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    初中英语中考复习 模拟卷06 2020年河南中考英语最新题型冲刺卷(原卷版)

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    这是一份初中英语中考复习 模拟卷06 2020年河南中考英语最新题型冲刺卷(原卷版),共16页。

    河南省2019-2020最新中招模拟试题(六)
    注意事项:
    1.本试卷共10页,六个大题,满分120分,考试时间100分钟。
    2.本试卷上不要答题,请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
    一、听力理解(共三节,20小题,每小题1分,满分20分)
    第一节
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题 。从题中所给的A 、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答
    案。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What color does Mary prefer?
    A. Pink. B. Blue. C. White.
    2. What’s the reationship between the two speakers?
    A. Friends. B. Classmates. C. Neighbors.
    3. How did Harry tll Sara about his job nteview?
    A. By sending an e-mail. B. By making a call. C. By leaving a message.
    4. What are the two speakers mainly talking about?
    A. Their house. B. Their car. C. The supermarket.
    5. Why couldn t Sally get the books?
    A. She was too busy to go to the bookstore. B. The bookstore closed before she arrived.
    C. The books were sold out before she arrived.
    第二节
    听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    6. How did the boy get to school on Monday?
    A.By bus. B. By taxi. C. On foot.
    7. What did the boy’s fiend bring to the class?
    A. Pictures. B. Butterflies. C. Flowers.

    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    8. What sport are the two sekes alking abour?
    A. Volleyball. B. Running. C. Basketball.
    9. How ofen will the girl take the classes?
    A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
    听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
    10. Where will the campers go for their summer holidays?
    A. To a village. B. Toa city. C. Toa forest.
    11. What can the campers do in the afternoon?
    A. Learn how to make works of art.
    B. Ride bikes around the lake.
    C. Play with different kinds of toys.
    12. What’s the telephone number of the Summer Camp?
    A.8731594. B.8735491. C.8713954.
    听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
    13. Why does Sam like the Sunshine Cinema?
    A. It has big screens. B. It has free popcorm. C. It has nice seats.
    14. How does the environment in the Sunshine Cinema make Alice feel?
    A. Peaceful. B. Unhappy. C. Excited.
    15. How will Sam and Alice go to the cinema?
    A. By underground. B. By car. C. On foot.
    第三节
    听下面一篇短文。 按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

    A B C D E
    16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
    二.阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
    A
    Two Chinese spacecrafts(航天器) successfully completed China’s first space docking (对接) early November 3, 2011, which has taken the country a step closer to building its own space station.
    Nearly two days after its launch, the unmanned spacecraft Shenzhou VIII docked with the space lab module Tiangong I more than 343 km above the earth surface. Shenzhou VIII and Tiangong I took apart after flying together for 12 days. On the 14th of November, the two spacecrafts finished the second docking. Then Shenzhou VIII parted from Tiangong I again and returned to the earth safely on the 17th. Tiangong I is still traveling around the earth in the space, waiting for the arrival of Shenzhou IX and X and so on in the near future.
    That marked another great leap for China’s space program and made China the third country in the world, after the United States and Russia, master the space docking technique.
    The world’s first space docking was achieved in 1966, when the manned U.S. spacecraft Gemini 8 docked with an unmanned Agena Target Vehicle. Space docking is necessary to explore space beyond Earth’s orbit (轨道). “The capability (能力) increases China’s ability to act independently in space, as well as its ability to work together with others,” said Gregory Kulacki, a U.S. space scientist and senior analyst.
    “With the success of its first space docking, China is now equipped with the basic technology and ability required for the construction of a space station,” said Zhou Jianping, chief designer of China’s manned space program.” The country is on its way to building a permanent manned space station around 2020.”
    ( )21. What did the success of the first space docking mean to China?
    A. China has caught up with the United States in the space exploration field.
    B. China took a step closer to building its own space station.
    C. China became the first country to master the space docking technique.
    D. China has the ability to build a permanent manned space station right now.
    ( )22. What does the underlined word “That” in the third paragraph refer to?
    A. Shenzhou VIII B. Tiangong I
    C. The Space Station D. The success of China’s first space docking
    ( )23. What can we learn from the passage?
    A. Tiangong I will fly in the space for 12 days.
    B. The first space docking of the world was achieved in 1966, by Russians.
    C. Without space docking technique people can’t explore space beyond Earth’s orbit.
    D. The U.S.A helped China achieve the first space docking.
    ( )24.Which of the following statements is Not true?
    A. Shenzhou VIII docked with the space lab module Tiangong I on November 3, 2011.
    B. Shenzhou VIII returned to the earth safely on November 17, 2011.
    C. The USA , Russia and China have mastered the space docking technique.
    D. Tiangong I is still traveling around the earth, waiting for the arrival of Shenzhou IX and Shenzhou X
    around 2020.
    ( )25. What’s the passage mainly about?
    A. The first space docking of China. B. The history of space docking.
    C. The first space docking of the world. D. The space docking technique.
    B
    Name
    Personal Information
    Fei Junlong
    Born in 1965 in Jiangsu, China
    An astronaut (宇航员)
    Traveled in Shenzhou VI in outer space with Nie Haisheng from October 12th to October 17th, 2005
    Yao Ming
    Born in 1980 in Shanghai, China
    The son of two great basketball players
    Joined the Houston Rockets in June, 2002
    Jay Chou
    Born in 1979 in Taiwan, China
    A popular singer
    Favorite music: Hip-Hop
    Alfred Nobel
    (1833-1896)
    Born in Sweden
    A scientist
    Known for the Nobel Prizes
    Helen Keller
    (1880-1968)
    Not able to see or hear
    Worked hard and became one of the famous writers in America
    Wrote a lot, such as The Story of My Life
    根据材料内容,选择最佳答案。
    26.Fei Junlong and Nie Haisheng traveled in outer space for ______ days.
    A.five B.six C.seven D.eight
    27.Yao Ming played basketball in ______ in 2002.
    A.Germany B.Canada C.America D.England
    28.The ______ was born in 1833.
    A.player B.singer C.astronaut D.scientist
    29.The Story of My life is the name of a ______ .
    A.sport B.song C.prize D.book
    30.Which of the following is true?
    A.Yao Ming’s parents were players. B.Jay Chou is from Shanghai, China.
    C.Alfred Nobel was a French man. D.Helen Keller couldn’t see, but could hear.
    C
    It is 40 meters long and 6 meters wide. This must be the biggest bus you have ever seen. It can carry 1,200 to 1,400 people.
    It is China’s new Super Bus. It is going for a test run in Beijing at the end of this year. Some other cities are also interested in running the Super Bus. They hope the traffic problems will be solved.
    The Super Bus runs along fixed tracks (固定轨道) . The bus sits on top of two 2.2-meter-tall legs. The legs have wheels at one end. Small cars can drive under the bus, so the Super Bus does not take up road space.
    The bus runs on electricity and solar power. It can travel up to 60 km every hour. Its creator, Song Youzhou, says a lot of traffic jams (堵塞) will be reduced.
    The Super Bus can do the work of 40 buses. In that way, it can save 860 tons of fuel (燃料) every year, according to Song.
    “To build a Super Bus and its track costs less than building subways. Subways are nearly ten times more expensive to build.”Song said.
    Some people worry that the Super Bus may not be safe. However, Song says there’s no need for concern. The Super Bus has laser scanners (激光扫描仪) between its legs. The scanners make sure the cars keep a safe distance.
    根据短文内容,选择正确答案。
    ( )31.The Super Bus can carry ________ people.
    A. 1,300 B. 1,500 C. 1,700 D. 1,900
    ( )32.All the following are the advantages (优势) of the Super Bus EXCEPT that________.
    A. the bus doesn’t take up road space
    B. the bus can do the work of 40 buses
    C. the bus is very easy to build and drive
    D. the bus can save a lot of energy every year
    ( )33.According to Song, it’s safe for small cars to drive under the Super Bus because________.
    A. the bus is tall enough
    B. the road is wide enough
    C. there are scanners between its legs
    D. the bus travels at 60 km per hour
    ( )34.We can guess that Song’s purpose for building the bus was to________.
    A. take the place of small cars
    B. solve traffic problems
    C. increase the speed
    D. reduce car accidents
    ( )35.This passage is mainly about________.
    A. the normal bus B. the small car
    C. the subway D. the Super Bus
    D
    Future and Today
    It is well known that everyone has his own dream as well as his own future. 36 I have to say that future is now. That is to say we must treasure every minute now. If we want to have a bright future, we should know how important time is and use it well.
    There is an old English saying: “Gain time, gain life.” 37 Time is something that we can’t see or touch, but we can feel it passing by. Time is always with us. When we are at table, time passes; when we play, time goes by unnoticeably. We always say “Time is money”, but time is even more precious(珍贵的)than money, because when money is spent , we can earn it back.
    38 So, some of us even say time is priceless(无价的).
    We should always remember: future is now. For us students, we should try our best to work hard in order to create a great future of our own. 39 We should do everything before us as soon as possible. And never put off what can be done today till tomorrow.
    As we all know , “Time and tide wait for no man.” 40 So from now on, work hard. Tomorrow will be better, and your future will be brighter. Remember: “No pains, no gains.” Today’s hard work is the cause of tomorrow’s harvest.
    根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使短文意思通顺、内容完整,并将其标号填写在下面题号后的横线上。
    A. But if time is gone away, it will never return.
    B. If you waste today, you will regret tomorrow.
    C. But do you know what future really is ?
    D. We should make the best use of every hour and be the master of today.
    E. Then what’s time?
    36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
    三、完型填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
    It’s never easy to admit(承认) you are in the wrong. We all __41__ to know the art of apology. Think how often you’ve done wrong. Then count how many __42__ you’ve expressed clearly you were __43__. You can’t go to bed with an easy mind if you do __44__ about it.
    A doctor friend, Mr. Lied, told me about a man who came to him with different kinds of signs: headaches, heart __45__ and insomnia (失眠). __46__ some careful exams, Mr. Lied found nothing ___47__ with him and said, “If you don’t tell me what’s __48__ you, I can’t help you.” The man admitted he was cheating his brother of his inheritance(遗产). Then and there the __49__ doctor __50__ the man write to his brother and __51__ his money. As soon as the __52__ was put into the post box, the man suddenly cried. “Thank you,” he said to the doctor, “I think I’ve got __53__.”
    An apology can not only save a broken relationship(关系) but also make it __54__. If you can think of someone who should be __55__ an apology from you. Do something about it right now.
    41. A. decide B. have C. need D. try
    42. A. mistakes B. people C. ways D. times
    43. A. sorry B. weak C. sad D. wrong
    44. A. something B. anything C. nothing D. everything
    45. A. trouble B. matter C. illness D. problem
    46. A. Before B. After C. Till D. Since
    47. A. well B. wrong C. good D. bad
    48. A. hurling B. changing C. touching D. worrying
    49. A. clever B. silly C. good D. kind
    50. A. made B. helped C. saw D. let
    51. A. returned B. gave C. kept D. paid
    52. A. paper B. box C. money D. letter
    53. A. better B. well C. sick D. worse
    54. A. never B. worse C. stronger D. harder
    55. A. given B. received C. known D. forgotten
    四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)。
    第一节 阅读短文,从方框中选适当的词并用适当形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一词。
    fill full third busy if important take bright place bottle point space
    A science teacher wants to show some idea to his students. He takes a large-mouth bottle and 56 several large stones into it. He then asks the class, “Is the bottle full now?” They all reply, “Yes!”
    The teacher then takes some small rocks and puts them into the 57 The small rocks go into the 58 between the big rocks. He then asks, “Is it full?” This time some students give no answer, but most reply, “Yes!”
    The teacher then starts to drop some sand into the bottle. The sand 59 up the spaces between the small rocks. For the 60 time, the teacher asks, “Is it full?” Now most are doubting, but still, some reply, “Yes?”
    Then the teacher. Brings a cup of water into the bottle. “What’s the 61 of this show?” asks the teacher. One 62 student answers,“No matter(无论)how 63 you are, you can always find time to do some more things”.
    “No,” says the teacher, “the point is that 64 you don’t place the big rocks into the bottle first, you’ll never get them in. The big rocks are the 65 things in your life. If you fill your life with small things – as shown by the small rocks, the sand and the water – you’ll never have the time for the important things.”
    第二节 阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
    Soon computers and other machines will be able to remember you by looking at your eyes. The programme works because everyone’s eyes are 66 . So in the future you won’t have to remember a group of numbers when you want to use a machine or take money out of a bank. You’ll just have to look at the machine and it will be able to tell you who you are.
    The eye-recognition (眼睛识别) programme has already been tested in shops and banks in the USA, Britain, Spain, Italy and Turkey. Soon it will take the place of all other ways of 67 out who people are. However, scientists are working on other systems. Machines will soon be able to know you from the shape of your face or hand or 68 your smell. We already have machines that can tell who you are from your voice or the mark made by your finger.
    Eye-recognition is better than other kinds because your eyes don’t change as you get older, and don’t get 69 like hands or fingers. And twins’ eyes are not the same. So the eye-recognition programme can be up to 94 percent correct. In Britain, it was found that 91 percent of the people who had 70 it said that they liked the idea of eye-recognition.
    In the future your computer will be looking you in the eyes. So smile!
    66.________ 67.________ 68.________ 69.________ 70.________
    五、补全对话 (5小题,每小题2分,共10分)。
    根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子或词语,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
    A: Hi, Peter. 71
    B: Hi, Mike, I’m waiting for a bus.
    A: 72
    B: I’m going to the book store. I want to buy some books. Would you like to go with me?
    A: I’d like to. 73
    B: Books on science, by the way, ten days ago our country succeeded in sending up Shenzhou X, do you know?
    A: Yes. It shows our country is becoming stronger and stronger. I’m proud of it.
    B: 74 So as students, we are supposed to study hard to do something for our country.
    A: That’s true, oh, here comes the bus.
    B: OK. 75
    71.
    72.
    73.
    74.
    75.
    六、书面表达(20分)
    假设你是王强,你们班最近举行了一次主题班会: 太空探险的意义。请根据下表的内容,介绍所讨论的情况并发表自己的观点。(80词左右)
    一些同学赞同
    一些同学反对
    你自己的观点
    1.获得新知识
    2.从太空取得新资源
    3.给人类带来更大的生存空间
    1.耗资巨大
    2.宇航员的安全问题

    (一)说明:
    1. 本题满分20分, 按五个档次给分。
    2. 评分时, 先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次, 然后以该档次的要求来衡量, 确定或调整分数档次, 最后给分。
    3. 书写清晰、工整、规范, 在原得分基础上加2分(最高得分为20分); 书写较差, 以致影响交际, 则在原得分中减去2分(最低得分仍为0分)。标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面, 评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
    4. 短文单词少于要求者, 酌情扣分: 多于要求者, 只要不是太多, 且符合题意, 不扣分。
    (二)各档次给分范围和要求:
    第五档(17-20分): 能写出试题所要求的全部或绝大部分内容; 语言错误少, 行文连贯, 表达清楚。
    第四档(13-16分): 能写出试题所要求的大部分内容; 语言有一些错误, 行文较连贯, 表达较清楚。
    第三档(9-12分): 能写出试题所要求的大部分内容; 语言错误较多, 行文不够连贯, 表达不够清楚。[来&第二档(5-8分): 只能写出试题所要求的少部分内容; 语言错误多, 行文不连贯, 表达不清楚。
    第一档(0-4分): 只能写出与试题所要求内容有关的个别句子或单词; 语言错误很多, 达不到交际目的。





    听力材料
    一、听力理解(共三节,20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    第一节
    听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    1. M: Id like to paint our bedroom blue. What do you think, Mary?
    W: I prefer white. White makes the room brighter.
    2. W: Hi, my name is Linda. I moved in last week.
    M: Welcome, I’m Jack. I’ve been living here for two years.
    3. M: Sara, did Harry call you about his job interview?
    W: No. But he sent me an e-mail about the result.
    4. M: The supermarket has almost everything we want.
    W: Yes, and the food is so fresh.
    M: It’s close to our house so we don’t have to drive a car.
    W: It’s really convenient to shop here.
    5. M: How about the books, Sally?
    W: I’m sory I wasn’t able to get them for you.
    M: How come?
    W: When I got to the bookstore, the staff there had gone off work.
    第二节
    听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最
    佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    M: Monday was terrible.
    W: Why?
    M: I didn’t catch the bus so I walked to school.
    W: Was school good on Tuesday?
    M: It was great! My friend brought his buttrflies to class.
    W: Oh!
    M: There were three of them and they were colorful.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    W: I’d like to do a sport.
    M: Would you like to try basketball?
    W: Yes, but 1 don’t know how to pass the ball when running.
    M: You can learn! I’m the teacher!
    W: When can I come?
    M: For your age, the evening classes are on Tuesday and Friday, or Monday and Thursday. Which days are OK
    for you?
    W: I can’t come on Thursdays.
    M: So Tuesday and Friday lessons are OK?
    W: Yes. That’s better for me.
    听下而一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
    The summer holiday is coming soon. What are you going to do? Come to our Fantastic Summer Camp. "You
    will spend twenty days with other campers in a small village far away from the eity. There you can breathe fresh air
    and enjoy the beauty of the countryside. Special local food will be served. Also, there will be some exciting
    activities for you. In the morning, you’ll have fun classes. You can learn how to cook and how to make works of ar,
    like kites, paper-cuts and toys of diferent kinds. "In the afternoon, you’ll ride bikes around the lake near the vllage.
    You can also fish in the lake. If you catch fish, you can try cooking them for dinner by yourself. In the evening,
    you can sit under the trees by the lake and listen to dfferet sounds of nature, or you’ll have a party. You can sing,
    dance and play games. I’m sure you "I have a wonderful summer holiday.
    Come and join us! Our telephone number is 8731594.
    听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
    M: I’m bored, Alice.
    W: So am I. Why don’t we go and watch a movie?
    M: Yeah! "Let’s go to the Sunshine Cinema. I love the nice seats there.
    W: Oh, Sam. I hate it.
    M: Why? You like its free popcorn, don tyou? 
    W: Yes, I do. I just don’t like the environment. It’s underground and always dark. It makes me upset.
    M: OK. Which cinema do you want to go to?
    W: Let’s go to the Hengdian Cinema. It has big screens.
    M: All right. I’ll get the car out and we can be off.
    W: OK.
    第三节
    听下面一-篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
    Now, let’s listen to five students talking about how to go to school.
    1. My home is near the school, so from Monday to Friday, I go to school at 7:30 am. It usually takes me
    about ten minutes to walk to school.
    2. My home is near the zoo, but it’s far from my school. I always take the school bus to school. I get to school
    at 7:50 am. every morning.
    3. I live 15 kilometers away from the school. So my father has to drive me to school. It takes about 20 minutes
     to get to school from my home.
    4. My home is near a big river. I usually have breakfast at 6:50. Then I take a boat to school.
    5. It’s only 3 kilometers from my home to school. I like riding my bike to school. I think it’s good for my
    health.


    英语试卷参考答案及评分标准
    一、听力理解
    1-5ABABB 6-10BABCC 11-15ABCAB 16-20EABCD
    二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
    21-25. BDCDA
    21.B 由第一段最后一句可知选项B正确。
    22.D 由第二段可推测出that是指中国的首次太空成功对接。
    23.C 由第四段“Space docking is necessary to explore space beyond Earth’s Orbit.”可知
    选项C正确。
    24.D 由文中最后一句可知,大约2020年建立太空站,不是天宫一号在等神九和神十。
    故D项是不正确的。
    25.A 通读全文可知本文主要介绍中国的首次太空对接。选A
    26-30 BCDDA
    26.B 由from October 12th to October 17th, 2005可知共6天。故选B。
    27.C 由the Houston Rockets可知在美国。故选C。
    28.D 由Alfred Nobel (1833-1896)和A scientist可知Alfred Noble 是科学家。故选D。
    29.D 由one of the famous writers可知The Story of My Life是书名。故选D。
    30.A 可根据图表内的信息综合判断。Jay Chou is from Taiwan. Alfred Nobel was a Swede. Helen Keller was not able to see or hear. B、C、D项都不对。故选A。
    31-35 ACCBD
    31.A 根据第一段It can carry 1,200 to 1,400 people.可知,这种超级公共汽车能搭载1200人到1400人。故选A。
    32.C 根据第六段“To build a Super Bus and its track costs less than building Subways. Subways are nearly ten times more expensive to build” Song said 可知,修建一个超级公共汽车的花费比修地铁少得多。故选C。
    33.C 根据第七段However, Song says…keep a safe distance.可知,超级公共汽车在轨道两边有激光扫描仪,能确保小汽车有一个安全的距离。故选C。
    34.B 根据第四段 Its creator, Song Youzhou…of traffic jams(堵塞)……可知,建超级公共汽车的目的是解决交通堵塞问题。故选B。
    35.D 文章主要介绍未来的超级公共汽车。故选D。
    36.C
    37.E
    38.A
    39.D
    40.B
    三、完形填空(20小题,每小题1.5分,共30分)
    41-45CDACA 46-50BBDAD 51-55ADBCA
    41. C. 这里指的是人们有必要了解道歉这门艺术。
    42. D. times这里表示次数。
    43. A. 根据上文,承认错误决非易事,道歉更是一门艺术,此时作者是建议读者计算一下有过多少次是能清楚地表达自己的歉意的,所以选sorry。
    44. C. 如果你对自己的错误什么也不去做, 你睡觉也不会睡得好。
    45.A. 这里表示心脏有毛病。
    46.B. after“在……之后”,根据语境“在做了仔细的检查之后,Mr. Lied没发现什么毛病。”故选B。.
    47.B. nothing wrong 表明这个人生理没有任何问题, 看下文就可以知道这一点。
    48.D. 根据前后意思推断此处为“担心的事”,故选,D。
    49.A. 这是一名很聪明的医生, 所以他提出了下面一个方法。
    50.D. made 具有强制性的意思, 故选let sb. do sth..好。
    51.A. 上文得知这人骗了哥哥的遗产, 所以还了他所欠的钱才能治好他的心病。
    52.D. 根据后面的post box可以得知这里是指寄出了那封信。
    53.B. 这个人其实没有病, 所以在解决了心理问题后,他一下子觉得好了, 而不是好转, 故选well 而不是better。
    54.C. 道歉不仅可以挽救破碎的人际关系, 还可以增强人与人之间的联系。harder指的是具体事物的“坚硬”, 故此处不当。
    55. A. give sb. an apology意为“向某人道歉”。
    四、词语运用(5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
    第一节
    56. places 由最后一段中的“place the big rocks into the bottle first”可知选places。
    57. bottle 从第一段中的“He takes a large-mouth bottle.”可知选bottle。
    58. space 从第三段中的“the spaces between the small rocks”可知此处用spaces“空隙”。
    59. fills fill up意为“填满”,符合文意。 。
    60. third 由上文可知这是老师第三次发问,故选third。
    61. point 根据最后一段中的“the point is that.…可知选poi毗
    62. bright bright意为“聪明的”,符合文意。
    63. busy 由you can always find time to do some more things“可知选busy“忙碌的”。句意:无论你有多忙,你总能挤出时间做更多的事。
    64.if 此处表示如果你不先把大石头放进瓶子里,你将永远不会有机会把它们放进去。故选if。
    65. important important 结合文意可知大石头代表的是生活中重要的事情,此处应填important“重要的”。 66.different 67.finding 68.even 69. dirty 70.tried
    五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    71.What are you doing here?/Why are you here?
    72.Where are you going?
    73.What (kinds of) books do you want to buy?/What (kinds of) books do you like?
    74.So am I.
    75.Let’s go.
    六、书面表达(2分)
    优质范文:
    Recently we have had a discussion on whether it is necessary to carry out outer space explorations at a class meeting. Some of us think it is important to research the outer space. First, people can get a better understanding of the outer space through the explorations. Second, new resources can be found there for humans to use. Third, the explorations can possibly bring about new living space for human life.
    However, others don’t believe so. They think this kind of explorations cost too much money. And it is very dangerous for astronauts to do such work.
    I think people should do the explorations and such explorations into the outer space are worth trying out.
    书面表达评分说明
    要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语,完整准确地表述所提示的内容,书写工整。分五档评分:
    1、短文通顺完整,表达清楚, 语言基本无误,18-20分;
    2、短文较通顺完整,表达基本清楚,语言有少量错误,14-17分;
    3、能写明基本要点,短文不够通顺完整,语言有较多错误,但尚能达意,10-13分;(要点不太齐全,而且句子出错较多)
    4、仅能写明部分要点,短文不完整,语言错误多,影响意思表达,5-9分。(写的句子能够简单涉及到要点但语言错误太多,基本无正确句子)
    5、仅能自己写出2—3个句子,无正确句子,短文不完整,影响意思表达, 1—4分(鼓励分)(抄写阅读的为0分)
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