山东省青岛市2024-2025学年七年级上学期11月期中英语试题
展开(考试时间: 120分钟; 满分: 120分)
说明:
1.本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分,共九道大题。第Ⅰ卷为选择题 ,共五道大题,共60小题,共65分; 第Ⅱ卷为非选择题,共四道大题,共55分。
2.请将所有试题答案写在答题卡上,考试结束后只上交答题卡,在原题作答无效。
第Ⅰ卷 (共65分)
Ⅰ.听力理解。(共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 根据听到的句子,选出相应的答语。共5个句子 ,每个句子读一遍。
1. A. They are brthers. B. Yes, they are. C. They live in Beijing.
2. A. I'm Peter Smith. B. I'm fine, thanks. C. I'm in Class 5, Grade 7.
3. A. I have tw cusins. B. I like playing tennis. C. It's ur schl's bell.
4. A. n the playgrund. B. In the music hall. C. In the frnt.
5. A. It's a shp. B. It's behind the library. C. It's clean and big.
第二节 请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
7. A. Three. B. Five. C. Fur.
8. A. On the right. B. Next t Jim. C. In the middle.
9. A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
10.
第三节 听下面一段短文,完成下列任务。听第一遍录音,将听到的相关信息排序。你将有15秒钟的时间阅读下面的内容。
A. have fun B. g there and d sprts C. welcme t ur schl
D. find bks with its help E. make learning interesting
11. ____________ 12. ____________ 13. ____________ 14. ____________ 15. ____________
再听录音,根据录音选择最佳答案 ,你将有15秒钟的时间阅读下面的内容。录音讲再读两遍。16. The sprts field in Jack's schl is ____________ .
A. large B. ld C. small
17. The classrm building is ____________ .
A. behind the sprts field
B. n the right f the sprts field
C. n the left f the sprts field
18. There are ____________ classrms in the classrm building.
A.25 B.30 C.35
19. ____________ makes learning interesting.
A. The blackbard B. The lcker C. The smart whitebard
20. The clr f the schl library is ____________ .
A. brwn B. black C. blue
Ⅱ语音(本题5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请找出每组单词中划线部分读音与其他不同的选项。
21. A. grade B. eraser C. flag
22. A. mistake B. hike C. vilin
23. A. screen B. mean C. head
24.根据音标/'sɪmɪlə/选出正确单词。
A. sund B. similar C. sister
25.根据音标/'kɔːnər/选出正确单词。
A. center B. circle C. crner
Ⅲ.对话理解(本题10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下列对话,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
( Welcme t Junir high schl.)
SCENE One: The first day at schl
Meimei: Hell, my name is Sng Meimei. May I have yur name?
Peter: Hi,26 Peter Brwn. Nice t meet yu.
Meimei: Nice t meet yu, t. Hw d yu 27 yur name?
Peter: P-E-T-E-R, Peter. And this is my friend. 28 name is Helen. Miller is her29 name.
Meimei:30 are yu frm?
Peter: We' re frm Lndn, in the UK.
Meimei: Ww, that's far. What class are yu in?
Peter: Class One.
Meimei: Ww, we' re in the 31 class! I am in Class One, t.
26. A. He is B. I am C. She is
27. A. cunt B. answer C. spell
28. A. His B. My C. Her
29. A. last B. middle C. first
30. A. Where B. What C. When
31. A. different B. similar C. same
SCENE Tw: In an English class
Ms Li: Is this yur family pht, Meimei?
Meimei: Yes, it is.
Ms Li: Are these yur 32 ?
Meimei: Yes, they are. My father is very 33. He always tells jkes and makes me laugh.
Ms Li: Ww, it's cl. What abut yur mm?
Meimei: She is very nice and she likes 34 very much. She ften plays ping-png35 me. And we spend a lt f time tgether.
Ms Li: S nice. What a happy family!
32. A. parents B. cusins C. friends
33. A. handsmeB. funny C. special
34. A. fd B. sprts C. music
35. A. fr B. frm C. with
IV.完形填空(本题10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文 ,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Tny is eight years ld. He likes t play with a paper plane in the 36 . His English teacher, Ms Miller, always stps him when she sees it. Tny knws it is (a) 37 , but he feels unhappy.
One Sunday, Tny meets Ms Miller at the park. He wants t run away, 38 it's t late. He has t g t her and he raises his hand t 39 her.
“There is n need t raise yur hand, Tny. What wuld yu like t say?” Ms Miller says.
“I nly want t say hell t yu.”
Just then, Ms Miller's 40 is blwn away(被风吹走). “Oh, my hat,” she shuts. Tny helps her get it back.
“Thank yu s much, Tny.”
Tny is happy. He asks Ms Miller t see his favurite 41 . They cme t the crner f the park and sit dwn tgether. It's beautiful there, with lts f flwers. Ms Miller takes ut a piece f paper frm her bag and 42 a plane. Tny plays with it and then lets it fly away. “This is a 43 paper plane fr me. It means s much t me,” Tny says.
After that, Tny 44 a lt at schl. He starts t like the English class. And reading English is his new 45 .
36. A. gym B. field C. classrm
37. A. fun B. way C. mistake
38. A. s B. but C. and
39. A. greet B. thank C. meet
40. A. hat B. bagC. bk
41. A. animalB. placeC. fd
42. A. makesB. takesC. ntices
43. A. specialB. mdernC. beautiful
44. A. keeps B. changesC. sends
45. A. member B. activity C. hbby
V.阅读理解(本题15小题,A、B篇每小题1.5分,C篇每小题1分)阅读下列文本,选出最佳选项。
A
There are different ways t greet peple. Tday, let's see what Jack says when he meets thers. We can learn different greetings frm him.
46. What time des Jack g t schl?
A. At 7:30. B. At 8:00. C. At 16:30. D. At 18:15.
47. Alice is Jack’ s .
A. mther B. teacher C. friend D. classmate
48. Where des Jack meet Tny?
A. At schl. B. In the park. C. At hme. D. On the street.
49. What des the underlined wrd“relaxing” mean?
A. 兴奋的 B 惊讶的 C. 放松的 D、无聊的
50. What des the text(文本) want t tell us?
A. Different fd. B. Different greetings.
C. Different places. D. Different peple.
B
D yu want t take a ne-day visit t a farm n Sundays? Sunshine Farm is waiting fr yu. It's Tny Miller's farm and his parents help him there. They all welcme yu t visit the farm.
Here are three areas n the farm fr yu t have fun.
Bill and Lisa visit the farm tday. Let's see what they say abut the farm.
I cme here with my best friend. We' re happy t see geese n the lake and they' re s cute.
Bill
The farm is interesting and I like the fd here best. I have ht pt with my grandparents. It is s delicius.
Lisa
51. What is Sunshine Farm like?
A. It is 10 years ld. B. It's small but beautiful.
C. It's large and mdern. D. It's Tny Miller's farm.
52. Hw many kinds f plants des the farm have?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three. D. Fur.
53. Tny Miller desn't have n the farm.
54. What activities d the Sunshine Farm have?
① Taking a pht f animals. ② Feeding the sheep.
③Having delicius fd. ④ Learning t plant ptates.
A.①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D.①③④
55. What can we infer(推断) frm the reading?
A. Yu can have dinner n the farm.
B. Peple can't take the tmates hme.
C. Bth Bill and Lisa have fun n the farm.
D. Bill ges t the farm with his grandparents.
C
D yu want t knw abut me? Let me tell yu smething. I am a 13-year-ld girl.56. I have big eyes and a rund face with lng brwn hair.
I lve playing badmintn. I think it's a gd way t help me keep healthy.57 . I ften play it with my parents n weekends. I like painting as well. I feel really relaxed when I am in the wrld f clrs.58. It's white and it jumps up n my knee every time I get back hme frm schl. We have a lt f fun playing tgether.
59. I always keep my rm clean. Smetimes I help wash everyne's clthes in my family. I think being clean can help me enjy life.
What I dn't like abut myself is that I am really shy (害羞的) arund ther peple.60.
I feel gd abut myself mst f the time, but I knw there is still a lt I can d t be a better girl.
根据短文内容,从下列选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。
第II卷(满分55分)
VI.综合填空(本题10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,每空一词。
Hell! I'm Alice frm the UK. I have a big family and we live in a big huse tgether. Lk at this pht. I'm 61 English girl with brwn hair. My grandparents are n the left. They are very 62 (重要的) t me. Can yu see the three dgs? They are my 63 ( grandparents) dgs and they' re clever. Their 64 ( name) are Cc, Cper and Ckie. My grandma thinks it's great fun t keep them. My father is 65 the right. He lves music. He 66 ( spend) a lt f time making music n the weekend. The by is my brther. He is nly five years ld,67 he knws a lt. It's because he lves reading 68 ( stry). My brther and 169( be) bth gd at sprts. The beautiful wman is my mm. She lves swimming. She ges t the gym 70 (/ə'krɒs/) frm ur huse every week. I lve my big family.
VII.根据要求完成句子。(本题5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
71. the bkcases, are , where (连词成句)
_____________________________________________________________________________
72. there, sme plants, the teacher's desk, are, next t (连词成句)
_____________________________________________________________________________
73. Ella 的帽子在她的书包里。(翻译成英文)
_____________________________________________________________________________
74. Are there any lckers?(请做否定回答)
_____________________________________________________________________________
75. Teng Fei’ s grandpa lves sprts.(请改写为: Teng Fei 的爷爷喜欢运动吗? )
_____________________________________________________________________________
VIII.阅读表达(本题共20分)
A
阅读下面文本,完成76至80小题。 (每小题2分,共10分)
Bb is 9 years ld, and I am his pencil. Bb is my gd friend. I am with him in his hand r in his pencil bag every day. I am a blue pencil. Bb likes the clur.
Bb's pencil bag is at hme. I like the hme and I have sme friends here. They are tw erasers,a pen and a ruler. I like t be with (A)them because they like me t.We are always happy in the pencil bag.
This mrning I am nt happy, because a new pen cmes in. It's a black music pen. It can write and sing. But I can nly help Bb t write. Des Bb still like me?
Evening cmes. It is time t write. Bb hlds(握住) me again. He likes writing with n music. I am happy t help him again. I am still Bb's favurite.
76. What am“I” in this passage(文章)?______________________________________________________
77. What clr des Bb like?_____________________________________________________________
(A)处划线单词 them指代的是:________________________________________________________
79. What can the music pen d ?___________________________________________________________
80. Hw d“I” feel at last?________________________________________________________________
B
阅读下面文本,完成81至85小题。(共10分)
My New Schl
I'm Lisa, my new schl is very beautiful. There are six buildings in ur schl: a library, an ffice building, a classrm building, a dining hall, a sprts hall and a science building.
In the middle f the schl is a big sprts field. We g there and d mrning exercises every day. The library is n the left f the sprts field near the schl gate. There are many bks, maps and cmputers in it. Behind the library, n the left, are the schl ffices. Our teachers wrk there.
Between this building and the dining hall is the classrm building with twenty-fur classrms. Our classrms are big and clean. On the right ther design frm building is the dining hall. I lve the fd there. It's delicius. In frnt f the anning hall is the sprts hall and the building in frnt f that is fr science. There are six science labs and five cmputer rms in the science building. I lve science.
81. Hw many buildings are there in the schl?(1 分)
_____________________________________________________________________________
82. What des Lisa d n the sprts field every day?(2 分)
_____________________________________________________________________________
83. Fill the names f the buildings n the map.(4 分)
①___________________ ②___________________ ③ classrm building
④___________________ ⑤ the sprts hall ⑥___________________
84. Des Lisa like the classrms in her new schl?(2 分)
_____________________________________________________________________________
85. What is yur schl like?(1 分)
_____________________________________________________________________________
IX.书面表达(共15分)
你已度过一段时间的初中生活,在新学校一定交到了很多新朋友。请你以“My Friend”为题写一篇短文介绍你的好朋友 David Brwn。内容包括其姓名、外貌、性格、爱好及家庭成员情况等。
要求:
1. 包含题目要求内容,可适当发挥;
2. 文中不得出现真实的姓名、学校名称。
3. 词数:60词左右(开头已给出,不计入总次数)。
Hell!I have a gd friend.______________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
2024-2025学年度第一学期阶段质量检测
七年级英语试题
第Ⅰ卷 (共65分)
Ⅰ.听力理解。(共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
略
Ⅱ语音(本题5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
21-25 CACBC
Ⅲ.对话理解(本题10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
26-30 BCCAA 31-35CABBC
IV.完形填空(本题10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
36-40CCBAA 41-45BAABC
V.阅读理解(本题15小题,A、B篇每小题1.5分,C篇每小题1分)阅读下列文本,选出最佳选项。
46-50ADBCB 51-55CDCAC 56-60BCDAE
第II卷(满分55分)
VI.综合填空(本题10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
61 an 62 imprtant 63 grandparents’ 64 names 65 n 66 spends 67 but 68 stries 69are 70 acrss
VII.根据要求完成句子。(本题5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
71 Where are the bkcases?
72 There are sme plants next t the teacher’s desk.
73 Ella’s hat is in her schlbags.
74 N,there aren’t.
75 Des Teng Fei’s granpa lve sprts?
VIII.阅读表达(本题共20分)
76 I am Bb’s pencil.
77 Blue
78 Tw erasers a pen and a ruler
79 It can write and sing
80 Happy
81 Six
82 She des mrning exercises
83 ①the library ②the schl ffices ④the dining hall ⑥the science lab
84 Yes,she des
85 开放题
IX.书面表达(共15分)
略
Area A
Yu can see tmat plants, carrt plants and ptat plants. Yu can pick(摘) tmates and take them hme. Yu can als learn t plant tmates, carrts and ptates.
Area B
Next t Area A, There are hrses, sheep and rabbits. Yu can take phts f them. But yu can't feed (喂) them. There is als a lake, yu can see sme geese.
Area C
Yu can have lunch n the farm. G t Tny's huse behind Area B. There are different kinds f delicius fd.
A. I am a tidy girl
B. I'm nt tall r shrt
C. It's als a gd family sprt
D. I als like playing with my pet cat, Mimi
E. That smetimes makes it nt easy fr me t make new friends
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