2019届山东省淄博市高三三模考试英语试卷（word版）

2019届山东省淄博市高三三模考试
英　语

注意事项:
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How can people travel today?
A. By air. B. By ship. C. By train.
2. What will the man do on his birthday?
A. Have a party. B. See a movie. C. Go out for a meal.
3. Why is the woman surprised?
A. The shirt is very expensive.
B. Her husband wants four shirts.
C. The man doesn’t agree with her.
4. Who will pay for the meal?
A. The man. B. The woman. C. The woman’s sister.
5. Which sport does the man prefer now?
A. Tennis. B. Basketball. C. Football.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
6. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A. Strangers. B. Colleagues. C. Friends.
7. What do the speakers have in common?
A. They are both designers.
B. They are both in the IT industry.
C. They work for the same company.
请听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Which part of her job does the woman find the most difficult?
A. Using the computer system.
B. Speaking in public.
C. Taking so much training.
9. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Tell her boss about her problem.
B. Learn more from others.
C. Change her job.
请听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. Why does the woman call the man?
A. To borrow his car.
B. To borrow some money.
C. To ask for directions.
11. What was the man doing before the call?
A. Playing games. B. Watching TV. C. Reading a book.
12. What happened to Bob?
A. He had a car accident. B. He lost his way. C. He hurt somebody.
请听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What will the man drink?
A. Tea. B. Milk. C. Coffee.
14. When did the man last see the woman?
A. About a month ago.
B. About two months ago.
C. About three months ago.
15. Where are the speakers?
A. At a barber’s. B. At a cafe. C. At the woman’s house.
16. What will the woman do for the man next?
A. Wash his hair. B. Fetch his drink. C. Clean his collar.
请听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How many screenplays did Pinter write for the cinema?
A. 29. B. 28. C. 27.

18. When was the play The Birthday Party first performed in London?
A. April 28th, 1958. B. May 19th, 1958. C. December 24th. 1958.
19. Whose birthday party was ruined?
A. Stanley Webber’s. B. Goldberg’s. C. McCann’s.
20. How long did Harold Pinter live?
A. 50 years. B. 62 years. C. 78 years.
第二部分　阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节　(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Opening Times of the British Museum
For everyone’s safety all bags, rucksacks, packages and personal items may be searched before entry. Wheeled cases and large items of luggage are not allowed on British Museum premises. Storage for luggage is available at major rail stations, including Euston, King’s Cross and Charing Cross.
Admission and opening times
Free, open daily 10.00–17.30.
The Museum is closed on 1 January and 24, 25 & 26 December, but open every other day of the year.
Gallery opening times
Museum galleries are open daily 10.00–17.30, and most are open until 20.30 on Fridays. Closing starts from 17.20 (20.20 on Fridays).
Bank holiday opening hours
The Museum is closed only on bank holidays that fall on 1 January or 25 & 26 December. The Museum is open as normal on all other bank holidays. Please note, however, that the availability of free tours and talks may be substantially reduced on public holidays.
Great Court opening times
The Great Court, including the Information Desk, is open daily 09.00–18.00 and until 20.30 on Fridays. The Ticket Desk is open daily from 09.00-17.00 and until 19:45 on Fridays.
Fridays open late
The following galleries are open until 20.30 on Fridays (except Good Friday).
Africa: The Sainsbury Galleries Room 25
Americas: North America Galleries Room 26
China, South Asia and Southeast Asia: The Joseph E Hotung Gallery Room 33
Chinese jade: The Selwyn and Ellie Alleyne Gallery Room 33b
Medieval Europe: The Sir Paul and Lady Ruddock Gallery Room 40
……
School times at exhibitions
Exhibitions are sometimes closed to the public for exclusive school viewings, please look at exhibition ticket pages for dates.
Temporary gallery closures
Galleries may occasionally be closed for maintenance or long-term refurbishment.
21. What should be stored before you enter the British Museum?
A. Small bags. B. Wheeled bags. C. Personal items. D. Rucksacks.
22. What time can you visit the British Museum?
A. At 10.00 on 1 January. B. At 17.00 on 25 December.
C. At 18.00 on Fridays. D. At 20.30 on Bank holidays.
23. Which gallery only houses Chinese treasures?
A. The Sainsbury Galleries.
B. North America Galleries.
C. The Joseph E Hotung Gallery.
D. The Selwyn and Ellie Alleyne Gallery.
B
Every year around the world, humans waste an estimated 1.3 billion tons of food.This happens even though many people go hungry. So some people have made it their life's work claiming food before it goes to waste and then giving it to people who are hungry.
One of those people is Brett Myers. In 2011, Myers started Nourish Now, a food recovery and food bank in the U.S. state of Maryland. This non-profit organization collects food and then gives it to the poor and organizations that support them.
“Nourish Now is a food recovery-based food bank that recovers food from restaurants, catering companies, grocery stores, hotels, farms and more. And then donates that food directly to families in need, kids in need at local schools.”
Each month, it recovers more than 20,000 kilograms of food and serves 700 needy families, schools and social organizations. Every day, staff and volunteers repackage the donations and distribute them to recipients.
A woman named Rhoda is one of the recipients. She describes the quality of the food delivered to her family by Nourish Now. “It consists of fresh food, fruits and vegetables. You will get bread. Sometimes you get dairy products such as yogurt or milk. And you will get some meat items also. And if you get lucky you might get cooked food, or prepared salads, and stuff like that.”
The supplies can feed a family for five days. Each recipient is able to receive food every 30 days. And the packages are made to fit the dietary needs of each family.
Besides families, the organization also donates small meals called snacks to several nearby schools and social organizations.
Nourish Now has grown considerably since it opened. Brenda is one of them. Part of her job as a volunteer is to make sure that none of the food goes to waste.
“In the morning, I make sure that all the things that came late yesterday, get put away so that we use that last, and we used the things that came the day before first, so that we’re always giving fresh food and we're not throwing out anything.”
24. What do we know about Nourish Now?
A. It donates money to the poor.
B. It benefits from collecting food.
C. It gets food from many places.
D. It distributes food only to the poor.
25. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. Nourish Now. B. The poor. C. Food banks. D. Organizations.
26. What does the author want to clarify with the example Rhoda in Paragraph 5?
A.The recovered food is fresh and rich.
B. She isn’t satisfied with the food supplied.
C. Eating better can keep people healthier.
D. She can get food donations every five days.
27. What is the best title for the text?
A. People Should Take Care of the Weak
B. The Poor Are Suffering from Starvation
C. Nourish Now Calls on People to Save Food
D. Group Uses Leftover Food to Feed the Hungry
C
Lawrence Ferlinghetti, the poet, publisher, painter, social activist and bookstore owner, has been San Francisco’s honored poet. He turns 100 this month, and the city is making preparations to celebrate him in style. Readings and performances and an open house will take place at City Lights, the sacred bookstore he co-founded in 1953.
On March 24, 1919, Lawrence Ferlinghetti was born in Yonkers, New York. After spending his early childhood in France, he received his BA from the University of North Carolina, an MA from Columbia University, and a PhD from the Sorbonne.
He is the author of more than thirty books of poetry, including Poetry as Insurgent Art; A Coney Island of the Mind. He has translated the works of a number of poets, including Nicanor Parra, Jacques Prevert, and Pier Paolo Pasolini. In addition to poetry, he is also the author of more than eight plays and three novels, including Little Boy: A Novel, Love in the Days of Rage and Her.
In 1953, Ferlinghetti and Peter Martin opened the City Lights bookstore in San Francisco, California. It became a nerve center for the Beats and other writers. Allen Ginsberg, Jack Kerouac and other writers from that era were Easterners who dropped into San Francisco for a spell. In 2001 it was made an official historic landmark. Now City Lights is almost certainly the best bookstore in the United States. It’s filled with serious world literature of all kinds.
If City Lights is a San Francisco institution, Ferlinghetti himself is as much of one. He has loomed over the city’s literary life. As a poet, he’s never been a critical favorite. But his flexible and plain-spoken and often powerful work — he has published more than 50 volumes — has found a wide audience. His collection “A Coney Island of the Mind” has sold more than 1 million copies, making it one of the best-selling American poetry books ever published.
28. What can we learn about Ferlinghetti from Paragraph 2?
A. He had a happy childhood.
B. He received normal education.　　　　　　　
C. He had a gift for writing novels.
D. He had written lots of poetry.
29. Which of the following best describes Ferlinghetti according to Paragraph 3?
A. Flexible. B. Optimistic. C.Outspoken. D. Productive.
30. Why is City Lights famous?
A. Because it is a nerve center for the youth.
B. Because its collections have a long history.
C. Because it is an official historic landmark.
D. Because it has many modern world literature.
31. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text?
A. To speak highly of a great poet.
B. To introduce some English poetry.
C. To promote values of City Lights.
D. To celebrate the birthday of Ferlinghetti.

D
A full moon is appearing—and it will have a big impact on animals, especially those in the ocean.
Recent studies show that many types of animals have biological clocks finely tuned to the cycles of the moon, which drives interesting and sometimes strange patterns of behavior.
Besides discovering hidden aspects of animal life, the research also has intention of better understanding the circadian clocks（生物钟）present in all animals, including humans.
The first circadian clocks evolved in the oceans, so studying them in ocean animals can tell us a lot about how they evolved and how they work and interact with each other, explains Kim Last, a researcher at the Scottish Association for Marine Science.
Oysters（牡蛎）, which open their shells to eat and spawn, also have a lunar rhythm, a new study shows.
In a recent experiment, French researchers carefully monitored how widely a dozen oysters opened their shells during a 3.5-month period. The team used a high-tech device that quantified the valve opening every two seconds, as described in a paper published in the journal Biology Letters.
They found that two types of oysters in Arcachon Bay in southwestern France were significantly more open during new moons and more closed when the moon was full. In addition, the oysters could tell the difference between the first quarter moon and the third quarter moon, and were significantly more open (by nearly 20 percent) at the latter.
It’s unknown why the oysters do this, though it could be due to more algae(海藻) or other food being available during the new moon and as the year progresses, says study leader Damien Tran, a researcher at the University of Bordeaux.
The lunar cycle could influence food availability by its impact on the tides and thus the ocean’s currents. When the moon is full or new, it is directly in line with Earth and the sun, forcing a strong pull on the ocean and thus causing more pronounced tides, explains David Wilcockson, a ocean biologist at Aberystwyth University in Wales who wasn’t part of the study.
32. Where did the earliest life forms probably evolve?
A. In the tides. B. In the oysters.
C. In the moon. D. In the ocean.
33. Based on the observations, what is the likely order of when the oysters are most open and most closed?
①The new moon; ②The full moon;
③The first quarter; ④The third quarter
A. ①-②-③-④ B. ①-②-④-③
C. ①-④-③-② D. ①-③-④-②
34. What is it that leads to the huge tides?
A. A strong pull. B. A straight line.
C. The lunar cycle. D. The ocean’s current.
35. Why are oysters mentioned as an example?
A. To explain why they open their shells.
B. To further stress the moon’s impact on animals.
C. To show the difficulty of science experiments.
D. To introduce how the high-tech device is used in experiments.
第二节　(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Coming to study in the UK is your opportunity to gain the skills, outlook and confidence you need to fulfil your potential. Applying to study in the UK is a straightforward process. 36
1. Decide on a university or college and course.
To ensure you choose the course that is right for you and for what you want to achieve it is best to read as much as you can about the range of courses, colleges and universities available and compare them. It is also important to check the course entry requirements. 37 If you have any questions, you can contact the university directly, who will be very happy to help you find the information you need.
2. Register and apply.
Applying for an undergraduate course in the UK is simple; there is one place where you can register and apply to all of the UK universities and colleges – you register and apply through UCAS (Universities and Colleges Admissions Service).
3. 38
Your university or college will contact you (usually via email) to tell you whether or not you have received an offer to study. If you applied via UCAS it's easy to track the status of your application at any time.
39 You have a place and you can accept straightaway.
If you are accepted with a conditional offer, the place is yours as long as you meet a few extra requirements. This could be achieving certain exam grades or English language test scores.
For some courses you may be asked to come for an interview before you receive your offer, either on the phone or sometimes in person. 40
A. Apply for a visa.
B. Accept your offer.
C. We will guide you through it step by step.
D. Once you have your offer and your visa, it's time to get packing!
E. You can do this using the course profiles on the institutions' websites.
F. If you are accepted with an unconditional offer, then congratulations!
G. Check the course information before you apply to find out whether this is required.
第三部分　语言知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节　(共20小题；每小题1. 5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Over the last summer I volunteered at a summer camp for children ages 5 through 12. Every day for six weeks I 41 pedal power to conquer the hill known only as Depot. 42 I arrived at Abbot School at 7:30, I began my seven-hour day of cleaning, entertaining and others. By helping these kids and working with other counselors, I was able to develop a better 43 of responsibility not just myself, but for 44 around me.
In the beginning I helped with a 45 of twelve-year-olds. I had a lot of fun because they were the most mature 46 , and I could relate to them. They didn't need as 47 help as the younger kids so the director of the camp switched me down to six-year-olds.
For the 48 few years I had gone to an adventure camp in the woods of Maine. There I participated in rafting, rock-climbing, and sea-kayaking. But nothing could have 49 me for working non-stop with 15 six-year-olds. From fights over batting order 50 who got to sip from the water fountain 51 , we were in a constant 52 of noise. I could now understand why parents always seemed to 53 a sigh of relief as they dropped off their little bundles of energy every morning.
For the first summer I was doing something that 54 someone else, and I found more 55 in that than any wasted breezy day of summers past.
During this unique opportunity of giving a 56 part of my summer, I was able to get back so much more. I learned how much my time is really 57 and how to take responsibility for myself and 58 others. I learned how different each individual is and how needs 59 . I gained more confidence when I realized I could 60 in the real world.
41. A. used B. produced C. wasted D. accumulated
42. A. Though B. Because C. Once D. If
43. A. knowledge B. sense C. duty D. sight
44. A. any B. ones C. these D. those
45. A. grade B. group C. class D. pack
46. A. campers B. volunteers C. teachers D. guides
47. A. many B. some C. much D. other
48. A. next B. old C. previous D. future
49. A. prevented B. restricted C. advised D. prepared
50. A. to B. in C. for D. of
51. A. directly B. first C. politely D. slow
52. A. spirit B. view C. state D. shape
53. A. bring about B. result from C. find out D. let out
54. A. defeated B. benefited C. regretted D. interested
55. A. opportunity B. relationship C. difference D. satisfaction
56. A. small B. valuable C. boring D. major
57. A. short B. worth C. necessary D. unique
58. A. particularly B. merely C. especially D. thoroughly
59. A. vary B. improve C. increase D. develop
60. A. create B. struggle C. appear D. survive
第二节　(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
For some people, walking or running outdoors is a great way 61 (exercise). What may not be so great is seeing trash all over the ground.
Well, some people are doing something about it. They are plogging! “Plogging” 62 (begin) in Sweden. The name combines the Swedish word “plocka”, 63 means to pick up, and the word “jogging” meaning to run slowly.
A Swedish man 64 (name) Erik Ahlström, started the movement in 2016. On the World Environment Day website, he says that he moved to Stockholma from a small community in 65 （north）Sweden. Each day he would ride his bike to work. He says he was concerned about the amount of trash and litter he saw each day 66 his way to work. So, he took matters into his own hands. He began picking up the trash. And that is how plogging was born!
Plogging, by that term, may have 67 （office）begun in Sweden. 68 many people who exercise outdoors have been doing this for years. Take Jeff Horowitz, for example. He is a personal 69 (train) in Washington, D.C. He says that he would often pick up trash 70 (run) outside. He even turned it into a game; he would try to pick up the trash without stopping.

第四部分　写作 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节　短文改错　(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
I feel very honored to be invited at your lecture about the body language in different countries next Monday. I’m real looking forward to it.
As you know it, as an important part of culture, the body language plays significant role in our life. Much of the body language are universal, but different cultures do have different way of expressing themselves. Therefore that is beneficial for us to know about the body language of different countries. I believe his lecture will help us to understanding the cultural differences in the body language.
Hope your lecture will be a great successful.
第二节　书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华，得知你的英国留学生朋友Peter在CCTV举办的《中国诗词大会》（The Chines Poetry Competition）决赛中失利。请你给他写封邮件，内容包括：
1. 给予安慰和鼓励；
2. 愿意提供帮助。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Peter,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua


部分学校高三阶段性检测试题
英语参考答案
第一部分　听力(共两节，满分30分)
1-5 CBACB 6-10 ABBAB 11-15 CACBA 16-20 ACBAC
第二部分　阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
21-23 BCD 24-27 CBAD 28-31 BDCA 32-35 DCAB 36-40 CEBFG
第三部分　语言知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)
第一节　(共20小题；每小题1. 5分，满分30分)
41-45 ACBDB 46-50 ACCDA 51-55 BCDBD 56-60 ABCAD
第二节　(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分)
61. to exercise 62. began 63. which 64. named 65. northern
66. on 67. officially 68. But 69. trainer 70. running
第四部分　写作 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节　短文改错　(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
第一句：at →to
第二句：real →really
第三句：删除it；plays后加a
第四句：are →is；way →ways
第五句：that →it
第六句：his →your；understanding →understand
第七句：successful →success
第二节　书面表达(满分25分)
Dear Peter,
I’m sorry to know that you were knocked out in the finals of the Chinese Poetry Competition last week. I’m writing to express my sincere concern for you.
I understand how you are feeling. You made careful preparations in advance and tried your best, so there is nothing to regret. As a saying goes, “Failure is the mother of success.” As a matter of fact, you can learn a valuable lesson from this experience. I do hope that you won’t lose heart and will keep on learning Chinese. There are many opportunities to show your talent in the future. If you keep on trying, you are sure to win in the next competition.
Don’t hesitate to let me know if you need further help.
Yours,
Li Hua
写作评分标准：
1．本题总分25分，按照5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．字数少于80或者多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分应注意的主要内容为：内容要点，应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差以致影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
评分细则
第五档 21-25分 完全完成了试题规定的任务
　　　　　　　—覆盖所有内容要点，
　　　　　　　—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇
—语法结构和词汇有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构和较高级词汇所致--有效使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
　　　　　　　—完全达到了全文的写作目的。
第四档 16-20分 完成了试题规定的任务
　　　　　　　—虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
　　　　　　　—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构和词汇应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因为因尝试较复杂结构和较高级词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
—达到了全文的写作目的。
第三档 11-15分 基本完成了试题规定的任务
—虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 6-10分 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
　　　　　　　—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
　　　　　　　—语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
　　　　　　　—有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
　　　　　　　—较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1-5分 未完成试题规定的任务。
　　　　　　　—明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
　　　　　　　—语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
　　　　　　　—较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
　　　　　　　—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
听力文稿
Text 1
M: Last night’s heavy snow storm has made all main roads in the area too dangerous to use. The airport is closed until tomorrow morning and all ferries are cancelled too.
W: Yes, but the trains are still working normally.
Text 2
W: So James, what are you going to do for your birthday?
M: Well, I was hoping to have a party but most of my friends are busy so I’ve accepted my sister’s offer to take me to a film — at least it’s better than going out for a meal with my parents.
Text 3
M: Oh, take a look at the price of the shirt!
W: Gosh, you can get four shirts for that price in other shops.
M: Yes, you’re right!
Text 4
W: What else should we order? You can order anything you like. It’s my sister’s treat.
M: Oh, lots of things! How about some meat and some vegetables, noodles and soup?
W: Great. I’m hungry so I can eat a lot.
Text 5
W: I really enjoy playing tennis. What kind of sports do you like?
M: I used to like football very much, but now I think nothing is better than basketball.
Text 6
W: Excuse me. Is this seat taken?
M: Oh, no. Go ahead.
W: Thank you. By the way, my name’s Paula Moore.
M: Nice to meet you, Paula. I’m Mike Jones.
W: Nice to meet you, too. What do you do, Mike?
M: I’m with Diamond Technologies. I’m a web designer, and you?
W: I’m in IT, too. I’m a product planner for Paxton Computer. Here … Let me give you my card.
M: Thanks a lot. Here’s mine.
Text 7
M: How do you like your new job, Wendy?
W: It’s OK, I guess … Actually, it’s a little frustrating.
M: Oh, that’s too bad. Why?
W: Well, I don’t know how to use the computer system. It’s very confusing.
M: Why don’t you ask for some more training?
W: Yeah. I guess I could do that, but that’s not the only thing I don’t like. I also have to give factory tours. That’s really difficult! I can’t stand speaking in front of a group of people.
M: Hmm. You should let your boss know that.
W: You’re right. I should.
Text 8
W: Hello, Larry. Kate speaking. I’m very sorry to call you so late, but I didn’t know who else to ask for help.
M: Oh, don’t worry — I’m just reading a novel to kill time. You know, I don’t like playing games or watching TV. What’s happened? You sound frightened.
W: You know we went to the countryside for the weekend. We had a car accident on the way home, and Bob is in hospital now. He needs an operation, but we don’t have enough money to pay for it.
M: Oh my! Tell me the name of the hospital; I will get there as soon as possible.
Text 9
W: Hi. Good morning, Mr Boddington. I’m ready for you now! Come on over.
M: Sure. Thanks.
W: Here — take a seat. Tea or coffee?
M: Oh, great … Er … Coffee please.
W: Sugar? Milk?
M: Just one sugar.
W: OK. Sandra, could you get Mr Boddington a coffee, one sugar? Thanks. Now then, how much do you want off?
M: Well, it’s got a bit messy, hasn’t it?
W: You’ve got quite curly hair.
M: Yes. But it gets out of control pretty quickly …
W: How long since your last appointment? I remember seeing you in September.
M: Oh, yes. I came here, let’s see, about two months ago.
W: Right, so you want quite a bit off.
M: Well, yes, you know, just above the ears.
W: Do you want the front short or what?
M: Yeah, a bit shorter.
W: And the back?
M: Above the collar would be nice. You know, just so it looks a bit smarter, a bit neater.
W: Do you normally have a parting?
M: Well, yes. I suppose so. A side parting.
W: OK. Shall we go over there and I’ll give it a wash …
Text 10
One of Britain’s most famous modern writers is Harold Pinter. Born in 1930, Pinter wrote 29 plays for the theatre and 27 screenplays for the cinema, as well as many radio and television plays. One of his best-known plays is The Birthday Party. The Birthday Party, the first full-length play Pinter wrote, had its world premiere at the Arts Theatre, in Cambridge, England, on the 28th of April 1958. Although the play was initially well received, when it opened in London a few weeks later on the 19th of May, it was a commercial and critical failure, closing after only eight performances. However, a few days later, one of the country’s most famous critics wrote extremely positively about the play in a Sunday newspaper, helping to make it one of the most famous plays ever.
The Birthday Party is about Stanley Webber, a piano player in his 30s, who lives in an English seaside town, not too far from London. Two strangers, Goldberg and McCann, arrive on his birthday, turning his birthday party into a nightmare. Harold Pinter presented a special anniversary performance of the play at London’s Lyric Theatre on the 19th of May 2008, exactly 50 years after its London Premiere. Pinter died later the same year on the 24th of December.