2023天津市十四中_高三上学期期末考试英语含答案
展开2022—2023学年度高三年级第一学期期末考试试卷
第一部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节:单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. —It’s great that some fast food restaurants plan to use drinking straws made of paper.
— . It will help protect the environment.
A. You got it B. You name it C. You can’t be serious D. You can never tell it
2. I up my mind about what I was going to say in the seminar, but it was cancelled.
A. have made B. had made C. was making D. would make
3. Back from his two-year medical service in Africa, Dr. Lee was very happy to see his mother ________ good care of at home.
A. taking B. taken
C. take D. be taken
4. Clearly and thoughtfully written, the book inspires in students who wish to seek their own answers.
A. reference B. structure C. confidence D. resource
5. Henry David Thoreau was happy to ________ from social life, seeking a harmonious relationship with nature in the quietness of his life.
A. judge B. differ C. withdraw D. benefit
6. --Haven’t seen you for ages! Do you still work in Guangzhou?
---______. It’s two years since I worked there.
A. Yes, I have B. Yes, I do C. No, I haven’t D. No, I don’t
7. Cheer up! Everyone may have periods in their lives everything seems tough.
A. which B. where C. when D. that
8. (2015·福建) the students came from different countries, they got along quite well in the summer camp.
A. While B. Unless
C. Since D. Until
9. —Shall I inform him of the change of the schedule right now?
—I am afraid you _______,in case he comes late for the meeting.
A. will B. must C. may D. can
10. In art criticism, you must assume the artist has a secret message within the work.
A. to hide B. being hidden C. hiding D. hidden
11. There are some differences between American and British English, but do you know the differences came into being?
A. how B. what C. whether D. that
12. At first the athlete was among the runners, but he seemed to be slowing down.
A in the end B. in the way C. in the lead D. in the distance
13. Glass is obviously a wiser choice for the plant as it can easily be recycled and does not take hundreds of years to like plastic.
A. break off B. break out C. break down D. break into
14. There is no easy way to remember prepositions, as it is one area of English____ the rules seem very irregular.
A. that B. where
C. whose D. which
15. Thanks to advances in technology, how we make friends and communicate with them has changed .
A. significantly B. anxiously C. fortunately D. generously
第二节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从21~40各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A little girl lived in a simple and poor house on a hill. Usually she ___16___ play in the small garden. She could see over the garden fence and across the valley a wonderful house with shining golden windows high on another hill.___17___ she loved her parents and her family, she desired to live in such a house and ___18___all day about how wonderful and exciting ___19___must feel to live there.
At the age when she gained some ___20___ skill and sensibility (识别力), she ___21___ her mother for a bike ride ___22___ the garden. Her mother finally allowed her to go,___23___ her keeping close to the house and not ___24___ too far. The day was beautiful. The little girl knew____25____ where she was heading! ____26____ the hill and across the valley, she rode to the ____27____ of the golden house.
____28____ she got off her bike and put it against the gate post, she focused on the path____29____to the house and then on the house itself. She was very disappointed when she ____30____ that all the windows were ____31____ and rather dirty.
So ____32____and heartbroken, she didn't go any further. She ____33____, and all of a sudden she saw an amazing ____34____. There on the other side of the valley was a little house and its windows were golden. Looking at her little home, she____35____ that she had been living in her golden house filled with love and care. Everything she dreamed was right there in front of her house.
16. A. might B. should C. would D. must
17. A. Unless B. Although C. Since D. But
18. A. dreamed B. worried C. asked D. shouted
19. A. this B. that C. it D. which
20. A. different B. scientific C. musical D. basic
21. A. begged B. blamed C. invited D. paid
22. A. inside B. outside C. through D. along
23. A. insisting on B. relying on C. arguing about D. wondering about
24. A. traveling B. running C. riding D. walking
25. A. madly B. rapidly C. exactly D. possibly
26. A. Over B. Down C. Around D. Beside
27. A. windows B. steps C. center D. gate
28. A. Until B. As C. While D. Because
29. A. getting B. introducing C. leading D. moving
30. A. felt B. learned C. concluded D. found
31. A. transparent B. bright C. plain D. wide
32. A. anxious B. angry C. serious D. sad
33. A. turned around B. cheered up C. settled down D. dropped in
34. A. hill B. valley C. background D. sight
35. A. imagined B. decided C. realized D. guessed
第二部分:阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
The final results of Best-Ever Teen Fiction vote are in. While it’s no surprise to see Harry Potter and The Hunger Games series on top, this year’s list also highlights some writers we weren’t as familiar with. For example, John Green, author of The Fault in Our Stars, appears five times in the top 100.
Summer, like youth, passes quickly. But the books we read when we’re young can stay with us for a lifetime. The following are the top 4 on the list. Enjoy.
1. Harry Potter series
The Harry Potter books make up the popular series written by J. K. Rowing. The series includes seven books. The books concern a wizard (魔法师) called Harry Potter and his journey through Hogwarts School of Witchcraft and Wizardry. The stories tell of him over coming dangerous obstacles to defeat the dark wizard Lord Voldemort who killed his parents when Harry was 15 months old.
2. The Hunger Games series
In the ruins of a future North America, a young girl is picked to leave her poor district and travel to Capitol for a battle to the death in the cruel Hunger Games. But for Katniss Everdeen, the main character in this series by Suzanne Collins, winning the Games only puts her deeper in danger as the strict social order of Panem begins to unravel (瓦解).
3. To Kill a Mockingbird
Author Harper Lee explores racial tensions in the fictional “tired old town” of Maycomb, Ala., through the eyes of 6-year-old Scout Finch. As her lawyer father, Atticus, defends a black man accused of a crime, Scout and her friends learn about the unjust treatment of African-Americans – and their mysterious neighbor, Boo Radley.
4. The fault in Our Stars
Hazel Grace, a teenage girl, has got all sorts of cancer inside her body, and her lungs aren’t working very well. She knows she is dying and doesn’t live in hope any more. When a man named Augustus Waters suddenly appears at the Cancer Kid Support Group, Hazel’s story is about to be completely rewritten.
36. What do we know about John Green?
A. One of his novels tops the list.
B. Many of his novels are very popular.
C. He is the favorite writer of many teens.
D. He was a well-known writer long before the vote.
37. Who is the author of The Hunger Games series?
A. Harper Lee.
B. John Green.
C. J.K. Rowling.
D. Suzanne Collins.
38. What is To Kill a Mockingbird mainly about?
A. Lifelong friendships.
B. Racial discrimination.
C. A man working as a lawyer.
D. A little girl’s difficult childhood.
39. Hazel in The Fault in Our Stars ______.
A. is very optimistic
B. writes a great story
C. makes many mistakes
D is changed by Augustus.
40. In which part of a newspaper can we find the text probably?
A. Sports.
B. News.
C. Literature.
D. Entertainment.
B
Brandon Smith, in Houston, Texas, turned 12 on April 11. It is a tough time to have a birthday. But he still had a socially distanced birthday celebration that he will always remember.
Celebrations in the age of the coronavirus(冠状病毒) have forced people to get creative. Brandon’s father, Jody Smith, went on Twitter with a simple request. He posted a picture of Brandon on it. In the photo, Brandon is holding up a drawing. It is a blank map of the world. Mr. Smith asked people on Twitter to reply to his post and say where they are. That way, his map-loving son could mark the locations.
“I thought it would be fun to get 50-maybe 100-people to reply from around the world, and most would be in the US.” Smith said, “That’s really what my expectations were.”
To his surprise, however, thousands of responses to Smith’s request came in. Pictures were sent from the Caribbean, South America and Europe.
Brandon would add each spot to his map. “He is having a blast,” Mr. Smith said.
In the afternoon of April 11, Brandon was popular on Twitter. He was the most-talked-about topic.
Brandon did not really want a birthday party. He wanted to do an activity he likes. “Brandon is on the autism spectrum(自闭症).” Smith said. Children with autism have different abilities. They get very interested in things. They will be interested in it for just a few weeks, Sometimes, months, One thing that Brandon continues to love is maps.
Mr. Smith’s phone pinged with so many birthday messages. Each time one arrived, Brandon put a mark on his map. He put it wherever the message came from. He knew where most places were. He hardly had to look at a real map to check.
By noon, Brandon’s map was covered in marks. Mr. Smith was grateful for all the responses.
“These are pretty trying times,” Mr. Smith said. He was glad to see people being kind. Mr. Smith said the responses made Brandon feel so special on his birthday.
41. Why did Smith ask people on Twitter to send birthday messages to his son?
A. Brandon needed encouragement during this difficult time.
B. He wanted to see how many responses he could get.
C. Brandon spends much of his time talking to people on the internet.
D. He could not celebrate how he usually would because of the coronavirus.
42. What happened after people told Brandon where they were?
A. He marked the locations on his map.
B. He added the spots to a list.
C. He mailed them a letter.
D. He read about the places.
43. Why does Brandon does not like birthday parties?
A. The coronavirus has changed how people are celebrating.
B. Friends have what is being called socially distanced birthday parties.
C. Children with autism have different abilities.
D. Mr. Smith explained that Brandon gets very interested in things.
44. Why does Smith feel surprised about the response to his Twitter post?
A. He thought that more people would reply to it.
B. He did not expect so many people to reply to it.
C. He thought that more people from Texas would reply to it.
D. He did not know that he had so many Twitter followers.
45. What does the underlined word “trying” mean?
A. Difficult. B. hard-working.
C. Interesting. D. tiring.
C
How fit are your teeth? Are you lazy about brushing them? Never fear: An inventor is on the case. An electric toothbrush senses how long and how well you brush, and it lets you track your performance on your phone.
The Kolibree toothbrush was exhibited at the International Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas this week. It senses how it is moved and can send the information to an Android phone or iPhone via a Bluetooth wireless connection.
The toothbrush will be able to teach you to brush right (don’t forget the insides of the teeth!) and make sure you’re brushing long enough. “It’s kind of like having a dentist actually watch your brushing on a day-to-day basis,” says Thomas Serval, the French inventor.
The toothbrush will also be able to talk to other applications on your phone, so developers could, for instance, create a game controlled by your toothbrush. You could score points for beating monsters among your teeth. “We try to make it smart but also fun,” Several says.
Serval says he was inspired by his experience as a father. He would come home from work and ask his kids if they had brushed their teeth. They said “yes,” but Serval would find their toothbrush heads dry. He decided he needed a brush that really told him how well his children brushed.
The company says the Kolibree will go on sale this summer, for $99 to $199, developing on features. The U.S. is the first target market.
Serval says that one day, it’ll be possible to replace the brush on the handle with a brushing unit that also has a camera. The camera can even examine holes in your teeth while you brush.
46. Which is one of the feature of the Kolibree toothbrush?
A. It can sense how users brush their teeth.
B. It can track users’ school performance.
C. It can detect users’ fear of seeing a dentist.
D. It can help users find their phones.
47. What can we learn from Serval’s words in Paragraph 3?
A. You will find it enjoyable to see a dentist.
B. You should see your dentist on a day-to –day basis.
C. You can brush with the Kolibree as if guided by a dentist.
D. You’d like a dentist to watch you brush your teeth every day.
48. Which of the following might make the Kolibree toothbrush fun?
A. It can be used to update mobile phones.
B. It can be used to play mobile phone games
C. It can send messages to other users
D. It can talk to its developers.
49. What is Paragraph 5 mainly about?
A. How Serval found out his kids lied to him.
B. Why Serval thought brushing teeth was necessary.
C. How Serval taught his kids to brush their teeth.
D. What inspired Serval to invent the toothbrush
50. What can we infer about Serval’s children?
A. They were unwilling to brush their teeth
B. They often failed to clean their toothbrushes.
C. They preferred to use a toothbrush with a dry head.
D. They liked brushing their teeth after Serval came home.
D
Albert Einsein said,“Only a life lived for others is worth living.”
How does this job offer sound? You’ll need to be available on short notice,including late at night and on weekends. You could be asked to do anything from helping at community events to responding to life-threatening emergencies (sometimes putting your own safety at risk). This job also involves a lot of regular training. Oh, and you won't be paid for any of this. Would you take the job?
This job might not necessarily appeal to everyone, but if this sounds like an opportunity you’d eagerly accept,then you’d fit right in with Western Australia’s 26,000 emergency service volunteers. The emergency services aren't the only industry benefiting from volunteers. Across both Australia and America, between a quarter and half of the population volunteer each year in areas including education, sports, health, religion, and social services.
What motivates people to volunteer? Yes, volunteers don't get paid. But it doesn't mean people don't get benefits from volunteering. Indeed, research shows there are significant mental health benefits coming with volunteering. It can be a means to make new friends, build new skills or try things out of your comfort zone. It can also be a means to help loved ones. A case is someone close to me who recently lost her husband to a disease. When her husband was admitted to a nursing facility, she decided to volunteer for the patient advocacy committee. She found great support and felt she could make a difference in the lives of the patients. After her husband's passing, she decided to continue volunteering for the committee not only as a way to show gratitude for the great care her husband received but also because she made friends there. She found a way to put her career skills to use for the common good and keep active after retirement.
There are countless ways to volunteer. No matter how you do it, it is definitely worth every minute you put into it.
51. If we are committed to “this job” described in Para. 2, we are _______.
A. always in danger of losing our lives
B. on call 24 hours a day, 7 days a week
C. busy providing first-aid training in communities
D. going to work on weekends and rest on weekdays
52. What does the author mainly tell us in the third paragraph?
A. Not everyone is fit to be a volunteer.
B. Many industries in the world need volunteers.
C. Many emergency services exist in Western Australia.
D. Many people devote themselves to volunteering in Australia and America.
53. We can come to the conclusion that volunteering _______.
A. is a win-win situation
B. benefits both the body and the mind
C. spreads quickly among people
D. is hard to stick to without rewards
54. The author's friend kept volunteering after her husband's death _________.
A. for her interest to learn career skills
B. to stay helpful and related to people
C. as a means to get over her great loss
D. because it was her husband's last will
55. What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?
A. To encourage volunteering.
B. To advertise a job opportunity.
C. To express gratitude to volunteers.
D. To give advice on volunteering.
第三部分:写作
第一节:阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读短文,按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
When I was a boy growing up, I could not once ever remember either my mom or my grandmother wasting food. Anything we didn’t eat at one meal was saved, stored, and served as leftovers (剩饭剩菜) later on. I can remember my grandmother making a huge pot of brown beans with a large cake of cornbread. We would all eat until we were stuffed but there was always about half of the beans left over. A few days later my grandmother would take those beans out of the refrigerator, boil pasta, add parsley and mix them all together into her delicious Pasta Fasule. And I also remember when I watched my mom fry bacon for us in the mornings, she would always take the grease (油脂) and carefully pour it into a container. Then she later would use it to flavor up so many other dishes. I was an adult before I realized that green beans didn’t actually taste like bacon.
I learned their lessons well and after I grew up I tried never to waste food by myself. I always planned the week’s meals ahead of time and only bought what was on my shopping list so nothing went to waste. Every meal went into my stomach and any leftovers were later eaten by either myself, my boys, or my dogs. To me throwing food in the trash was just wrong. All the work it took to grow it, harvest it, and prepare it needed to be honored, not wasted.
I learned something else over the years, however: when it comes to living there are no leftovers. Each moment that you don’t live is lost forever. Life cannot be saved. Life cannot be stored. Life has to be lived, TODAY!
Live each moment of your life to the fullest then. Make every day a feast of love with no leftovers. Leo Buscaglia once said: “Each day is a fresh beginning, a little life unto itself.” Don’t let any of these little lives go to waste. Live your life with a full belly and a full heart.
56. What does the underlined word in Paragraph 1 probably mean? (1 word)
____________________________________________________________
57. How could the beans the author ate as a child taste like bacon? (no more than 10 words)
____________________________________________________________
58. What did the author do to avoid wasting food? (no more than 15 words)
____________________________________________________________
59. What do the last two paragraphs mainly talk about? (no more than 20 words)
____________________________________________________________
60. How do you live your life to the fullest? Please explain. (no more than 20 words)
____________________________________________________________
第二节:书面表达(满分25分)
61. 假设你是晨光中学高三一班的李津。你的英国笔友Chris发来邮件告诉你,他很高兴在当地孔子学院主办的“汉语桥”世界中学生中文比赛中荣获诗歌朗诵一等奖,但还想更深入的学习中文,希望你能给他一些建议。请你根据以下提示,用英文给Chris回复一封电子邮件。
内容包括:
(1)祝贺Chris获奖;
(2)提供深入学习汉语的建议(如:读中文原著,用中文记日记等);
(3)邀请Chris来中国学习交流。
注意:(1)词数不少于100词;
(2)可适当加入细节,使内容充实、行文连贯;
(3)开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
参考词汇:
孔子学院 Confucius Institute
汉语桥 Chinese Bridge
Dear Chris,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Jin
第五部分:听力(满分20分)
试卷A
听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.15. C.£9.18.
答案是 B。
1. What was the weather like yesterday?
A. Cloudy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
2. What does the woman mean?
A. She is happy to help.
B. She cannot afford any tip.
C. She is going to visit Henry soon.
3. What is the woman asking about?
A. How to get to the Great Wall.
B. If the man knows a group tour.
C. What the woman will do this weekend.
4. What did the woman think about her day?
A. Boring and tiring. B. Tiring but fun. C. Relaxing and interesting.
5. What are the two speakers probably doing?
A. Playing tennis.
B. Climbing a mountain.
C. Running along a beach.
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6 至第 8 三个小题。
6. What’s the relationship between the two speakers?
A. Strangers B. Friends. C. Neighbors.
7. How many children does the man have?
A. At most three. B. At least four. C. At least five.
8. What do we know about the man?
A. He lacks friends. B. He lives on his own. C. He loves travelling around.
听下面一段对话,回答第 9 至第 11 三个小题。
9. Why did the man choose not to visit Beijing in the end?
A. Because he didn’t like the hot weather there.
B. Because he had no friend to accompany him there.
C. Because he was told about a more popular tourist site.
10. Which of the following places did the man miss visiting?
A. The Huang Guo Shu Waterfalls.
B. The historical city Zunyi.
C. The Maling Gorge.
11. What does the man probably think of his trip?
A. Terrible. B. Just so-so. C. Fascinating.
听下面一段独白,回答第 12 至第 15 四个小题。
12. Why did Anne Lindbergh begin to write?
A. To reduce her sadness.
B. To tell stories to her kids.
C. To record her flying times.
13. What do we know about the book Listen! The Wind?
A. It was a novel. B. It was disappointing. C. It was well received.
14. Which of the following books is mainly about women’s issues?
A. North to the Orient. B. Gift from the Sea. C. The Wave of the Future.
15. What do we know about the book Hour of Gold, Hour of Lead?
A. It was written in the 1960s.
B. It told a story of a sad father and his son.
C. It was about the author’s happy and sad life events.
试卷B
听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.15. C.£9.18.
答案是 B。
1. How does the woman usually feel when she is asked to sing?
A. Excited. B. Relaxed. C. Worried.
2. Why does the woman choose to stay in Beijing?
A. Because Beijing is her hometown.
B. Because she thinks Beijing is exciting.
C. Because she has made some new friends there.
3. What is the man?
A A singer. B. An employee. C. A student.
4. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Their past summer vacation.
B. Where to work after graduation.
C. Their plans for the summer vacation.
5 How does the man react to the woman’s suggestion?12
A. He totally ignores it. B. He wants to have a try. C. He’ll talk with his doctor first.
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。
6. What is Dylan Riley Snyder?
A. A Hollywood movie actor.
B. A singer.
C. A TV actor.
7. What does Dylan Riley Snyder like doing in his spare time?
A. Watching TV series Kickin’ It.
B. Spending his time on charity.
C. Reading books in his room.
8. What is the woman probably doing there?
A. Paying the man’s parents a visit.
B. Asking about some organizations.
C. Returning a book to the man’s mother.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。
9. Why does the woman call?
A. To ask the man to attend a job interview.
B. To tell the man he has got the position.
C. To ask the man why he cannot go to work.
10. What makes the man unable to go to work?
A. That he suddenly became ill.
B. That his arm has been broken.
C. That he has to care for his mother.
11. When will the man go to work?
A. In two days. B. In a week. C. In nine days.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。
12. Where are the tips from?
A. A radio program. B. A TV program. C. Dr. Harold Koplewicz.
13. What are the tips mainly about?
A. What to do when you’re sad after reading sad news.
B. What news to choose to read in your spare time.
C. How to avoid being affected by others’ moods.
14. What does the speaker advise you to do in the second tip?
A. Take part in activities.
B. Choose to move forward.
C. Talk to parents and teachers.
15. How many tips are mentioned by the speaker in total?
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
2022—2023学年度高三年级第一学期期末考试试卷
第一部分:英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节:单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】C
【6题答案】
【答案】D
【7题答案】
【答案】C
【8题答案】
【答案】A
【9题答案】
【答案】B
【10题答案】
【答案】D
【11题答案】
【答案】A
【12题答案】
【答案】C
【13题答案】
【答案】C
【14题答案】
【答案】B
【15题答案】
【答案】A
第二节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从21~40各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
【16~35题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. C 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. C
第二部分:阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2.5分,满分50分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. D 38. B 39. D 40. C
B
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. D 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. A
C
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. A
D
【51~55题答案】
【答案】51. B 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. A
第三部分:写作
第一节:阅读表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. full
57. His mother added grease from frying bacon to the beans.
58. The author planned the next week’s food and ate all leftovers.
59. Life shouldn’t be wasted and we should live each moment to the fullest.
60. I treasure every minute and every second of my life and do everything well because wasting life is shameful.
第二节:书面表达(满分25分)
【61题答案】
【答案】Dear Chris,
Hearing that you won the first prize in the poetry recitation contest Chinese Bridge hosted by local Confucius Institute, I am so glad and sincerely sending my congratulations to you.
As to the suggestions on how to further learn Chinese, it’s advisable that you should be exposed to Chinese literature, which helps you build a good sense of Chinese language. What’s more, you might as well try keeping a diary in Chinese in that more practice contributes to better mastery. Last but not least, how about finding a Chinese language partner with whom you can communicate if you would like to improve your Chinese fluency?
Hope my advice is worth taking. Meanwhile, I’d love to invite you to learn and exchange in China one day.
Yours,
Li Jin
第五部分:听力(满分20分)
试卷A
听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.15. C.£9.18.
答案是 B。
1. What was the weather like yesterday?
A. Cloudy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
2. What does the woman mean?
A. She is happy to help.
B. She cannot afford any tip.
C. She is going to visit Henry soon.
3. What is the woman asking about?
A. How to get to the Great Wall.
B. If the man knows a group tour.
C. What the woman will do this weekend.
4. What did the woman think about her day?
A. Boring and tiring. B. Tiring but fun. C. Relaxing and interesting.
5. What are the two speakers probably doing?
A. Playing tennis.
B. Climbing a mountain.
C Running along a beach.
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6 至第 8 三个小题。
6. What’s the relationship between the two speakers?
A. Strangers B. Friends. C. Neighbors.
7. How many children does the man have?
A. At most three. B. At least four. C. At least five.
8. What do we know about the man?
A. He lacks friends. B. He lives on his own. C. He loves travelling around.
听下面一段对话,回答第 9 至第 11 三个小题。
9. Why did the man choose not to visit Beijing in the end?
A. Because he didn’t like the hot weather there.
B. Because he had no friend to accompany him there.
C. Because he was told about a more popular tourist site.
10. Which of the following places did the man miss visiting?
A. The Huang Guo Shu Waterfalls.
B. The historical city Zunyi.
C. The Maling Gorge.
11. What does the man probably think of his trip?
A. Terrible. B. Just so-so. C. Fascinating.
听下面一段独白,回答第 12 至第 15 四个小题。
12. Why did Anne Lindbergh begin to write?
A. To reduce her sadness.
B. To tell stories to her kids.
C. To record her flying times.
13. What do we know about the book Listen! The Wind?
A. It was a novel. B. It was disappointing. C. It was well received.
14. Which of the following books is mainly about women’s issues?
A. North to the Orient. B. Gift from the Sea. C. The Wave of the Future.
15. What do we know about the book Hour of Gold, Hour of Lead?
A. It was written in the 1960s.
B. It told a story of a sad father and his son.
C. It was about the author’s happy and sad life events.
试卷B
听力(共两节,满分20分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.15. C.£9.18.
答案是 B。
1. How does the woman usually feel when she is asked to sing?
A. Excited. B. Relaxed. C. Worried.
2. Why does the woman choose to stay in Beijing?
A. Because Beijing is her hometown.
B. Because she thinks Beijing is exciting.
C. Because she has made some new friends there.
3. What is the man?
A. A singer. B. An employee. C. A student.
4. What are the two speakers talking about?
A. Their past summer vacation.
B. Where to work after graduation.
C. Their plans for the summer vacation.
5. How does the man react to the woman’s suggestion?12
A. He totally ignores it. B. He wants to have a try. C. He’ll talk with his doctor first.
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。
6. What is Dylan Riley Snyder?
A. A Hollywood movie actor.
B. A singer.
C. A TV actor.
7. What does Dylan Riley Snyder like doing in his spare time?
A. Watching TV series Kickin’ It.
B. Spending his time on charity.
C. Reading books in his room.
8. What is the woman probably doing there?
A. Paying the man’s parents a visit.
B. Asking about some organizations.
C. Returning a book to the man’s mother.
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。
9. Why does the woman call?
A. To ask the man to attend a job interview.
B. To tell the man he has got the position.
C. To ask the man why he cannot go to work.
10. What makes the man unable to go to work?
A. That he suddenly became ill.
B. That his arm has been broken.
C. That he has to care for his mother.
11. When will the man go to work?
A. In two days. B. In a week. C. In nine days.
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。
12. Where are the tips from?
A. A radio program. B. A TV program. C. Dr. Harold Koplewicz.
13. What are the tips mainly about?
A. What to do when you’re sad after reading sad news.
B. What news to choose to read in your spare time.
C. How to avoid being affected by others’ moods.
14. What does the speaker advise you to do in the second tip?
A. Take part in activities.
B. Choose to move forward.
C. Talk to parents and teachers.
15. How many tips are mentioned by the speaker in total?
A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.
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