2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高一下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案

宁德市2021-2022学年高一下学期期末质量检测

英语试题

(考试时间：120分钟 满分150分)

温馨提示：请将全部答案填写在答题卡上，

第一部分 听力（共两节，共30分）

第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，共7.5分）

听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. How will the man travel?

A. By plane. B. By train. C. By car.

2. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. A book. B. Stars. C. A movie.

3. What does the man want now?

A. Ice cream. B. Milk. C. Water.

4. How much did the man pay for the cap?

A. $10. B. $15. C. $20.

5. When did the man leave college?

A. In 1985. B. In 1987. C. In 1989

第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，共22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7小题。

6. What did the man think of this weekend?

A. Boring. B. Tiring. C. Satisfying.

7. What is the Italian city like?

A. Ancient with a long history. B. Modern with tall buildings. C. Crowded with heavy traffic.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9小题。

8. What happened to the woman?

A. She missed her flight. B. She lost her bag. C. She had her clothes broken.

9. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. At the airport. B. On the plane. C. At a store.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. Why did the man stay at home last night?

A. He had some homework. B. He was not well. C. His parents were out.

11. What game did the man watch last night?

A. Basketball. B. Tennis. C. Volleyball.

12. What did the woman do last night?

A. She watched a game. B. She saw a movie. C. She did her homework.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. Why does the man make the call?

A. To give his address. B. To book a bus. C. To invite the woman.

14. What is the man going to do next Saturday?

A. Hold a party. B. Go camping. C. Go hiking.

15. Where will the speakers meet?

A. At the man’s. B. At a bus stop. C. At Charles’.

16. When will the speakers meet?

A. At 7: 00. B. At 7: 10. C. At 8: 00.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. Where will Jack’s family move?

A. Los Angeles. B. New York. C. San Francisco.

18. Why is Jack happy to move to the new house?

A. The garden is bigger. B. The climate there is better. C. The house is more modern.

19. What is David interested in?

A. Surfing. B. Playing football. C. Playing the piano.

20. How many people are there in Jack’s family?

A. 3. B. 4. C. 5.

第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，共40分）

第一节（共11小题；每小题2. 5分，共27. 5分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。

A

One of the best ways to sightsee your way through a new city is with the help of a local. With this in mind, U. S. News rounded up several Chicago’s best guided tours. You’ll gain a cultural and historical understanding of the Windy City during these tours.

Chicago Food Planet

The three-hour tour centers on the West Loop neighborhood’s amazing food scene and the history and culture of the area. Ticket prices cost $65 for adults and $50 for children ages 12 and younger. Tours are offered Thursday through Sunday at 1 p. m.

Absolutely Chicago Segway Tour

The 8-mile journey on easy-to-ride, two-wheeled, battery-powered vehicles lasts about 21 hours. It has many of the city’s most popular attractions, including Millennium Park, Grant Park, Monroe Harbor, the Field Museum. Tickets cost at least $76, depending on date and time. Note that riders must be at least 12 years old. Tours are offered daily.

Bobby’s Bike Hike Chicago

This tour combines bicycling, food and beer. The four-hour, 13-mile ride is from Gold Coast to Lincoln Park neighborhoods with stops for pizza, beer, cupcakes and hot dogs. Tickets for adults, which include the bike rental as well as food and drinks, cost $86.99 for weekday rides (weekend rides are slightly more expensive). Participants must be at least 21 years old.

Chicago Pizza Tour

On this 31-hour tour, you’ll visit four independently run neighborhood pizzerias and taste six or more pieces. Many reviewers insist that the tour is about more than just pizza and covers Chicago history, architecture and culture. Tickets cost $60 for adults and $36 for children.

21. What can you do on Absolutely Chicago Segway Tour?

A. Taste some pizza.  B. Enjoy some beer.

C. Visit a museum.  D. Go to Lincoln Park.

22. Which of the following is the cheapest for adults?

A. Chicago Food Planet.  B. Absolutely Chicago Segway Tour.

C. Bobby’s Bike Hike Chicago. D. Chicago Pizza Tour.

23. What is the purpose of this text?

A. To promote food sales. B. To introduce Chicago.

C. To share a travel review. D. To recommend some tours.

B

It is natural for young people to admire cool and good-looking young “idols” (偶像). We spend a lot of time caring about them-even more time than we spend on our studies or work. We often wonder: What makes them so popular? What could I do to be cool like them?

Well, guess what? Many of your idols are only made to “look” cool. If you could see into their private lives, you would find these stars aren’t so bright. Their beauty is only skin-deep. Some of them might not be as honest, kind or hard-working as you are! They aren’t worth the popularity that they enjoy at all!

When I was a teenager, I, along with most of my classmates, had admired pop idols, too. Then, one day, I discovered Leonard Cohen and Neil Young. They were ordinary-looking people who played the guitar while sitting on a bench. They wore no flashy(奢华的) clothes, and they had no screaming fans. They didn’t need to be flashy because their songs were great and meaningful. They told the truth: Life is hard and the road you take might sometimes be lonely. Most of all, they taught me that it was okay if I was not popular and cool all of the time. I still listen to them today.

Modern “idol culture” often sends the wrong message that life is always easy and fun. But the best actors, the top-ranking sports stars and the most creative scientists all have scars(伤疤) from the stress of dealing with many life difficulties. Many of the successful “outgoing” people we admire today were shy when they were teenagers.

Idols can serve as important role models in our lives, so it’s very important to choose the right ones. We should celebrate people who teach us important values that can help to guide us on the road ahead. The next time you see some pretty, popular “stars,” ask yourself: Do I really need these people in my life?

24. What is the function of the underlined sentences in the first paragraph?

A. To prove the author’s argument.

B. To interest readers in reading further.

C. To show the importance of the idol culture.

D. To serve as the topic sentence of the paragraph.

25. What’s the author’s attitude towards admiring idols?

A. He understands it.  B. He is against it.

C. He supports it.  D. He is uninterested in it.

26. What can we infer from Paragraph3?

A. All the teenagers admire pop stars. B. Leonard and Neil are famous musicians.

C. Life is easy and fun for stars. D. Being popular and cool is not necessarily important.

27. Which of the following ideas does the author agree with?

A. Teenagers should be cool like stars. B. Teenagers should say no to the wrong idols.

C. Role models should be chosen from idols. D. Wrong messages are from idol culture.

C

Not even the sea is safe from the glare(强光) of humans’ light at night, Researchers published the first global maps of ocean light pollution. It shows large parts of the sea lit up at night. And that risks confusing or disrupting the behaviors of sea life.

Tim Smyth led a team to research where in the water this glow is strongest. Smyth and his colleagues started with a world map of man-made night-sky brightness that had been created in 2016. Then they added data on the ocean and atmosphere. Some data came from shipboard measurements of man-made light in the water. Others came from satellite images that judge how clear the water is. Particles(微粒) in the water, such as tiny floating plants and animals, can affect how far downward light travels. These factors vary from place to place and may change with the seasons. The team also used computers to copy how different wavelengths of light move through water.

Next, they wanted to know how that underwater light might affect animals. Not all species will be easily affected. The team focused on copepods(桡足亚纲甲壳动物) . These common creatures are a key part of many ocean food webs. They use light as a signal to move all together to the dark deep, seeking safety from other surface creatures. Normally they use the sun or the winter moon as their signal. Too much man-made light can mess up their usual patterns.

Light pollution is strongest in about three feet of the water. Here, man-made light can be strong enough to confuse the copepods. Nearly 2 million square kilometers of ocean get such strong night light. That’s an area about the size of Mexico. Farther down, the light gets weaker. But even 65 feet deep, it’s still bright enough to bother copepods across 840,000 square kilometers of ocean.

The team described its findings December 13 in Elementa: Science of the Anthropocene.

28. Which of the following best explains the underlined word “disrupting” in Paragraph 1?

A. Upsetting. B. Observing. C. Ensuring. D. Protecting.

29. What do we know about copepods from the passage?

A. They are not affected by underwater light. B. They can escape attacks with the help of light.

C. They are main eaters of other creatures. D. They can weaken the effect of man-made light.

30. How does the author show the seriousness of light pollution in Paragraph 4?

A. By stating opinions.  B. By listing numbers.

C. By raising questions.  D. By giving reasons.

31. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Light Pollution from Sea Life B. Living Conditions of Copepods

C. Discoveries of Copepods D. Light Pollution Even in Sea

第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，共12. 5分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两项为多余选项。

Not many people are interested in spending time, money, and effort to learn a foreign language these days. They think that knowing their mother tongue and the English Language is good enough. __32__ I feel strongly that everyone should learn at least one other foreign language in their lifetime.

The most obvious benefit of knowing another language is that you can communicate more easily with people from different parts of the world. You will be able to learn more about another culture and form new friendships. Traveling to other countries would be easy. __33__ In addition, you will be able to enjoy more variety in entertainment and reading material.

__34__ Students who learn an additional language besides English are known to do better in English and Mathematics. This is because the skills involved in learning a new language such as analytical skills are equally important in learning other subjects. As you learn a new language, you practice these skills and become even better.

Finally, the ability to communicate in another language is valuable when you want to get a job. __35__ This is why you will be able to deal with people from other parts of the world. Learning a foreign language does not only make it easier for you to find a job but also makes you more valuable to your employer.

In conclusion, there are many benefits that come from learning a foreign language. Therefore, I strongly recommend that everyone learn an additional language. __36__

A. The benefits gained are worth the time and effort spent.

B. Imagine being able to read and understand Japanese cartoons.

C. You will have the advantage over those who know fewer languages.

D. Learning a foreign language can also help you improve your studies.

E. This is a pity because there are many benefits to learning a foreign language.

F. Learning a new language for children could be as important as learning music.

G. For example, knowing French, you can easily travel in most European countries.

第三部分 语言知识运用（共三节，共40分）

第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）

阅读下面短文，从A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Many years ago, when I was driving on the highway, the car in front of me had a flat tire (轮胎). It went out of __37__ and crashed into a big tree on the roadside. I __38__ my car and walked up to see if they were OK. The lady driver was clearly in a state of __39__. She was shaking and I asked if she needed help. She asked to __40__ my phone. Midway through the call, she __41__ it back and asked me to speak to her __42__. I explained where we were and he __43__ me to drive her to the nearest highway service station.

Considering the time and the fact that she was __44__, I agreed it was the safest thing to do. We drove down to the station and went inside for a coffee. The place was more or less __45__ and I didn’t feel comfortable leaving her on her own, so I __46__ with her until 2 hours later, when her husband __47__. They both thanked me profusely. I said my __48__ and got back on the highway.

Two years later, I __49__ for a position at a bank. The interviewer __50__ to be the lady who had the accident on the highway. In the interview, she said “I’ve already known what kind of person you are, thank you again. The __51__ is yours if you want it.”

37. A. business B. style C. use D. control

38. A. drove B. boarded C. caught D. parked

39. A. relief B. shock C. gratitude D. shame

40. A. borrow B. answer C. show D. check

41. A. handed B. got C. pushed D. threw

42. A. father B. husband C. friend D. brother

43. A. begged B. ordered C. invited D. promised

44. A. homesick B. careless C. selfish D. alone

45. A. empty B. noisy C. tidy D. smelly

46. A. worked B. argued C. stayed D. lived

47. A. gave up B. turned up C. woke up D. cheered up

48. A. greetings B. worries C. goodbyes D. thoughts

49. A. competed B. sent C. paid D. thanked

50. A. desired B. happened C. pretended D. failed

51. A. plan B. honour C. role D. dream

第二节 完成句子（共10个空；每空1分，共10分）

52. Why not ________ ________ (参加……的选拔) for the school football team?

53. Hearing the news, he soon gave up the attempt ________ ________ (绝望地).

54. In the 20th century, the southern part of Ireland ________ ________ (脱离) from the UK.

55. Our supply of water will ________ ________ (耗尽) if the drought continues for one more month.

56. One woman ________ ________ (被……绊倒) the stone and her water pot went crashing to the ground.

第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Before the USSR sent the Sputnik 1 to orbit Earth in 1957 and Yuri Gagarin into space in 1961, exploring space was just __57__ dream. American Neil Armstrong stepped onto the moon in 1969, __58__ (make) “one giant leap for mankind”. After this, many more goals __59__ (achieve). Although scientists tried to make sure everything was all right, accidents still happened. All the astronauts on the USSR’s Soyuz 11 __60__ America’s Challenger died during their missions. These disasters made everyone sad and __61__ (disappoint), but the desire to explore space continued. The International Space Station __62__ astronauts from different countries work together is a good example. China became the third country __63__ (send) humans into space in 2003, when Yang Liwei __64__ (successful) orbited Earth in Shenzhou 5, followed __65__ further Shenzhou missions and vehicles to explore the moon, Jade Rabbit and Chang’e 4. Europe, the US and China now plan to explore Mars and Jupiter. Through space __66__ (explore), scientists hope future discoveries will enable us to understand how the universe began and how to survive well into the future.

第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）

第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）

假定你是李华，你校将举办庆祝共青团建团100周年英语演讲活动，请以“How to be an excellent teenager”为主题写一篇演讲稿。要点如下：

1.建议（如学会分享，与人沟通等）及其理由；

2.发出倡议。

注意：1.词数80左右；

2.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；

3.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

My dear friends,

I am very pleased to stand here and give a speech. __________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

That’s all, thank you!

第二节读后续写（满分25分）

阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。

On Saturday night, my best friend called and invited me to her birthday the next day. I was very excited to go there, but I needed permission from my parents.

I went to my dad’s room and softly said, “Dad, tomorrow is my best friend’s birthday and I really want to go.” Papa said, “OK. I don’t mind, but ask your mom.”

I asked my mom and she said, “OK. You can go, but you have to be back before 10.”

The next morning my mom was surprised to see me. No alarm. No Mom’s warning. I just woke up by myself. Finally, the whole day had passed and it was party time. My dad dropped me off at my friend’s place and told me that he would pick me up at 10. I said “OK” and ran away.

I enjoyed myself a lot at the party. We had dinner and played so many games. It was 10 finally. I remembered my mom telling me that I should be back before 10. I came out and started searching for my dad, but I could not find him. I was so worried and scared. I waited and waited, and then I started walking. I thought at least I could walk home as my house was 20 minutes away from my friend’s. As I was walking, I was crying as I had never walked alone on the road that late at night.

Suddenly I heard someone shouting something. I was scared and started walking fast. I thought some criminal(不法分子) was there. As I was walking fast, I heard someone walking fast behind me. I started running and crying, and then I saw some parked cars. I hid behind the cars. I saw a shadow searching for me. I hoped someone would help me. After a while, I could not see the shadow, so I came out slowly and ran towards my home.

注意：

1.续写词数应为150左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Paragraph 1:

Finally, I arrived home, and I began crying when I saw my mom. ______________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 2:

Hearing what my dad said, my mom couldn’t help laughing. __________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

宁德市2021-2022学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测

英语试题参考答案及评分标准

第一部分 听力（共20小题，每小题1. 5分，满分30分）

1-5 BACBA 6-10 CABAC 11-15 BACBA 16-20 BCBAC

第二部分 阅读理解

第一节（共11小题；每小题2. 5分，满分27. 5分）

21-23 CDD 24-27 BADB 28-31 ABBD

第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分）

32-36 EGDCA

第三部分 英语知识运用

第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

37-41 DDBAA 42-46 BADAC 47-51 BCABC

第二节 完成句子（共10个空；每空1分，满分10分）

52. try out 53. in despair 54. broke away 55. run out

56. tripped over on

第三节 语法填空（共10个空；每空1. 5分，满分15分）

57. a 58. making 59. were achieved 60. and 61. disappointed

62. where 63. to send 64. successfully 65. by 66. exploration

第四部分 写作（共两节满分40分）