2023-2024学年山东省济宁市任城区七年级（上）期末英语试卷（五四学制）

这是一份2023-2024学年山东省济宁市任城区七年级（上）期末英语试卷（五四学制），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力选择，阅读理解，听力填词，单词拼写与运用，用所给词的适当形式填空，根据要求完成下列句子，完形填空，阅读表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第Ⅰ 卷(选择题 共45分)
一、听力选择(共15 小题,计15 分)
(一)请听录音中八组短对话。每组对话后有一个小题，从题中所给 A、B、C三个选项中，选出与对话内容相符的图片或能回答所给问题的最佳答案。(每组对话读两遍)
1. Where did Carl g n vacatin?
2. What des Peter eat every day?
3. What sprt is Dave gd at?
4. Wh is mre hard-wrking?
A. Ben. B. Mary. C. Jenny.
5. What is Tny like?
A. He is funny. B. He is creative. C. He is serius.
6. Hw was the weather in Sanya last week?
A. Cludy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
7. Hw ften des Jack watch his favrite prgrams?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Every weekend.
8. What des the wman want t knw?
A. Where Wanda Theater is.
B. What the service is like at Wanda Theater.
C. Which theater is the best in twn.
(二)请听录音中两段较长的对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出能回答所给问题的最佳答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第一段对话，回答第9 至第11三个小题。
9. When is the basketball game?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
10. Wh des the girl think shuld be the basketball player?
A. Li Ming. B. Li Lei. C. Lin Ta.
11. Which wrd can describe Li Lei?
A. Taller. B. Talented. C. Smarter.
听第二段较长的对话，完成第12 至第15 四个小题。
12. Wh likes drinking milk?
A. Gina. B. Peter. C. Gina's mm.
13. Hw lng des Peter run every mrning?
A. Fr 30 minutes. B. Fr 45 minutes. C. Fr 60 minutes.
14. Hw ften des Gina play ping-png?
A. Every day. B. Three times a week. C. Fur times a week.
15. Hw many kinds f sprts did the tw speakers talk abut?
A.2. B.3. C.4.
(请同学们翻到第7页，找到第Ⅱ卷第三大题，继续做听力填词题。)
二、阅读理解(共15 小题,计30 分)
阅读下面短文，从每小题 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
My name is Maria. Last week, we had a math exam (考试). The fllwing is the infrmatin abut my gd friends and ur grades in the exam.
16 Maria and Wendy have the same 。
A. grade B. height C. age D. hbby
17 Maria is taller than 。
A. Sara B. Tm C. Jack D. Wendy
18 Bth Jack and Sara can
A. sing well B. run fast
C. dance well D. sing and dance well
19. Wh gt the best grade?
A. Maria. B. Sara. C. Jack. D. Tm.
B
Nick is a 14-year-ld schlby. His life is full f exams and studies n weekdays. He has little free time. He thinks playing cmputer games is the best way t relax. When he has free time, he sits in frnt f the cmputer. Just like that way, he desn't eat r drink fr sme hurs.
Last weekend, he played games in frnt f the cmputer again. He was t excited and didn't want t mve. He didn't have anything fr six hurs. When he had t g t the bathrm(卫生间), he fund he culd nt mve. He was sent(送) t the hspital. The dctr tld him he shuld d sme different kinds f activities. In ther wrds, he needs mre exercise t make him have a healthy bdy.
After cming back frm the hspital, Nick fllws the dctr's advice(建议). He ften plays sccer with his friends. Smetimes he still plays cmputer games n weekends, but he never des it fr lng. Nw, he lives a happy and healthy life.
20. What des Nick like t d in his free time?
A. Study. B. Play cmputer games.
C. Play sccer. D. Eat delicius fd.
21. Why was Nick sent t the hspital?
A. Because he was t excited.
B. Because he had a cld in the mrning.
C. Because he was t nervus f his studies.
D. Because he culdn't mve after playing cmputer games.
22 Nick shuld fllw the dctr's advice t
A. g t the mvies B. listen t music
C. take mre exercise D. play cmputer games
23 Frm the passage, we knw
A. Nick is fifteen years ld.
B. Nick is very busy n weekdays.
C. His parents sent him t the hspital.
D. Nick didn't play the cmputer any mre.
C
24. Where is Jessy writing frm?
A. Sydney. B. New Zealand. C. Paris. D. Utah.
25. What did Dnna and Frank d during their traveling?
A. They visited museums. B. They tk a bat ride.
C. They sat in frnt f a cmputer. D. They watched mvies in the cinema.
26. What can we infer(推断) frm Anna's Mments?
A. It's t nisy arund the farm. B. Her idea f fun is hrse riding.
C. She will g t Lndn next week. D. She can't use the Internet n the farm.Name
Age
Height
What they're like
What they're gd at
Tm
13
1.61m
Funny
Singing
Jack
15
1.60m
Shy
Running
Wendy
14
1.58m
Ouiet
Dancing
Sara
13
1.51m
Serius
Running
Maria
14
1.53m
Outging
Drawing
15:19
15:19
15:19
< Mments(朋友圈)
< Mments 101
< Mments
Dnna
Jessy
Anna
Cffee and Paris!
Australia at last!
Dn't cme here!
Paris is beautiful! We
The flight(飞行) was
We're staying n a farm
went n a great trip. We als
tiring, but here I am at last,
in Utah. There is nearly
tk a bat ride n the River
in Sydney! Lk! Here we
nthing! It's t quiet. Every
Seine. And it's nice t just
are at last! The Sydney
mrning, we get up really
sit at a street cafe(咖啡馆)
Opera Huse! It lks like
early, and we ride hrses.
and watch the wrld g by.
shells ( 贝 壳 )! It's
Then it's time fr breakfast
But Frank was sad because
wnderful! And I will take
and mre riding nt my
n ne culd understand his
the plane t New Zealand n
idea f fun! Tday I walked
French(法语).
Tuesday. I'll pst ( 邮 寄)
t a little twn near the farm

smething again frm there.
where it actually(事实上)


has the Internet! Next week,
we will shp in New Yrk. I can't wait!


D
Nick was a prud(自负的) by. He thught that he was the best in everything he did.When he lst, he wuld always find excuses(借口).
One Friday, Randy and Jack came t play badmintn. Jack was much better at badmintn than Randy. After abut half an hur, Randy said t Jack,“Oh, I need t take a rest. I have t say that yu are really gd at this game.”Their classmate Nick heard this. He laughed ut lud and said, “Randy, that's because yu are really bad at the sprt. I am the best f the three f us. ”Then, he asked Jack if he wuld like t play with him. Jack said,“OK.”Then,the tw began t play.
As a tall by, Nick shwed great skills(技巧) at playing badmintn. It was nt easy fr Jack t win, but still, he wn the game. T Jack's surprise, Nick said, “I can win if I have a racket (球拍) as gd as yurs ”Hwever, Jack didn't think s He said, “Let's swap rackets t play again.”
Unluckily fr Nick, he still lst the game. This time rund, Nick had n excuses. He was sad and planned t leave. Hwever, Jack went ver t him, said, “D nt be sad! Yu are a great player, t.” Hearing this, Nick learned that he culd nt be t prud because there wuld always be smebdy better than him.
27. What was Nick's excuse fr lsing the game?
A. His racket was nt gd.
B. He wasn't as tall as Jack.
C. The badmintn was nt gd.
D. He was s tired that he culd nt play well.
28. What des the underlined wrd“swap”mean in Chinese?
A.交换 B.修理 C.选择 D.隐藏
29. Which f the fllwing shws the three bys' skill at playing badmintn?
A. Nick's C. Nick's30. What can we learn frm the stry?
A. Better late than never.
B. A gd friend is like a mirrr.
C. There is n such thing as a free lunch.
D. There is always smene better than yu.
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共 55 分)
三、听力填词(共5小题，计5分)
请听下面一段独白。根据所听到的内容，写出可以填入下表1~5空格处的适当单词，每空限填一词。(独白读两遍)
四、单词拼写与运用(共8 小题，计8分)
根据汉语和首字母提示完成单词，使补全后的句子意思通顺，语法正确。
1 B parents and kids felt lucky t have a trip t Beijing
2 He culdn't see the d between the tw girls They are almst the same
3 If we get e exercise every day, we will get healthier
4 It rained tday, he shared his u with his friend Ted
5 Frm the tp f this (建筑物), the park lks wnderful
6 The (获胜者) f the cmpetitin will cme t ur schl next mnth
7 He (似乎) very happy when he gt the result f the exam
8 I went t the beach, (尽管) it was cludy and windy
五、用所给词的适当形式填空(共5小题，计5分)
1 Sally (break) her arm yesterday, s she had t stay at hme
2 She did badly in English, but she did much (bad) in Chinese
3 The bkstre is the (clse) t his hme f all
4 Yu can cme t the library (tw) a mnth
5 I really enjy (ride) the bike in the cuntryside
六、根据要求完成下列句子(共5 小题，计10分)
1 des Steve g nline?(根据下句完成上句)
—He ges nline three times a week.
2. Sam is tall, but Tm is shrt.(用比较级改写句子)
Tm is Sam
3. mst, think, the, I, Larry, hard-wrking, is(连词成句)

4 I visited Hng Kng n vacatin with my family (对划线部分提问)
did yu n vacatin with yur family?
5.在旅行中他没有为自己买任何东西。
He fr himself in the trip
七、完形填空(共7 小题，计7分)
阅读下面短文，从方框中选择适当的词语填空。方框中有两个词语为多余选项。
Five years ag, Lydia first came t a new schl. She felt very lnely(孤独的) because she 1 had any friends She wanted t make friends with thse wh were the same as her, but it was t hard She was new and 2 , and she was afraid t talk with thers After a week, her teacher Mr. Green asked Lydia t sit next t Lisa. But she wasn't3 because Lisa was t naughty(淘气的) and utging, and she acted like a by Smetimes she was very rude(粗鲁的) t her classmates.“ Lisa wn't be my friend. We are s different. ”Lydia said t herself.
Hwever, as time went by, Lydia became 4 because f Lisa In fact, Lisa was really a lvely and friendly girl They were different, 5 the y helped each ther and became best friends. Lydia made a lt f friends because f Lisa.
Nw, Lisa is studying in a new schl Lydia really 6 her “It's nt necessary fr friends t be the same Gd friends 7 the happiness(快乐) and sadness tgether,”says Lydia.
八、阅读表达(共5 小题，计10分)
阅读短文，根据要求完成文后的题目。
When I was in Chengdu, I saw teahuses everywhere n the streets. They are als very famus(著名的) in China There is a saying,“China has the best teahuses in the wrld and Chengdu has the best teahuses in China.”
The service in the teahuses is really friendly. When yu g int a teahuse, the waiters r waitresses greet(打招呼) yu with smiles n their faces and with teapts and cups in their hands. After yu sit dwn, they set the cups n the table and pur(倒) the tea int the cups.
Peple wh g t the teahuses are nt really thirsty(口渴的). They g t a teahuse and will sit there all day lng t talk with each ther. These days, mre and mre peple g t teahuses fr business(生意) talks. Sme teahuses als have prgrams, such as strytelling and Sichuan Opera.
1. What is Chengdu famus fr accrding t the passage? (不超过1 个词)
2. What des the writer think f the service in the teahuses? (不超过3 个词)
3. Why d peple g t the teahuses? (不超过8 个词)
4.请将划线部分翻译成汉语。
5.请给文章拟一个合适的英文题目。
九、写作(共1小题，计10分)
假如你是李华,下周你班要举办一次“My healthy lifestyle(生活方式)”的英文演讲活动。请根据图片及英文提示写一篇演讲稿，介绍自己的生活方式，并呼吁你班同学拥有健康的生活方式。A talent shw
Place
In the schl's meeting 1. .
Time
Frm 8:30 t 2. _________last Friday mrning.
Activities
● Helen tld a funny stry abut a tiger and a 3. _.
● Ann a danced 4. ________in the shw.
● Jeff sang a fantastic sng.
● Miss Hill,a 5.________teacher, drew a picture in five minutes.
要求：1.紧扣图片及英文提示，可适当发挥；
2.词数不少于70，演讲稿的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Hell, everyne! I'm Li Hua. Tday, I'm very happy t share my healthy lifestyle with all f yu
That's all. Thank yu fr listening!2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
初二英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第 Ⅰ 卷(选择题 共 45分)
一、听力选择
1—5 CAACB 6—10 CBCAC 11—15 BCACB
二、阅读理解
16—20 CABCB 21—25 DCBAB 26—30 DAADD
评分说明：
1.第Ⅰ 卷为选择题，共计45分。
2.1-15 小题,每小题1分,计 15分;16-30 小题,每小题2分,计30分。
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题共55 分)
三、听力填词
1. hall 2.11:00/ 11 3. bird 4. beautifully 5. Chinese
评分说明：
1.本题共计5分，每小题1分。
2.第5小题首字母未大写，减0.5分。
四、单词拼写与运用
1. Bth 2. difference/differences 3. enugh 4. umbrella 5. building
6. winner/winners 7. seemed 8. althugh/ thugh
评分说明：
1.本题共计8分，每小题1分。
2.虽与答案不符，但只要单词拼写正确，句意和语法皆无错误，也可给分。
3.第1小题首字母未大写，减0.5分。
五、用所给词的适当形式填空
1. brke 2. wrse 3. clsest 4. twice 5. riding
评分说明：本题共计5分，每小题1分。
六、完成句子
1. Hw ften 2. shrter than 3. I think Larry is the mst hard-wrking.
4. Where, visit 5. bught nthing
评分说明：
1.本题共计10分，每题2分。第3小题2分，其他小题每空1分。
2.第1，3，4小题首字母未大写均扣0.5分。
3.第3 小题有两处以内(包括两处)的错误，扣1分；两处以上的错误，不得分。
七、选词填空
1. hardly 2. shy 3. happy 4. mre utging 5. but 6. misses 7. share
评分说明：
1.本题共计7分，每小题1分。
2.凡与答案不符者，不得分。
八、阅读表达
1. Teahuses.
2. It's friendly./Friendly.
3. They g there fr business talks./ They sit there t talk with each ther./ They g there t relax themselves/...
4.中国拥有世界上最好的茶馆(屋)，成都拥有中国最好的茶馆。
5. Teahuses in Chengdu / Teahuses in China
评分说明：
1.本题共计10分，每小题2分。
2.1~3 小题：能答出关键词，但所给答案不完整或者有语法错误，可给1分。每句首字母未大写减0.5分。
3.第5 小题:能写出 Teahuse(s)即可得 1分。
九、写作(共1题,计10分)
One pssible versin:
Hell , everyne! I'm Li Hua. Tday, I'm very happy t share my health y lifestyle with all f yu. In my free time ,I play sme sprts with my father every day, such as running and playing ping-png. On weekdays,I always g t bed early and get up early. And befre ging t bed,I usually read fr a while. It helps me with my studies. As fr my eating habits,I ften eat fruit and vegetables. Hwever,I never eat ptat chips r drink cffee. I think they are nt gd fr my health.
It's imprtant fr us t have a healthy lifestyle. It is gd fr ur studies and everyday lives. Try t have a health y lifestyle befre it's t late!
That's all. Thank yu fr listening!
(二)评分标准：
1.内容要点：图片提供的要点齐全，每幅图片内容3分，发出呼吁1分。
2.评分时应注意：在关注要点齐全的同时，还需关注内容要点的完整性、应用词汇和语法结构的准确性、上下文的连贯性。如不符合以上注意的要点，可在原要点上适当扣分。
3.书写较差,可扣1~2分。