2022年安徽省合肥市中考最后一卷英语试题(word版含答案)

2022年合肥市中考“最后一卷”（模拟卷）

英语试题

注意事项：本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间共120分钟

第一部分 听力部分（20分）

I. 短对话理解(共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分)

你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

1. What will Mike’s father receive?

A. B. C.

2. What does the boy want to be in the future?

A. B. C. 

3. When did the maths exam finish?

A. At eight o’clock. B. At nine o’clock. C. At ten o’clock.

4. What’s the relationship between the two speakers?

A. Teacher and student.

B. Policeman and driver.

C. Father and daughter.

5. Why did Julia miss the train?

A. She didn’t start early.

B. The traffic was too heavy.

C. She didn’t know the way to the station、

II. 长对话理解 (共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分)

你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

听下面一段材料，回答第6-7小题。

6. What will the weather be like in Kunming tomorrow?

A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.

7. How long will the man stay in Kunming?

A. For two days. B. For four days. C. For five days.

听下面一段材料，回答第8-10小题。

8. Which sport is David’s favourite?

A. Riding bikes. B. Swimming. C. Running.

9. How often does David go swimming?

A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.

10. Why does the woman like running best?

A. Because it makes her relaxed.

B. Because it makes her stronger.

C. Because it helps her lose weight.

III. 短文理解（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到一篇短文，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。

11. When will Doris leave school?

A. In May. B. In June. C. In July.

12. How is Doris’s school?

A. Big and noisy. B. Big and clean. C. Small and nice.

13. Which subject does Doris like best?

A. Chinese. B. Maths. C. English.

14. Who can Doris and his classmates usually ask for help

at school?

A. Their teachers. B. Their parents. C. Their friends.

15. What will Doris do at the school leavers’ party?

A. Sing a song. B. Give a speech. C. Give best wishes

Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题:每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。

第二部分 笔试部分（100分）

Ⅴ.单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

21. Millions of people love reading because they believe that

books provide________ information and suggestions.

A. tiring B. simple C. valuable D. difficult

22. —Our government is looking for some ways to ________the

problem of ageing population.

—Yes, the 3-child policy (政策) is one of them.

A. deal with B. find out C. write down D. point at

23. —Why do you look worried?

—It’s the report. I spoke________ but I still failed to make

everyone understand me.

A. quickly B. nervously C. clearly D. happily

24. There are a lot of ways to protect the environment. ________,

we can change what we eat or choose public transport.

A. By the way B. In general

C. For example D. To our surprise

25.—What is the________ of your beautiful English handwriting?

—Practice makes perfect!

A. purpose B. influence C. choice D. secret

26. —Could you tell me ________you will do in the summer

holiday?

—I’m going to be a volunteer in our neighborhood.

A. how B. what C. that D. which

27. ________is better worth my respect than Yuan Longping.

He is the pride of China.

A. Somebody B. Anybody C. Everybody D. Nobody

28. —The Winter Olympic Games________ in February,2022 in

Beijing.

—Yes! Beijing is called“Double Olympic City”now.

A. is held B. was held

C. will be held D. has been held

29. Many students have had more free time to relax，________ the

Double Reduction Policy(双减政策) came out last year.

A. if B. though C. since D. before

30. —As the saying goes, “Reading is to the mind while

exercise to the body.”

— ________. Let’s take action together.

A. That’s true B. No way

C. What a pity D. I don’t agree

VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）

阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

The traditional Chinese lunar calendar divides the year into 24 solar terms. The Awakening of Insects ( 惊 蛰) is the third solar term. It 31 after the end of winter and before the beginning of spring. In China, it is believed that awaking the insects 32 the earth begins to come back to life.

During this period, the temperature in most parts of China 33 quickly. Fishes wake up too, like other animals. They like to swim from 34 water to shallow ( 浅 的) water to look for something to eat, so it is good time for people to 35 . Fishing by a lake, bathing in the sunlight and enjoying the singing birds will bring you a 36 weekend in spring. Eating pears around the Awakening of Insects is a(n) 37 in China. You may wonder why people like to eat pears during this period. As the weather gets 38 and the air becomes drier, people usually feel thirsty, which can cause colds or

39 . A pear is sweet and juicy. It’s good for your lungs (肺) and can stop a cough. It’s also the key time for 40 to begin their farm work. People in most areas of China enter the busy spring season.

31. A. ends B. falls C. lasts D. depends

32. A. suggests B. finds C. requires D. expects

33. A. drops B. rises C. remains D. keeps

34. A. fresh B. dirty C. clean D. deep

35. A. plant B. fish C. swim D. sing

36. A. perfect B. similar C. dry D. safe

37. A. invention B. condition C. tradition D. decision

38. A. colder B. warmer C. cooler D. wetter

39. A. successes B. excuses C. coughs D. mistakes

40. A. fishers B. farmers C. workers D. drivers

B

Have you ever tried mountain climbing? I had my first experience on Jade Dragon Snow Mountain with my 41 in Yunnan. This was the first time I had traveled so far without my parents. I was very 42 and discussed the plan with my friend almost every week before the trip. Unluckily, not everything went as we planned. When we arrived at Lijiang, the 43 was not good. It was a cloudy day. My friend and I 44 not to go by ourselves but book a tour through a local travel company. The next morning, we 45 with our guide and driver. On our way to the mountain in the car, we just wore shirts.However, the temperature changed so fast and it was 46 cold outside. Getting off the car at the foot of the mountain, we could only see mountains and the sky. When we 47 an altitude ( 海 拔）of about 3,800 meters, I started to feel a bit sick. This made it 48 to enjoy the beautiful sights. The guide gave me good advice. He said, “Watch your step 49 thinking about how many steps you have to take.” It was not easy, but I did it at last. It was nice to see the whole valley ( 山 谷）from the top of the mountain when we finished the trip. This experience was 50 for me. I learned that life is like the trip, troubles will get in our way, just keep walking and

try to get over them.

41. A. relative B. neighbor C. friend D. teacher

42. A. surprised B. excited C. bored D. tired

43. A. weather B. hotel C. food D. city

44. A. decided B. failed C. refused D. regretted

45. A. ran away B. got back C. set off D. fell down

46. A. hardly B. really C. nearly D. possibly

47. A. counted B. reached C. read D. recorded

48. A. proper B. busy C. easy D. hard

49. A. instead of B. thanks to C. because of D.according to

50. A. unlucky B. unfair C. unforgettable D. unknown

Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。

A: It’s very nice of you to invite me.

B: I’m very glad you could come. 51

A: Thank you. 52

B: Guangdong food is a bit light and Anhui food is of rich

taste.

A: 53 They are very good in color and taste.

B: Would you like some more chicken?

A:. No, thanks. I’m quite full.

B: 54

A: Yes, it’s the most delicious dinner I’ve had.

B: 55

A: Thank you very much for your treat.

A. I’m so glad you like it.

B. Do you enjoy the meal?

C. I’ll see you tomorrow then.

D. Have you tried Anhui food before?

E. Chinese dishes are carefully prepared.

F. Please take a seat at the head of the table.

G. Could you tell me about

Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）

A

The year 2022 has plenty of good films. Here are four of them.

56. When can people in Canada see Fantastic Beasts: The Secrets of Dumbledore?

A. On 11 March. B. On 8 April.

C. On 15 April. D. On 10 June.

57. Which film will be shown across the world?

A. Turning Red.

B. Jurassic World: Dominion.

C. Fantastic Beasts: The Secrets of Dumbledore.

D. Spider-Man: Across the Spider-Verse (Part One).

58. Who will probably be interested in Turning Red?

A. Jack, 14, a fan of Harry Potter.

B. Tom, 16, crazy about Spider-man.

C. Lucy, 13, having trouble growing up.

D. Jenny, 14, showing great interest in dinosaurs

B

Ice fishing is popular in countries like Russia and Germany. It’s also a popular sport in Canada and the United States. People can go ice fishing all year round in Alaska. The sport was brought to America by European settlers ( 移民) who came to Minnesota, a state where people are interested in it. Ice fishing was introduced to Canada from Minnesota, and from

there to Alaska.

To catch fish, people need lines, hooks ( 钩 子) and other tools through a hole in a lake covered by ice. They can sit in a warm tent on the ice over the hole, or stand in the very cold open air.

Of all the types of fishing, ice fishing may require the least effort and skill, just patience and luck. Followers of this sport won’t be afraid of staying on ice at very low temperatures. There are even ice- fishing competitions and good prizes for winners. At the very least, ice fishing can be a fun way to break up cold and boring winter days, and people can get a taste of the open air.

59. Where can people go ice fishing at any time of the year?

A. In Russia. B. In Minnesota. C. In Alaska. D. In Germany.

60. What may the followers need for ice fishing?

A. Patience. B. Effort. C. Practice. D. Skill.

61. What can people get from ice fishing?

A. A fun way to keep cold. B. A taste of the open air.

C. A chance to get attention. D. A method of getting food

C

Enter Nick Spigler’s room and you’ll find a

nest (鸟巢). There are also rows of books about

birds. Several times a week, Ellie Andreen, 15,

visits a park near her home to check if there

were birds needing help. The blue bird boxes she placed there last winter have produced several families of babies.

These young bird-watchers are not the only ones who want to protect birds in Maryland, USA. Several local schools offered programs in ornithology ( 鸟 类 学). Both Nick and Ellie took up birding early on. Once a month, they joined other students to walk through nearby fields before class, hoping to spot special kinds of birds. So far, they have found 190 of the more than 400 bird kinds in Maryland and they did a lot for these birds.

Mary Murray, 65, a leading member of the Harford Bird Club, said, “These children are going to take over Earth, and we need to teach them early how to take care of it. If kids care about what birds are doing, they will understand how to protect them.”

62. Who likes to read books about birds?

A. Nick Spiglar. B. Nick Smith.

C. Marry Murray. D. Ellie Andreen.

63. Which of the following can best describe Ellie Andreen?

A. Brave. B. Lucky.

C. Kind-hearted. D. Absent-minded.

64. What does the underlined word“spot”in Paragraph 2 mean?

A. 饲养 B. 救助 C. 捕捉 D. 发现

65. What is the best title for the text?

A. Looking for birds. B. Protecting birds.

C. Building birds’home. D. Founding a bird club.

D

You won’t find Coen Cadinha with a game controller in his hand.

“I know kids at my age want to play all day but I’ve never been into video games.” the 15- year- old boy from Honolulu, Hawaii, told the local news website KHON2.

“When I was 13, though I was trying to, I was too young to get a job. I thought, why not start my own business?”

Then, Coen decided to sell his own candies at markets. To start a business, he needs lots of documents. “I called and emailed a lot of people and waited. At last, I got all that I needed.”Then, Big Boy Sweets was born one year later.

When he wasn’t doing homework, he spent his free time packaging (包装) different kinds of candies. At his first market he sold out in four hours. He made thousands of dollars each

month, which has helped his family.

“I’m now thinking of a vending machine ( 自 动 售 货 机) of sweets. That’s something I look forward to,”he said.

66. When did Coen want to start his own business?

A. At age 13. B. At age 14. C. At age 15. D. At age 16.

67. What was Coen’s future plan?

A. To do more homework.

B. To make different kinds of candies.

C. To sell sweets with a vending machine.

D. To start another business outside Honololu.

68. What can we learn about Coen Cadinha?

A. He worked at a candy shop.

B. He worked hard for his business.

C. He played video games sometimes.

D. He started his company very easily.

69. Where does the text probably come from?

A. A film magazine. B. A newspaper.

C. A travel guide. D. A science report.

E

Plastic pollution has long been a problem, but it’s getting more serious.

Microplastics ( 微 塑 料) — quite small pieces of plastic less than 5 mm in size, have been found on Mount Qomolangma as high as 8,440 meters above sea level according to a study.

Scientists collected snow and water samples ( 样本) from 19 different places from 4,200 meters above sea level all the way up to the top of Mount Qomolangma. They found microplastics in all the water samples and part of the snow samples. Clearly, it is climbers who bring plastic products to the mountain. Even if they don’t litter, just walking for 20 minutes or opening a bottle of water can spread microplastics into the environment.

Another worrying fact is that plastic pollution has reached even the most far- away places on Earth. A 2020 report published in Nature suggests that there are 2,000 to 17,000 plastic pieces per cubic meters ( 立 方 米) in the North Pole. Scientists think microplastics may be brought by air and then reach there through snowfall.

Then what can we do? We need to pay attention to the problem and take simple steps, like using less plastic products.

70. Where did scientists discover the microplastics?

A. In all the water and snow.

B. At 4,200 meters below sea level.

C. At the foot of Mount Qomolangma.

D. At 8,440 meters on Mount Qomolangma.

71. What might bring plastic pollution to the North Pole?

A. Planes in the air. B. Water flowing in the sea.

C. Wind from other places. D. Scientists working there.

72. What is the purpose of the text?

A. To do a study. B. To collect samples.

C. To use plastic bottles. D. To call for attention.

阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。

F

“What is on your head?”Lizard asked Rabbit.“It looks like they could touch the sky!”Rabbit knew Lizard was talking abut her ears. She has long ears. “They’re my ears,” Rabbit said

quietly, looking down.

“I have ears, too, but mine aren’t so long. See?” Lizard turned, showing off her small ears. Rabbit wanted to hurry back home and hide forever. She didn’t want to talk any more. Lizard watched as Rabbit started to walk away sadly. Then Rabbit stopped walking. Her long ears turned towards a strange noise. Rabbit told Lizard to run and she started to run quickly. Lizard looked around. She couldn’t hear anything, but she knew Rabbit was right. So Lizard followed Rabbit and ran fast. Finally, they both stopped in Rabbit’s house.

“What happened? What was it?”Lizard asked.

“It was a snake. I could hear it moving in the grass,”said Rabbit.

“Oh? I didn’t hear anything!”Lizard said.“You saved me. I couldn’t hear it, but you could!”Lizard looked at Rabbit and her ears.“I am sorry that I made fun of your ears. They are great ears.”

Rabbit smiled and said,“I am proud to have such beautiful and helpful ears on top of my head.” So, pay no attention to how others see you and accept what you have.

73. What are Rabbit’s ears like?（不超过5个词）

_______________________________________________________________________________

74. Where did Rabbit and Lizard stop their running?（不超过10个词）

_______________________________________________________________________________

75. What can we learn from the story?（不超过15个词）

_______________________________________________________________________________

IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。

76. Parents always p________ (表扬) their children when they make progress.

77. Chinese c________ (文化) has influenced the world for thousands of years.

78. Allen is such an h________ (诚实的) boy that all his friends trust him a lot.

79. It’s necessary for us to follow traffic r________ (规则) when crossing the street.

80. Visitors must show their health QR codes before they go into the m________（博物馆）.

X.书面表达（20分）

充足的睡眠是健康的保证。假定你是李华，请你写一篇文章，向某英文报 社的健康专栏投稿。要点如下：

1.保持舒适环境；2.少使用电子产品；3. ......

注意：

1.词数80~100；2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；3.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称；4.短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数。

It is necessary for every one of us to get enough and great sleep. However, many people have trouble in sleeping well.

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

2022年合肥市中考“最后一卷”（模拟卷）

英语试题参考答案

主持单位：蜀山区教体局教研室   统筹：李德山  负责人：许家良

第一部分  听力（共四大题，满分20分）

Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共5小题:每小题1分，满分5分)

1-5 ACCBC

Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)

6-10 ABACC

Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)

11-15 CBBAB

IV. 信息转换(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)

16. 18/eighteen  17. useful  18. work   19. fun   20. means

（16-20题只要有错误，就算全错，包括单词的形式错误。）

第二部分  英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）

V. 单项填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)

21-25 CACCD  26-30 BDBCA

VI. 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)

31-35 BABDB  36-40 ACBCB

41-45 CBAAC  46-50 BBDAC

第三部分 阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分）

Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

51-55 FGEBA

Ⅷ.阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）

56-58  CDC  59-61 CAB  62-65 ACDB  67-69 ACBB  70-72 DCD

73. They are long.

74. They stopped (their running) in Rabbit’s house./In Rabbit’s house.

第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）

IX.  单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)

76. praise  77. culture   78. honest  79. rules   80. museum

（76 -80题只要有错误，就算全错，包括单词的形式错误。）

Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）

参考范文：

It is necessary for every one of us to get enough sleep. However, many people have trouble in sleeping well. Here are my suggestions about how to make sure of good sleep.

 First of all, we’d better keep our bedrooms clean and comfortable, which can help us fall asleep easily. We should also avoid using e-products like smart phones and computers before going to bed because they can make it difficult for us to sleep. Besides, we must stay away from noise and light while sleeping. Finally, we can relax ourselves by listening to soft music or reading books to get a great sleep.

All in all, I hope all of us can sleep well and live healthily.

评分标准：

一、评分原则：

1.本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。

2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量， 结合内容和语言表达，综合评定分数。

3.考生可根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。

4.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。

5.拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。

二、各档次的给分范围和要求：

第五档（很好）:（20-17分）

完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点；语言 基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。

第四档（好）：（16-13分）

完成试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点；语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基 本清楚。

第三档（一般）:（12-9分）

基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容；语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。

第二档（较差）：（8-5分）

未能恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别要点；语言错误较多，未能清楚传达信息。

第一档（差）：（4-0分）

未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出与内容相关的一些单词；语言错误很多，未能清楚传 达信息。