children with memorable trips and fun experiences is better for their body, mind, and soul, and has corresponding positive impacts on the rest of the family.
In a 2017 study that surveyed about 500 women between 18 and 93 years old, Dr. Zita Oravecz, a human development and family studies professor at Pennsylvania State University, asked when they felt loved. The study showed the most popular answers had nothing to do with any tangible item. “Micro-moments of positivity, like a kind word, hugging a child or receiving compassion make people feel most loved.” he said.
Experts state, as opposed to toys, details from a trip are more likely to stick with children for long. When families interact in a stress-free environment during vacations, this creates warm, generous feelings towards one another which are likely to be remembered with fondness and don’t often come with material possessions. The excitement of a trip to an exotic place, the feeling of sand on one’s feet at the beach, or the fear felt on a terrifying ride at a theme park, are shared emotions that create stronger bonds and happy memories in the family.
In addition, British child psychologist Dr. Margot Sunderland believes that vacations make children smarter. “What is less widely known is that vacations can also advance brain development in children. On a family vacation, you are exercising the PLAY system and the SEEKING system deep in the brain’s limbic area, which can all too easily be unexercised in the home.” She continued, “In adulthood, this translates into the ability to play with ideas — essential to the successful entrepreneur.”
So on the next round of gift-giving with the children, consider an experiential gift instead! Costs can range from cheap to super expensive, but considering all the benefits, the return on investment is definitely priceless!
12. What is the study mainly about?
A. Why kids need gifts. B. How to plan a family trip.
C. What the best gifts for kids are. D. How to choose a special toy for kids.
13. What benefit can families get from trips?
A. Close connection with families.
B. Fondness coming with material possessions.
C. Overcoming the fear of rides at theme parks.
D. Excitement and knowledge of an exotic place.
14. What can be inferred from Sunderland’s words?
A. Family vacations bring long-term benefits to kids.
B. Vacations’ function to brain development is widely known.
C. Families should train kids to be successful entrepreneurs.
D. Kids exercise the same brain system on vacations as at home.
15. What is the author’s attitude to experiential gifts to kids?
A. Doubtful. B. Favorable. C. Critical. D. Unclear.

第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Good Ideas for Team Bonding Activities
Team bonding activities are a way of allowing team members to spend time together. As people get to know one another better, they will relax and start to feel at ease with the team. 16 Here are some good ideas for team bonding activities.
★ Sporting activities
Learning a new sport is a good way to get your team to bond. Some people may not have done the sport before, while others will have a varying degree of expertise. 17 This will foster a strong bond through the shared experience and most likely having a laugh together. It is important that everyone respects the skills that others do and don’t have. Avoid laughing at others. You want to encourage a supportive environment.
★ Team Cooking
18 Most cities have somewhere to go for group cooking sessions. Your team can work together to cook up something wonderful, or compete in smaller groups to encourage that competitive spirit.
For teenagers and students, you can organize a restaurant fund-raising evening where the youth plan, prepare, cook and serve a three-course meal to paying guests. 19 Any quarrels should be dealt with quickly and solutions found.
★ Team Bonding Games
Team bonding games are another way to get a team united. Instead of soccer, you can play crab football. Crab football is played just like soccer, but all players have to be on their hands and feet facing upwards at all times. 20
Other team games such as chariot races where all team members have to work together to achieve a goal are good. Games such as Capture the Flag don’t always work because it allows some people to drop out or not participate.
A. But make sure to keep the team on track.
B. Separate skilled people from the beginners.
C. Encourage those with skills to teach the beginners.
D. They will also develop a sense of faithfulness and unity.
E. Food is always a good idea when getting a team to bond.
F. This makes it much more fun and good for team bonding.
G. Cooking skills are always demanded in any bonding activities.

第二部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
On Christmas Eve, a young man went for a drive in his new car. He stopped near a park.
“Is this your car, Mister?” asked a young boy. The young man 21 with pride, “It’s a Christmas 22 from my brother.” The boy’s eyes grew wide in 23 . “Your brother got this fantastic car for you, and it 24 you nothing? Oh, boy! How I hope…” the boy hesitated.
The man thought he knew what he was 25 , but what came from the young boy’s mouth stunned the young man.
“I hope,” the boy continued, “I can 26 a brother just like your brother.”
Moved, the man said, “Would you like to take a ride in my new car?”
“Yes, Yes. I’d want it,” the kid 27 responded.
With eyes brightening, he then asked, “Mister! Would you mind driving to my 28 ?”
The man smiled. He thought the boy wanted to show other kids that he was in a fancy car. But, the man was 29 again.
Arriving at his house, the boy ran up the steps. When he returned, he was carrying his little 30 brother. “There it is”, he said to his brother, “just like I told you, his brother 31 the car to him. And one day, I’m going to 32 you something like this. Then you will be able to see for yourself all the beautiful 33 for Christmas.”
That day the three had a memorable holiday 34 in the car. The man learned the real meaning behind the saying, “It is more 35 to give than receive.”
21. A. reminded B. nodded C. signed D. denied
22. A. prize B. reward C. gift D. bonus
23. A. astonishment B. anger C. shame D. sorrow
24. A. saved B. wasted C. offered D. cost
25. A. picking out B. lacking in C. wishing for D. responding to
26. A. become B. encounter C. affect D. assist
27. A. naturally B. gracefully C. enthusiastically D. confidently
28. A. school B. home C. hotel D. shelter
29. A. right B. doubtful C. wrong D. hopeless
30. A. disabled B. talented C. sporty D. lucky
31. A. borrowed B. donated C. presented D. tailored
32. A. promise B. give C. lend D. pass
33. A. models B. decorations C. kits D. flags
34. A. ride B. party C. dinner D. camp
35. A. blessed B. typical C. dramatic D. suitable

第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
YINCHUAN－A new breakthrough has been achieved in the construction of the first railway tunnel passing 36 the Helan Mountains in northwest China’s Ningxia Hui Autonomous Region, local authorities said. With a total 37 (long) of 8,792 meters, the tunnel on the Yinchuan-Bayanhot railway is a single-line railway tunnel only 38 (use) for passenger transportation.
The complex geological conditions within the tunnel have made construction more challenging and exposed to a 39 (wide) range of accidents, including rockfall, collapse, and water and mud inflows, 40 create significant safety risks. A national nature reserve, the Helan Mountains have 41 fragile ecological environment. “In the completed section of the tunnel under the Great Wall of the Ming Dynasty (1368-1644), we 42 (apply) mechanical excavation to minimize the impact on the Great Wall,” said He Lilei, chief engineer responsible for the tunnel construction.
The Yinchuan-Bayanhot railway 43 (schedule) to open in 2026, linking Ningxia with the neighboring Inner Mongolia Autonomous Region and expected to facilitate rapid and seamless connectivity between Ningxia and surrounding major 44 (city).
The railway is of significant importance in promoting economic and social development, 45 (explore) tourism resources, and facilitating the opening up of the two regions.
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的美国好友Sam在做关于“中学生做家务”的调查，他想了解你做家务的情况。请你给他回复邮件，内容包括：
1. 你平时做哪些家务；
2. 你对中学生做家务的看法。
注意：
1. 词数80左右;
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Sam,




Yours,
Li Hua

第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Fiona Drayton was sitting in her office at work. Her wealth came from several transportation companies that were handed down from her father. Her son Joe would join the company as soon as he graduated from college.
“Hello?” Fiona answered the phone from her son’s school, and she was worried. They had never called her before because Joe was a great student and part of the basketball team at school. They shouldn’t be calling unless there was an emergency. “Mrs. Drayton, this is Miss Heller, your son’s head teacher. Joe hasn’t been at school for a week,” Miss Heller revealed.
“WHAT?” Fiona said loudly and angrily, standing up from her desk. Her son had been leaving her house at the same time every day. There was no reason he would be skipping school. “I see you don’t know about this yet. Well, I hope you have a talk with him,” Miss Heller advised, and Fiona hung up the phone.
That night, when she got home, she asked Joe about it. He looked at her sadly and said, “I wasn’t feeling well.” “OK, but where were you going each day?” Fiona demanded, her hands on her waist. “Nowhere,” he replied, shrugging his shoulders.
“Don’t ever do this again, Joe. Your future is too important to be wasted. Remember Stanford,” Fiona insisted, pointing her finger at the Stanford banners (横幅) on his wall.
Joe nodded, and Fiona thought he had learned his lesson.
The following morning, someone knocked on her door right before Joe was supposed to leave for school.
“Hello?” she said to the strange older lady outside her door.
“Mrs. Drayton?”
“Yes?”
“Hello, there. I’m Mrs. Geller. I’m your son’s art teacher,” the woman revealed. “I’m a private teacher. Your son has been coming to see me all week, and I thought I should introduce myself to you,” Mrs. Geller explained. “Mrs. Drayton, your son is extremely talented, and I have to say, he wants to be an artist.”
“I don’t understand. What is this woman talking about, Joe?” Fiona asked, turning around to face her son.
注意: 1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Joe had sadness and panic in his eyes.



“Are you sure of this?” Fiona sighed.




2023年高考适应性训练
英语试题（三）参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
1—3 DDC 4—7 BCAB 8—11 CABD 12—15 CAAB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
16 —20 DCEAF
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
21—25 BCADC 26—30 ACBCA 31—35 CBBAA
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)
36. through 37. length 38. used 39. wider 40. which
41. a 42. applied 43. is scheduled 44. cities 45. exploring
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
评分原则：
1. 本题总分为15分，按三个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4. 拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5. 词数少于70，从总分中减去2分。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第三档（11-15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整，条理清楚；
·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。[来源:Zxxk.Co
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（6-10分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第一档（1-5分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整；
·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
0分
未能传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。
第二节 (满分25分)
One possible version:
Paragraph 1：
Joe had sadness and panic in his eyes. “Yes, Mom. I think Mrs. Geller knows me better.” Joe whispered. In spite of Fiona’s astonished and angry eyes, Joe continued to tell Mom what had been long rooted in his mind. “I don’t want the life you want me to have. I hate basketball. I want to paint. I want to be an artist.” Tears in eyes, Joe said Mrs. Geller found him crying at the park and took him to her house. They started painting, and it was the best time of his life.
Paragraph 2：
“Are you sure of this?” Fiona sighed. “I’m sure, Mom,” Joe nodded firmly. Fiona stared at Joe for a while, and then invited Mrs. Geller in. She didn’t want her son to be unhappy. They had a long discussion that day about Joe’s future and private lessons. She allowed him to quit the basketball team and continue his lessons with Mrs. Geller. Years later, Joe got admitted into the best art school in the state and graduated with honors. It was a different life than Fiona imagined for him, but he was happy.
评分原则：
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.所续写短文的词数应为150左右（词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分）。
4.阅卷评分时，主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）故事发展的合理性和上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（21-25分）
与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息；
所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16-20分）
与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息；
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11-15分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
第二档（6-10分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了一些有关内容，较少利用了文中的关键信息；
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达；
较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1-5分）
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；
产出内容太少，很少利用了文中的关键信息；
语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；
缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷，内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。