精品解析：2022年广东省广州市中考英语真题（原卷版）

2022年广州市初中学业水平考试

英语

本试卷共14页，四大题，满分90分。考试用时100分钟。

一、语法选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1~15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项。

When I was nine years old, I wanted to keep a pet fish. After months of ___1___, I finally had enough money to get one. I named it Bob, I put ___2___ beautiful toy house with windows in the tank (鱼缸) so that Bob could swim through. Sometimes, I would draw pictures of ___3___ fish and sea plants and tape them to the side of the tank, so Bob wouldn’t get lonely while I ___4___ at school.

However, ___5___ a month, I noticed that the tank was getting dirty. My dad asked me ___6___ it into the kitchen. He wanted to make sure I knew ___7___ to do so that Bob wouldn’t get hurt.

First, my dad told me to reach ___8___ into the tank and take the house away. ___9___ I took my hand out of the water, I noticed that the water was a lot ____10____ than I thought.

“ That’s smelly! ” I said. “ Let’s hurry up and ____11____ the fish out of the water, Dad! ”

“ Not so fast Ben, ” Dad said. “ We need to save some of the old water, ____12____ Bob needs a place to stay while we clean the tank. ”

“ Why? ” I asked.

“ Running water from the tap can be harmful to fish, ” Dad explained. “ That ____13____ we can’t put Bob into fresh water right away. Instead, we need to put him in a cup with ____14____ of the dirty water for a while. ” …

All seemed so easy. I hoped the next time I would be able to clean the tank all by ____15____.

1. A. save B. saves C. saved D. saving

2. A. a B. an C. the D. /

3. A. other B. others C. the other D. the others

4. A. am B. was C. were D. will be

5. A. before B. for C. after D. during

6. A. bring B. bringing C. brought D. to bring

7. A. where B. what C. how D. why

8. A. care B. careful C. carefully D. caring

9. A. If B. Unless C. When D. Though

10. A. dirty B. dirtier C. dirtiest D. the dirtiest

11 A. get B. gets C. got D. getting

12. A. so B. or C. because D. but

13. A. mean B. means C. meant D. is meaning

14. A. few B. a few C. little D. a little

15. A. me B. my C. mine D. myself

二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分满分10分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项。

Sam was worried. The following morning, he would have art class. It was his favourite class, but there was a ____16____. Sam saw the world differently from everybody else. When he drew, birds had different-sized wings, and buildings had strange shapes. Every time he painted a picture, his teachers and classmates would be ____17____.

It was time for the art class. Nervously, Sam looked at the white piece of paper in front of him.

“ Good morning, class, ” said Mr. White. “ Today, we’re going to paint … ”

Sam ____18____, wondering what the next word would be. Please, he thought, not houses. Not buildings …

“ We’re going to paint ____19____” said Mr. White, with a smile.

“ Yes! Great! ” said Sam ____20____

“ We can’t paint that! ” shouted Mike from the other side of the classroom.

“Sure, you can,” replied Mr. White ____21____. “ Think about it, Mike. What makes you happy? ”

“ Umm … beaches, sunshine, and … ice-cream! ” said Mike.

“ Well, there you go. That’s how you paint it. Start working! ” said Mr. White.

Sam was already ____22____. He splashed (泼洒) large amounts of paint all over the ____23____. It was really beautiful! There were shapes that we didn’t have in the real world and the colours were so shining. The whole class ____24____ and Sam looked proud.

From that day on, Sam was never ______25______ about art class. He knew that he could paint happiness, no matter what he painted.

16. A. difference B. problem C. reason D. way

17. A. encouraged B. relaxed C. satisfied D. surprised

18. A. agreed B. replied C. understood D. waited

19. A. buildings B. houses C. happiness D. summer

20. A. excitedly B. carelessly C. kindly D. sadly

21. A. angrily B. patiently C. secretly D. worriedly

22. A. painting B. playing C. talking D. writing

23. A. book B. floor C. paper D. wall

24. A. cheered B. doubted C. finished D. regretted

25. A. careful B. certain C. happy D. nervous

三、阅读（共两节，满分35分）

第一节  阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从26~40各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

(A)

When you and your friends turn to each other to talk about problems or troubles, you give each other advice and help. One important thing of our growth is to make decisions to help our friends and learn to support each other. This requires us to learn what it means to help friends and how to help them in right ways.

The first step toward helping others is to identify that they need help. We all know that difficulties are part of our daily lives. However, sometimes small things can lead to more serious problems that require more help. It’s important to make sure when to help a friend. For example, you may pick up some signs that your friends are not acting like themselves. These signs show they may not be well.

The next step toward helping others is to listen. Paying attention to others while listening is very important throughout our life. When we communicate with others, we need to learn when to speak and when not to. As listeners, we should try to understand what the speakers are feeling or experiencing and try to see things from their perspectives. Listening and paying attention to others when they speak is a sign of respect and a skill that will lead to deeper and better relationships.

26. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To discuss why people help each other. B. To describe the problems of giving help.

C. To introduce the advantages of giving help. D. To explain how we can help others properly.

27. What does the underlined word “identify” in paragraph 2 mean?

A. Require. B. Discover. C. Suggest. D. Remember.

28. What is the main idea of paragraph 3?

A. Act as a good listener to your friends. B. Learn how to give advice to your friends.

C Pay attention to your friends’ unusual acts. D. Build good relationships with your friends.

29. According to the writer, what should you do if your friends don’t follow your advice on their serious problems?

A. Keep their problems as secrets. B. Let them make their own decisions.

C. Find out the causes of their problems. D. Get help from their trusted teachers.

(B)

Slowly but surely, Amy and her grandparents were making progress. Boxes of all sizes were placed on top of each other throughout the house. Amy’s grandparents had lived in the house for years and they had collected many things.

The dining room was full of memories. Amy’s grandfather kept many fine dinner plates（盘子）from his hometown. Amy remembered that they ate from the red, yellow, and blue plates during important holidays.

After carefully wrapping up（包裹）the plates and putting them into a box, Amy lifted it up and moved it out of the way. But the box was too heavy. It suddenly fell from her arms and dropped to the floor. All three of them heard the plates shatter.

“ I’m sorry! ” Amy apologised.

“ It’s okay, ” her grandfather said quietly. “ It was an accident. ”

They opened the box and, sure enough, many of the plates were broken. Only a few remained whole. Looking at the small pieces, Amy felt really terrible. She knew these plates were passed down from her great grandparents and …

“ Don’t worry, ” her grandmother said, patting her on the back. Carefully, they put the broken pieces into a rubbish bag.

They continued packing for a little while, but Amy still felt very sorry. She was trying very hard to think of a way to make it up for her grandparents.

Soon, Amy’s father came.

“ I have to go, ” she said. “ Dad is here to pick me up. ”

She kissed her grandparents both, picked up the bag of the broken pieces and left.

“ What’s that? ” her father asked, as Amy climbed into the car.

Amy looked at the bag in her hands as an idea came to her. “ This, ” she said, “ is an art project. ”

The following day, Amy went to an art store and bought everything she needed. Then she started to work. She used a thin board as the base. Then she took out the colourful plate pieces and glued them in a creative way on the board. When it was dry, Amy wrapped it up.

A few days later, Amy’s family had a big dinner at her grandparents’ new house. She handed her gift to her grandparents.

“ This is fantastic, Amy! ” said her grandfather.

“ I can’t wait to hang it up in our new home, ” Amy’s grandmother said as she gave her a big hug.

30. What was Amy helping her grandparents do at the beginning of the story?

A. Move to a new house. B. Wrap up some presents.

C. Collect fine dinner plates. D. Prepare a big family dinner.

31. Why did Amy feel sorry for the broken plates?

A. They were never used by the family. B. They were valuable holiday presents.

C. They were meaningful family treasures. D. They were expensive hometown products.

32. How did Amy finally deal with the broken plate pieces?

A. She sent them to an art store. B. She put them in her father’s car.

C. She made a special gift with them. D. She threw them into a rubbish bag.

33. Which of the following best describes Amy?

A. Kind and creative. B. Brave but forgetful.

C. Careless but helpful. D. Funny and hardworking.

(C)

Charles Darwin

Early years

Charles Darwin was one of the six children from a big family. His grandfather and father were doctors and the young Darwin went to Edinburgh University to study medicine. However, he hated to see blood and he soon realized that he couldn’t be a doctor. He then went to Cambridge University and discovered that he had a great interest in studying plants, insects and animals. Luckily, one of Darwin’s university teachers helped him, join the perfect trip for a biologist: a voyage around the world to study nature.

The Beagle

In 1831, Charles Darwin left Plymouth on The Beagle, a ship that took him around the world for five years. While he was travelling, he studied the plants and animals in the countries and on the islands that the ship visited. Darwin also spent his time on The Beagle writing notes about the things he had seen. When he finally arrived back in Britain, Darwin was already starting to create his famous theory that all living things had a common ancestor (祖先).

Down house

At home at Down House, a place that you can still visit today, Darwin wrote many articles and books about his travels, but he didn’t want to make anything about his theory known to the public. He worked in his study, where he wrote 250,000 words about his theory of evolution (进化论), but he was frightened about what people might say about his idea that monkeys were the ancestors of humans. He thought the public would be against it and was so frightened that he became ill with worry. However, when another scientist started to write about similar ideas, Darwin decided to print his book, On the Origin of Species.

Most scientists accepted Darwin’s theory and people continue to study it today. On 12th February, the day he was born, Darwin Day is celebrated around the world to encourage more people to study the natural world.

34. What caused Darwin to give up his study of medicine?

A He didn’t like seeing blood. B. He found the studies too difficult.

C. He was pushed to give up by his family. D. He was advised to study natural science.

35. Why was the trip on The Beagle important to Darwin?

A. It helped him to finish his study at the university.

B. It allowed him to change his mind about his future.

C. It gave him ideas about the beginnings of human life.

D. It got him to complete his most famous book on the ship.

36. In what order did the following happen in Darwin’s life?

a. He arrived back in Britain in 1836.

b. He thought the public would not support his ideas.

c. He became interested in studying the natural world.

d. He printed his famous book, On the Origin of Species.

e. He received help to get a place on a trip around the world.

f. He studied the plants and animals on the islands he visited.

A. e→f→c→a→b→d B. c→e→f→a→b→d C. e→f→a→c→d→b D. c→e→f→d→a→b

37. Why did the writer include the last paragraph?

A. To introduce Darwin’s famous book.

B. To tell how people celebrate Darwin Day.

C. To explain why people accept Darwin’s ideas.

D. To show Darwin’s influence on natural science.

(D)

38. What will players carry in the game?

A. A map, a compass and a flag. B. A flag, a compass and a card.

C. A compass, a map and a card. D. A phone, a compass and a map.

39. Which of the following is a rule of the game?

A. You don’t need to mark the cards.

B. You can’t miss any of the controls to win.

C. You have to find controls in numbered order.

D. You must be the first to pass the finish line to win.

40. How many controls has Anna finished in the game?

A. 9. B. 10. C. 11. D. 12.

第二节  阅读填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

阅读短文及文后A~E选项，选出可以填入41~45各题空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

We all know that exercise is good for us, don’t we? ____41____ Just thinking about having to run or swim a long way can be enough to make some people want to lie down and give up! However, did you know that exercise is not all about doing sport?

____42____ Moving our bodies causes our brains to give out some special chemicals that create a good feeling. Just ten minutes of working out can leave us feeling happier, Moreover, regular exercise helps us feel fresher and get to sleep more easily. Finally, if we connect our exercise with a healthy diet, we will look healthier and feel more confident about ourselves. Sounds like a good deal, doesn’t it?

____43____ If exercise hasn’t been part of your life for a long time, there is no point training for a marathon（马拉松）: you will soon give up and go back to your old ways! Walking and riding bikes around the local park for ten minutes every day are great ways to develop a fitness habit.

Choose an activity that not only exercises your body, but that you also enjoy. Some people simply go jogging while listening to their favourite music. Others take up activities such as dancing or playing basketball with their friends. Make the experience more enjoyable as you work out. ____44____

It doesn’t matter how much we exercise. Doing regular exercise isn’t just about appearance. ____45____ Who wouldn’t want that?

A. Start small!

B. That way, you’ll never give it up!

C. It’s about being healthier and feeling happier.

D. For a start, exercise is not just about the body.

E. But we also know that not everybody loves doing it.

四、写作（共三节，满分30分）

第一节语篇填词（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

阅读短文，根据上下文和所给的首字母写出所缺单词。注意使用正确形式，每空限填一词。答卷时，要求写出完整单词。

Dunbuang is a historic city in Gansu. In ancient times, Dunhuang was an important c ___46___ of trade. As the Silk Road developed, Dunhuang became China’s western gateway to the world. Here, different cultures met and influenced each other. People from f ___47___ countries did business and communicated with the local people.

If you v ___48___ Dunhuang, you will be able to see the Mogao Caves（莫高窟）. If you walk i ___49___ , you will discover some of the wonderful artworks. There are over 45,000 square metres of beautiful paintings on the cave walls, as well as thousands of statues.

Over the years, China has made great efforts to protect the Mogao Caves. Today, you can also find high-quality photos of the artworks on the Internet. People all over the world now have a c ___50___ to see Dunhuang’s treasures online.

第二节  完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据所给的汉语内容，用英语完成下列句子。（每空限填一词）

51. 凯特计划参加学校科学日活动。

Kate was planning to ______ ______ ______ the activities on the school Science Day.

52. 凯特想知道她是否能为科学日做些事。

Kate wondered ______ ______ ______ ______ something for the Science Day.

53. 一开始，凯特小组制作水火箭有困难。

At first, Kate’s group ______ ______ ______ ______ the bottle rocket.

54. 在科学老师的帮助下，凯特小组的水火箭得以成功发射。

With the help of the science teacher, the bottle rocket ______ ______ successfully by Kate’s group.

55. 学校科学日很精彩。凯特小组真高兴！

The school Science Day was wonderful. ______ ______ Kate’s group were!

第三节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分）

56. 你校将兴建新图书馆，学校英文报以“My Green School Library”为题向学生征稿。请根据以下思维导图的内容提示写一篇短文投稿，介绍你所设计（design）的绿色图书馆。

注意：

1.可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息；

2.词数80词左右（短文的开头已给出，不计入词数）；

3.不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息，否则不予评分。

My Green School Library

I want to design a green school library.

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