广西壮族自治区百色市田阳区2023-2024学年七年级下学期5月期中考试英语试题

这是一份广西壮族自治区百色市田阳区2023-2024学年七年级下学期5月期中考试英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

(考试时间: 120分钟; 满分: 120分)
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、座位号、考籍号填写在试卷和答题卡上。
2. 考生作答时，请在答题卡上作答(答题注意事项见答题卡)，在本试卷上作答无效。
3. 先考听力，在听力开始前有两分钟听力试音时间。
一、听力 (共30小题, 每小题1分, 共30分)
(一) 听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍
1. 2. 4. 5. 4.
(二) 听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. Hw d the girl and her father g t schl?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. On ft.
7. What is Tm ding?
A. Telling a stry. B. Ding his hmewrk. C. Drawing a picture.
8. What time des the girl have lunch at schl?
A. At 12:00. B. At 12:30. C. At 12:40.
9. Why des the girl want t see the giraffes?
A. Because they are beautiful. B. Because they are cute.
C. Because they are friendly.
10. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. The schl subject. B. The schl life. C. The schl rules.
(三) 听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。请听第一段对话，回答第11-13 小题
11. What can Peter d?
A. Dance. B. Play the guitar. C. Sing.
12. Wh can sing well?
A. Jenny. B. Peter. C. Li Ling.
13. What d the speakers want t d?
A. Jin in a TV shw. B. Jin a music club. C. Jin in a music shw.
请听第二段对话，回答第14-16 小题
14. What's the weather like?
A. Sunny. B. Cld. C. Rainy.
15. What is Rse ding?
A. Singing. B. Running. C. Playing vlleyball.
16. Where is Rse?
A. At schl. B. At the park. C. At hme.
请听第三段对话，回答第17-20 小题
17. Wh's Tny's P. E teacher?
A. Mr. Lu. B. Mr. Chen. C. Mr. Li.
18. Hw far des Lisa run every day?
A.1 kilmeter. B. 2k ilmeters. C. 3 kilmeters.
19. Why des Lisa like Chinese best?
A. Because it's interesting. B. Because it's imprtant. C. Because it's fun.
20. What's Tny's favurite subject?
A. P. E. B. Chinese. C. Histry.
(四) 听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. Where is the speaker nw?
A. In Canada. B. At schl. C. Outside the pl.
22. What subject is the speaker studying?
A. Maths. B. English. C. Chinese.
23. Hw's the weather?
A. It's cl and. warm. B. It's cld and rainy. C. It's warm and sunny.
24. What is the speaker ding in the afternn?
A. Visiting her ld friends. B. Walking in the park. C. Drinking range juice.
25. Wh writes the letter?
A. Jane. B. Su Lin. C. Jane's aunt.
(五) 听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
二、单项选择 (共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
31. — Dn't be nisy. We are in the library.

A. Srry, Ms. Li B. Yu' re welcme C. Gd jb
32.— Lu Ta, let's g t the this weekend.
—OK. I want t see the kalas.
A. park B. z C. shp
33. Lk! The bys frm Class 6 n the playgrund.
A. are playing B. play C. plays
34.--- Hw is yur Chinese teacher?
--- He is very funny. He ften us stries in class.
A. speaks B. says C. tells
35. Lingling, yur hands are . Please wash them befre dinner.
A. quiet B. dirty C. nisy
36.— des Lily g t schl? — At seven.
A. What B. Hw many C. What time
37.— Can yu play pian?— N, but I can play vlleyball.
A./;a B. the; an C. the;/
38. These beautiful animals are . We must prtect them.
A. kind f B. in danger C. made f
39.— Yu park(停车) here! Lk at the sign. It says“ N parking”.
A. dn't B. can't C. needn't
40.— Hell, Amy! What are yu ding?
— . I'm just reading bks at hme.
A. Nt much B. Cme n C. N prblem
三、补全对话 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话，有一个选项是多余的。
A: Excuse me, Mary. Are yu free nw?
B: Yes, I am. What can I d fr yu?
A: 41 A. Hw far is it?
B: Let me see. Oh, it's far frm here. B. Where are yu frm?
A: 42 C. Thanks fr yur help.
B: Abut five miles. Yu can take a bus there. D. Which bus can I take?
E. Hw lng des it take t get there?
A: 43 F. Can yu tell me hw t get t the cinema?
B: The N.6 bus can take yu there.
A: 44
B: Abut half an hur.
A: 45
B: Yu' re welcme.
四、完形填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，共10分)
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Dear Bruce,
Thanks fr yur email— gd t hear frm yu. I'm lking frward t the exchange(交流), t!
Anyway, abut the 46 and things. The schl here isn't very 47 abut mst f things, but there are a few things yu need t knw. First f all—— 48 . Yu can wear what yu want, 49 yu can't wear jeans with hles in them. Yu shuld 50 cmfrtable things. And it' ll be cld when yu' re here s yu'd bring sme 51 clthes.
The schl's pretty strict abut phnes— f curse yu can 52 them, but yu have t 53 the phnes and keep them in places as yu are required befre class. Yu can't just put them n silent, right? And yu can bring fd t schl but yu must eat it 54 during the break. If it's raining, yu can eat in the classrm.
In shrt, it's a gd schl and the teachers are 55 . Yu really dn't have t wrry abut anything here. Write again sn, OK? And tell me if there's anything else yu need t knw.
Yurs
Lin Ta
46. A. lessns B. subjects C. rules
47. A. strict B. bad. C. right
48. A. clthes B. time C. balls
49. A. s B. but C. befre
50. A. take B. ck C. wear
51. A. warm B. dry C. small
52. A. help B. bring C. sell
53. A. hand ut B. listen t C. talk t
54. A. n B. near C. utside
55. A. kind B. terrible C. quiet
五、阅读理解 (共20小题, 第56—60小题, 每小题1分; 第61—75 小题, 每小题2分, 共35分)
A
At this mment, in different places f the wrld, peple are ding different things.
In Beijing, it's midday. Peple are having lunch. Sme are eating rice and chicken. Sme are eating ndles and fish.
In Lndn, it's three ' clck in the mrning. Mst peple are sleeping.
In Juneau(朱诺), it's evening. Sme peple are watching TV at hme. Sme are still wrking in their ffice.
In New Yrk, it's late at night. Mst peple are sleeping, t.
In Mscw, it's mrning. Peple will g t wrk. Children will start their lessns.
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的在答题卡上将“T”涂黑，错误的在答题卡上将“F”涂黑。
56. It's time fr breakfast in Beijing.
57. Sme peple in Juneau are wrking in their ffice at this mment.
58. Mst Peple in Lndn and New Yrk are sleeping.
59. Children in Mscw will watch TV at hme.
60. There are six places in the passage.
B
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. If yu jin the Ping- Png Club, yu must .
A. meet n Tuesday
B. call Miss White at 333-5348
C. wear sprts clthes and sprts shes
62. Where can children in Bk Club meet?
A. In the schl library.
B. In Classrm 208.
C. In Classrm 306.
63. When can children in Hmewrk Club?
A. Frm 5:00 t 6:00 n Mnday mrning.
B. After schl frm 4:00 t 5:30.
C. Frm 4:30 t 6:00 n Friday afternn.
64. Yu can call t jin the Fruits Club.
A. Mrs. Green B. Miss White C. Mrs. Smith
65. Li Hua is a student in Grade 2. s he can jin clubs.
A. tw B. three C. three
C
Every year n 22nd April, ver 192 cuntries celebrate(庆祝) Earth Day(地球 an imprtant day. It tells peple t help ur Earth.
On Earth Day, many peple in the US keep their cars at hme and g t wrk by subway. Many children like wearing a blue and green T- shirt n that day. Blue and green clthing is like the blue sky and the green trees.
The theme(主题) fr Earth Day in 2024 will be the“ Planet(星球) vs. Plastics(塑料)”. Many turtles, seabirds and dlphins get caught in plastic bags. They can't mve and sme f them even die! That's why peple stp using plastic bags and bring their wn shpping bags. Sme peple like drawing pictures n their wn shpping bags. They want t tell mre peple t help ur Earth. It is a gd way, isn't it? Next Earth Day, will yu jin them tgether?
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
66. Hw many cuntries celebrate Earth Day?
A. Over ninety- tw.
B. Over One hundred and twenty- tw.
C. Over One hundred and ninety- tw.
67. What clur is the T- shirt n Earth Day?
A. Blue and green.
B. Green and yellw.
C. Blue and white.
68. What's the meaning(意思) f' get caught in plastic bags”?
69. Why d peple draw n their wn shpping bags?
A. Because they like drawing pictures very much.
B. Because they want t get mre mney fr their family.
C. Because they want t tell mre peple abut helping the Earth.
70. What's the best title f this article?
A. Helping ur Earth. B. Wearing T- shirt. C. Planet Vs. Plastics.
D
Jining a club is a great way t stay active(活跃的), meet new peple , and get new skills. The Breakfast Chub is a great meeting place fr students. Yu can eat and talk with yur friends here befre classes. There are a lt f different fds, such as bread, cake, ygurt milk, juice, bananas and apples. We'd like t make sure the students start their day with healthy fd. Breakfast is very imprtant and students need energy(能量) fr mrning activities, s dn't skip breakfast fr classes.
T make ur club run well, we need sme vlunteers(志愿者) t help us. If yu'd like t ffer(提供) yur help. please cme t the cffee huse in the mrning and tell us yu want t jin us. If yu want t knw mre abut ur club, please Email all Emily at 569-4582. She will be happy t answer yur questins.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
71. What can students d in the Breakfast Club?
A. Talk with friends. B. Make breakfast. C. D hmewrk.
72. What desn't the' Breakfast Club ffer?
A. Milk. B. Juice. C. Cla.
73. The underlined part“ dn't skip breakfast fr classes” means .
A. We mustn't eat breakfast
B. We must eat breakfast
C. We shuld make breakfast at hme
74. What des the secnd paragraph mainly(主要地) talk abut?
A. The DIY f The Breakfast Cub.
B. The Breakfast Club ffer healthy fd.
C. The Breakfast Club needs students’ help.
75. Which is the best title fr the passage?
A. Start a Gd Day in ur Club.
B. Why Nt Bread fr Breakfast.
C. Break Is very Imprtant.
.六、选词填空 (共10小题, 每小题1.5分, 共15分)
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
kilmeter, at, half, either, tth, quickly, walk, smetimes, get, I
Hi! I'm Lingling. Tday I want t share with yu my habit. In the mrning, I usually 76 up at 8:00. I have less time fr breakfast s I eat it very 77 . My schl. is abut tw 78 frm my hme and I ften 79 t schl. Fr lunch, I usually have lunch at schl. After schl, I 80 play sprts with my friends. I usually play it fr 81 an hur. Then I always d 82 hmewrk first after getting hme. In the evening,I 83 watch TV r play read bks. Then at 10:30, I take a shwer and brush my 84 I g t bed 85 abut 10:40.
七、书面表达 (15分)
动物是人类的好朋友，它给人们带来无限快乐。请以“ My Pet friend”为题，介绍你的宠物，内容包括：
1. 介绍你的宠物的基本信息(姓名、年龄、外貌特征等) ；
2. 你的宠物的生活习惯和爱好；
3. 你喜欢它的原因。
写作要求：1. 要点齐全，可适当发挥； 2. 语句通顺，行文连贯；
3. 书写规范，卷面整洁； 4. 开头已给出，不计总数。词数70个左右。
My Pet Friend
2023—2024 学年度下学期期中学业水平测试
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力 (每小题1分，共30分)
(一) I—5 CBDEA
(二) 6—10 ACBAC
(三) 11—13BAC 14—16 ACB 17—20 BBAC
(四) 21—25 ABCCB
(五) 26. shwer 27. clean 28. early 29. vilin 30. make
二、单项选择 (每小题1分，共10分)
31—35 ABACB 36—40 CCBBA
三、补全对话 (每小题1分，共5分)
41—45 FADEC
四、完形填空 (每小题1分，共10分)
46--50 CAABC 51-55 ABACA
五、阅读理解 (56—60每小题1分, 61—75每小题2分, 共35分)
56—60 FTTFF 61—65 CACBA
66—70 CABCA 71—75 ACBCA
六、选词填空 (每小题1.5分，共15分)
76. get 77. quickly 78. kilmeters 79. walk 80. smetimes
81. half 82. my 83. either 84. teeth 85. at
七、书面表达 (15分)
My Pet Friend
I have a pet friend. It's a dg. His name is Harry. He has brwn and white hair. Harry is fur years ld. He is very smart. He can swim and play ball games. I like t play with him. He can als walk n his tw legs like peple. Harry likes swimming very much. On weekend, I ften talk him t swim in the river fr half an hur.
I lve Harry very much. He makes my life clurful.
评分标准
一、填空题 (26——30小题、76—85小题)
按参考答案评分，26——30小题单词拼写完全正确每小题评1分，76——85小题单词拼写完全正确每小题评1.5分，形式不对 (含大小写错误) 不予评分。
二、书面表达
1. 本题满分为15分，不设小数点以下分值。按五个档次评分 (见下表)。
2. 本题具有一定的开放性，考生应根据内容要点和注意事项完成写作任务，所给参考词汇非评分依据，仅供考生使用。
3. 评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后
根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算； 单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分。字数少于 50词扣 1 分。
4. 文中不得透露个人信息，否则不予评分。
书面表达评分标准
Fur students' family rules
Jim
● Can't play cmputer games.
H as t take a 26. ________ befre ging t bed.
● Has t 27. _________ the huse n weekends.
Jack
● Has t get up 28. __ every mrning and d the hmewrk
first after schl.
Can't watch TV r play cmputer games n weekdays.
Sally
Can't sing ludly at hme.
Has t read bks and play the 29. ______ n Sundays.
Mike
Can't eat t much junk fd.
Has t help his mm 30. ________ dinner n weekends.
Ping- png club
Can yu play ping- png? Mr. King is here t teach yu.
Grades 3-6
Every Friday 5:00-6:00p. m in Classrm 601. Yu need t wear sprts clthes and sprts shes.
E- mail: jeffking 123@ htmail.cm
Bk Club
Lve t read? Great bks t read and interesting games t play.
After schl frm 4:00 t 5:30 p. m.
Grades 1-3: Tuesday
Grades 4-6: Thursday
Want t see lts f yu in the schl library!
Mrs. Green
Hmewrk Club
Need help with yur hmewrk? Hmewrk Club is fr yu!
Grades 3-6
Every Mnday, Wednesday and Friday
4:30-6:00 p. m. in Classrm 208
Call Mrs. Smith at 831-4107 fr mre(更多).
Fruits Club
Cme and jin us fr fresh fruit juice every mrning in Classrm 306 frm 7:00 t 8:00 n schl days.
$ 2 every day.
All students are welcme.
Call Miss White at 333-5348
档次
分数
评分标准
第五档
13~15分
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点， 结构完整，语句流畅， 意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少 (没有或仅有1处语法错误)，格式正确， 书写规范。
第四档
10~12分
较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点， 结构较完整，语句完整， 意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少 (有2~3处语法错误)，格式基本正确， 书写较为规范。
第三档
7~9分
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点， 结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺， 意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多(有4~5处语法错误)，格式基本正确， 书写基本规范。
第二档
4~6分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点， 结构不完整，多数语句欠完整， 意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多 (有6~7处语法错误)，影响理解， 格式不够正确， 书写欠规范。
第一档
0~3分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点， 结构不完整， 多数语句不完整或意思不明， 语法和词汇错误很多， 书写不规范。(抄写阅读材料， 有侮辱性语言的， 一律打0分)