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    浙江省金华市金东、浦江、兰溪2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末检测英语试题

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    浙江省金华市金东、浦江、兰溪2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末检测英语试题

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    这是一份浙江省金华市金东、浦江、兰溪2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末检测英语试题,共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。


    2024.1
    考生须知:
    1. 全卷满分 120 分, 考试时间100分钟。试卷共7 大题, 81小题。
    2. 全卷分为卷Ⅰ(选择题) 和卷Ⅱ(非选择题) 两部分,全部在“答题纸”上作答。
    卷 I
    说明:本卷共有三大题,45小题,满分 70分。
    第一部分 听力部分
    一、听力 (共20小题, 满分 30分)
    第一节:听句子,从A,B,C三个选项中选出句子中所含的音标或单词。 (共5 小题,每小题1分,满分 5分)
    1. A.[ meik] B. [ mail] C. [ mi:t]
    2. A.[' sevn] B. [ˌsevn' ti:n] C. [' sevnti]
    3. A. ['kʌmpəni] B. [kəm' pju:tə] C. ['kɒnsət]
    4. A. tree B. their C. three
    5. A. weekdays B. Wednesday C. weekend
    第二节:听小对话,从A,B,C三个选项中选出正确的选项,回答问题。 (共5 小题,每小题1 分, 满分 5 分)
    6. What clr is Jhn's schlbag?
    A. Red. B. Green. C. Yellw.
    7. When des the sprts meeting begin?
    A. At 7:30. B. At 8:00. C. At8:30.
    8. Wh is the letter frm?
    A. Jane. B. Lucy. C. Li Lei.
    9. What are the speakers talking abut?
    A. Fd. B. Animals. C. Schl life.
    10. Where are the speakers?
    A. At hme. B. At schl. C. At the shp.
    第三节:听长对话,从A,B,C三个选项中选出正确的选项,回答问题。(共5 小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
    听下面一段较长的对话,回答11、12两个小题。
    11. Wh is the yung man?
    A. Mike's teacher. B. Mike's friend. C. Mike's uncle.
    12. What subject des Frank teach?
    A. PE. B. Maths. C. Music.
    听下面一段较长的对话,回答 13-15 三个小题。
    13. Wh des the man buy a gift fr?
    A. His sister. B. His mther. C. His teacher.
    14. What des the man chse at last?
    A. A blue skirt. B. A purple scarf. C. A pair f black glves.
    15. Hw much des the man pay(支付)?
    A. Frty yuan. B. Sixty yuan. C. Eighty yuan.
    第四节:听独白,请从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项,回答问题。 (共5 小题,每小题2分, 满分 10分)
    16. In which city des Jy live?
    A. Mscw. B. Beijing. C. Ls Angeles.
    17. What's Jy ding in the rm?
    A. Dancing. B. Drawing. C. Listening t music.
    18. What is Jy's sister like?
    A. Cute. B. Quiet. C. Clever.
    19. Where is the pet cat?
    A. In Jy's rm. B. In the kitchen. C. In the living rm.
    20. Wh is gd at cking?
    A. Jy. B. Jy's father. C. Jy's mther.
    第二部分 笔试部分
    二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
    In my family Mther's Day is just as special as Christmas.
    It is exciting being in the huse. This is thanks t my 21 . He makes sure that his children shw much lve fr 22 mther--- his wife. He asks us t clean the huse and make it lk 23 and beautiful. He tells us t d things fr ur mther, 24 cking breakfast.
    Mm desn't have t d anything all 25 . In the mrning she can 26 her breakfast in her bedrm and just relax(放松). In the evening, we g t a restaurant fr a nice 27 dinner.
    Frm this, I learn a thing r tw abut 28 t lve. My father always 29 my mther first. He lves her and always tells her s.
    Yu see, it ges bth ways. The 30 yu have fr yur mther cmes back t yu in a special way ne day if yu have children. Even if yu are nt living tgether, yu will feel clse t each ther. Yu will have much lve in yur heart.
    21. A. father B. mther C. teacher
    22. A. my B. his C. their
    23. A. clean B. expensive C. different
    24. A. just B. even C. still
    25. A. day B. week C. year
    26. A. buy B. make C. enjy
    27. A. Christmas B. Mther's Day C. Father's Day
    28. A. wh B. what C. hw
    29. A. puts B. tells C. meets
    30. A. time B. lve C. mney
    三、阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下面四篇短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    D yu want t learn abut hw t celebrate the new year in different cuntries? Cme and have a lk.
    In Spain, sme peple chse t eat ne grape each time the clck strikes(敲响) midnight n New Year's Eve. They think eating all 12 grapes can bring gd luck in the new year.。
    In Suth Africa, sme peple make space in their hmes fr the new year by thrwing their ld furniture ut f the windw. This means a new start.
    In a few cuntries acrss Suth America, sme peple chse t carry an empty suitcase arund with them n New Year's Eve. They want t shw that the new year will be full f exciting adventures(冒险).
    31. In which cuntry d peple eat grapes t welcme the new year?
    A. Spain. B. America. C. Suth Africa. D. Suth America.
    32. Why d peple in Suth Africa thrw away their ld furniture?
    A. T get a new start in the new year.
    B. T bring gd luck in the new year.
    C. T buy new furniture in the new year.
    D. T shw a new year full f exciting adventures.
    33. Where can we prbably read the passage?
    A. In a ntice(通知). B. In a magazine. C. In a dictinary(字典). D. In a stry bk.
    B
    Hi, everyne! I'm Li Ming. I'm 13 years ld. I'm a middle schl student. I have a hbby and I'm interested in cmputers. What d yu d with a cmputer during yur free time? Play cmputer games r search fr infrmatin?
    Fr me, I have a cmputer at schl and at hme I have a cmputer t. I spend mst f my free time in frnt f my cmputers, but I dn't play cmputer games, visit websites r watch films. I learn the cmputer cding(编程) n the cmputer. I have a cmputer cding lessn n Saturday mrning in a club. I think it's difficult but fun. ▲
    Recently here is gd news fr me. Our schl plans t have a cmputer cding lessn fr us t learn abut infrmatin technlgy(信息技术). Our IT lessn will include(包括) cmputer cding in the future. The IT teacher can teach us the cmputer cding at schl. I hpe I can have a cmputer cding lessn every day.
    34. What des Li Ming use the cmputer t d?
    A. T watch films. B. T visit websites.
    C. T play cmputer games. D. T learn the cmputer cding.
    35. Hw sn(多久一次) des Li Ming have a cmputer cding lessn?
    A. Every day. B. Every Sunday. C. Once(一次) a week. D. Once a mnth.
    36. Which f the fllwing can be put in the ▲ in Paragraph 2?
    A. One mrning is t shrt fr me.
    B. There are cding lessns at schl, t.
    C. I wuld like t play the cmputer games.
    D. I dn't want t learn the cmputer cding.
    37. In which subject can Li Ming learn the cmputer cding at schl in the future?
    A. IT. B. PE. C. Art D. Science.
    C
    WOULD yu like t draw pictures right n a table and frget the paper? In the US, students can d this!
    At Krmrey Middle Schl in Wiscnsin, US, tables have a whitebard surface(桌面). The students can write ntes and draw pictures freely. They use the new tables t learn in class. The tables are n each side f a rm. And many students can sit rund the big table.“ All f the students like the tables very much.” says the head teacher.
    This new whitebard table helps students wrk as a team.“ It really helps them cme tgether and put their heads tgether,” says a seventh- grade teacher.“ We’ re trying t make mre prblem slvers(解决者).”
    Seventh- grader Camern, 12, says the whitebards make class mre efficient(高效的). It is easier t change smething the students d wrng. They can just clean it ff and start ver.
    Anther advantage abut the new tables is students dn't use as much paper.“ It's saving trees,” said sixth- grader Evelyn Andersn, 10.
    38. Which f the fllwing can the new tables d?
    ①They can make class mre efficient. ②They can help t save mre trees.
    ③They can help students wrk as a team. ④They can help students d nthing wrng.
    A.①②③ B.①②④ C.①③④ D.②③④
    39. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. The new tables have a blackbard surface.
    B. The students nly use the new tables in art classes.
    C. It is easier fr the students t d hmewrk n the new tables.
    D. The students use less(更少的) paper because f the new tables.
    40. What des the head teacher think f the new tables?
    A. Welcmed. B. Beautiful. C. Interesting. D. Traditinal.
    41. What des the underlined wrd“ advantage” in the last paragraph mean?
    A. Plan. B. Infrmatin. C. Gd thing. D. Gd idea.
    D
    Gerge is in the pet stre, lking at what kind f pet he might wants t get fr his birthday. Gerge asks if he culd have a hrse, but his mther says n because hrses are t big.
    First, he sees dgs and cats. Baby dgs are called puppies. Baby cats are called kittens. Gerge likes them because they are easy t take care f and can play a lt, but they will get bigger. Gerge wants a small pet.
    Then Gerge sees animals that have t live in cages. He sees rabbits and mice. Mice are what yu call mre than ne muse. He likes these animals because they are small. Birds live in cages t. Gerge sees a lt f birds in a cage. He likes them t, but he desn't want t clean the cage.
    Gerge sees the animals in tanks(箱). The tanks full f water have fish and turtles(乌龟) in them. There are tanks with rcks and sand t. They have snakes and spiders(蜘蛛), but Gerge is afraid f them. Gerge likes the turtles best, but they wn't fit in the little fishbwls. Turtles need bigger tanks, s they can swim smetimes and hide smetimes.
    Gerge decides he wants t get a turtle fr his birthday. He buys a bk n hw t take care f a turtle.
    42. Hw many kinds f animals des Gerge see in the pet stre?
    A.8. B.9. C. 10. D.11.
    43. What des the underlined wrd“ them” in Paragraph 3 refer t?
    A. Birds in the cage. B. Puppies and kittens.
    C. Rabbits and mice. D. All the animals in cages.
    44. What des Gerge take fr his birthday at last?
    A. A bk. B. A tank. C. A hrse. D. A turtle.
    45. Which f the fllwing can be the best title fr the passage?
    A. A trip t the z. B. Animals in the pet stre.
    C. A pet as a birthday present. D. Gerge's favrite animals.
    卷 II
    说明:本卷共有四大题,46小题,满分50分。
    四、词汇运用(本题有20 小题,每小题1分,共20分)
    A. 拼读下列音标,在音标后面的横线上写出相应的单词。
    46. [lʌv] 47. [ greid] 48. [ pla: nt]
    49. [pə' li:s] 50. ['laibrəri]
    B. 用方框中所给词汇的适当形式填空,每词限用一次。
    befre farm sing interesting at wrk
    51. My favrite subject is histry because it's .
    52. My father is a and he is wrking in the field.
    53. Listen! The girl next rm is an English sng.
    54. My father is very busy and still in the evening.
    55. We Chinese peple always clean ur huses the Spring Festival.
    C. 根据短文内容和所给的中文提示,在空白处填入单词。每空限填一词。
    Autumn is a gd time fr children t g utside and see the clrful l 56 . The weather in autumn is c 57 . Autumn is a great s 58 fr kids t play utside. There are many autumn utdr activities all ver the w 59 .
    In China, students ften have a picnic with their 60 (同学). They will g t parks r t sme ther p 61 in the pen air.
    What abut the children in ther cuntries? Japanese students ften g hiking. It is a gd way t get 62 (锻炼). Muntain climbing in nice weather is 63 (也) a gd chice. 64 (美国的) children like t g fr bike rides in autumn. In the UK, schlchildren like t camp utside with their 65 (父母). They make fd ver the fire and tell stries.
    五、语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分 10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个恰当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
    D yu knw enugh abut the fd and drink? There 66 ( be) all kinds f fd and drink fr us. I have the right fd every day. I 67 ( usual) have milk, bread and eggs fr breakfast. Milk and eggs are gd 68 my health. Fr lunch I have 69 ( tmat), fish and rice. They are 70 ( health) fd, and I like 71 ( they). I have rice, sme 72 ( vegetable), beef and chicken sup fr dinner. I have sme fruit every day. Remember there is a saying —“ 73 apple a day keeps the dctr away.”
    It's imprtant 74 ( eat) well. That can make yu keep fit(健康) 75 yu will be strng and happy.
    六、任务型阅读 (共5 小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
    流程图可以帮助梳理事件发展顺序。请根据 Liu Xin对自己的校园生活的描述,完善文章后面的流程图(每空不得超过三个词)。
    Gd mrning, everyne. My name is Liu Xin. I am thirteen years ld. I cme frm China. I am very busy every day, because I have many things t d. I get up at 7:00 am and have sme milk and bread fr breakfast at 7:30 am. I g t schl by bike and lessns begin at 8:30 am. I have six lessns a day, three in the mrning and three in the afternn. Mrning Classes finish at 11:15 am. A lt f students g back hme t have lunch, but I have lunch in the schl dining hall with my gd friends. We ften have lunch at 11:20 am. After lunch we stay tgether, talking and laughing. Schl finishes at 3:30 pm. Fifteen minutes later(之后) we g t the playgrund t play ftball. It is my favrite sprt. At abut 5:00 pm, I say gdbye t my friends and g back hme. My family have supper at 5:30 pm. It's my schl day and I am happy every day. What abut yu?
    Liu Xin's schl schedule ( activities and time)
    七、书面表达(15分)
    81. 假设你叫李华,今年寒假期间你将参加某英语杂志社组织的一次冬令营活动,请你根据下方表格中的写作要点和参考内容写一篇自我介绍( Intrduce myself),并在新朋友见面会上用英文作自我介绍。
    要求:
    (1) 内容包括表格中的所有要点,表格右边栏的内容供参考,可以选择使用。可适当发挥, 词数 70 左右;
    (2) 文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
    Intrduce myself
    Hell, everyne. I'm very happy t be here t intrduce myself.
    I hpe we can be friends here.
    写作要点
    参考内容
    Persnal infrmatin(个人信息)
    Name, age, …
    Hbby
    Playing basket/ swimming/...
    Family
    Family member, jbs,…


    2023 学年第一学期七年级英语期末考试听力材料
    第一节:听句子,选出句子中所含的音标或单词。
    1. Hi, Mary, nice t meet yu!
    2. Nine and eight is seventeen.
    3. I will g t the cncert this Sunday.
    4. Lk! The students are studying in their classrm.
    5. I dn't have mbile phnes t play n weekdays.
    第二节:听小对话, 回答问题。
    6. W: Jhn, is this red schlbag yurs?
    M: N, it isn't. My schlbag is green.
    7. W: Hurry up! Jack. It's eight ' clck.
    M: Dn't wrry. Mum. The sprts meeting starts at thirty past eight.
    8. W: Li Lei, here is a letter fr yu.
    M: Thank yu, Lucy. Oh, my pen friend Jane writes t me.
    9. W: My favrite drink is milk. What abut yu, Mark?
    M: Me t. It can make us strng.
    10. W: S much chclate! Have we gt any chclate at hme, Dad?
    M: T much chclate isn't gd fr yu. Let's g there t buy sme fruit.
    第三节:听长对话,回答问题。
    听下面一段较长的对话,回答11—12两小题。
    W: Hi, Mike. Wh is the yung man ver there?
    M: He is my uncle, Frank.
    W: He lks s cl. What des he d?
    M: He is a PE teacher in ur schl.
    W: Really? In ur schl? But I dn't knw him.
    M: He is a new teacher here.
    听下面一段较长的对话,回答13—15 三小题。
    W: Can I help yu, Sir?
    M: I want t chse a gift fr my mther's birthday.
    W: What des she like? A skirt?
    M: My sister likes skirts. But I'm lking fr a pair f glves fr my mum.
    W: Ok. What clr des she like? Blue, purple...
    M: Oh, she likes black. Just like these. Hw much are they?
    W: Frty yu an a pair.
    M: OK. I' ll take them.
    第四节:听独白,根据内容,请从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的选项,回答问题。独白读两遍。
    Hey, my name is Jy. I'm Russian and live in Mscw. It's 6: 30 pm. nw. It's raining utside.I'm listening t music in my rm. I like dancing and singing. I ften dance t the music. My sister is a quiet girl and she des well in drawing. She is drawing pictures in the living rm nw. My pet cat Mimı plays the ball near her. Where are my parents? My parents are busy cking dinner in the kitchen. My dad is gd at cking. I like cking t and I want t learn frm him.
    七年级英语期末考试参考答案
    一、听力(1~10小题, 每小题1分; 6~15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分)
    1-5 CBCBA 6-10 BCAAC 11-15 CABCA 16-20 ACBCB
    二、完型填空(每小题1分,共10分)
    21-25 ACABA 26-30 CBCAB
    三、阅读理解(每小题2分,共30分)
    31-33 AAB 34-37 DCAA 38-41 ADAC 42-45 CADC
    四、词汇运用(每小题1分,共20分)
    46. lve 47. grade 48. plant 49. plice 50. library
    51. interesting 52. farmer 53. singing 54. at wrk 55. befre
    56. leaves 57. cl 58. seasn 59. wrld 60. classmates
    61. places 62. exercise 63. als 64. American 65. parents
    五、语法填空(每小题1分,共10分)
    66. are 67. usually 68. fr 69. tmates 70. healthy
    71. them 72. vegetables 73. An 74. t eat 75. and/ s
    六、任务型阅读(每小题1分,共5分)
    76. have breakfast 77. mrning classes/ lessns 78.11:20 am
    79. play ftball 80.5:00 pm
    七、书面表达(共15分)
    81. One pssible versin:
    Hell, everyne. I'm very happy t be here t intrduce myself. My name is Li Hua. I'm twelve years ld and I'm a middle schl student. My favrite sprt is playing basketball and I ften play with my friends after schl. There are fur peple in my family. My father is a dctr and my mther is a teacher. My sister is a baby. I lve them very much. Zhang Ming is my best friend, but he is nt in my class. I hpe we can be friends here.
    七年级英语期末考试评分标准
    一、第1小题至第10小题,每题1分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
    第11 小题至第20小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
    二、第21 小题至第30小题,每题1分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
    三、第31小题至第45 小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
    四、第46小题至第65 小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
    五、第66小题至第75 小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
    六、第76小题至第80小题,每题1分,超出3个词填空的不给分,写出关键词就给分。
    七、第80 小题, 共1题, 共计15分。
    评分标准:
    1. 按5个档次给分。中档属第三档(9分—7分)。
    2. 按学生所写内容和所用语言确定档次(内容分和语言分各占一半)。
    3.(除开头结尾所给)总词数不足30个可在本题总得分中扣去3分;
    超过90个可在本题总得分中扣去2分。
    4. 评分要点:
    (1) 个人信息(4分) ,兴趣爱好(4分) ,家庭成员情况(4分),其他信息(2分)。
    (2) 卷面整洁、书写清楚 (1分) 。
    5. 各档次的给分范围和要求:
    第五档(很好) : (15分—13分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
    ①信息全。②语言可读性强,语言结构基本正确,有少量错误。
    第四档(好):(12分—10分) 完全完成试题规定的任务。
    ①有主要信息。②语言基本正确,有一些错误。
    第三档 (还好):(9分——7分)基本完成试题规定的任务。
    ① 有主要信息。②语言尚可读,有一些错误,但尚能达意。
    第二档(较差) : (6分—4分) 未能恰当完成试题规定的任务。
    ① 信息不全。②只有个别句子可读,语言错误较多,且不能达意。
    第一档 (差) : (3分—1分) 未能完成试题规定的任务。
    ① 不能表达有关信息。②只有几个相关单词,语言错误很多,不能达意。
    注意:凡不写任何内容、抄袭其它内容、所写内容无法看清者一律给0分。

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