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    2024年云南省昭通市绥江县中考一模英语试题

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    这是一份2024年云南省昭通市绥江县中考一模英语试题,共10页。

    机密★考试结束前
    (全卷共三部分, 共8页;满分70分, 考试用时120分钟)
    注意事项:
    1. 本卷为试题卷, 考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡相应位置上, 在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
    2. 考试结束后, 请将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
    第一部分英语知识运用(共两节, 满分20分)
    第一节 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分)
    从题中所给的A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
    1. Teenagers shuld learn hw t prtect ________ frm all kinds f danger.
    A. they B. them C. their D. themselves
    2. —Jane, wuld yu like t g t the ________ with me?
    —I'd lve t. We can see sme mdels f Shenzhu XVII.
    A. library B. cinema C. museum D. bank
    3. Harbin is ne f ________ cities fr the turists this winter.
    A. the mst ppular B. mre ppular C. mst ppular D. ppular
    4. — _____ yu _______ the film Kung Fu Panda 4 last night?
    —Yes, I did. And it's really wnderful.
    A. D; watch B. Did; watch C. Has; watched D. Have; watched
    5. Every student is suppsed t ________ a sprts activity fr a healthy life.
    A. cheer up B. give up C. make up D. take up
    6. We can have a better wrld t live in _________ we prtect the envirnment.
    A. as much as B. as lng as C. as sn as D. as far as
    7. —Were yu at hme at 4: 00 yesterday afternn?
    —Yes. I_________ cmputer games with my little brther at that time.
    A. was playing B. am playing C. will play D. played
    8. —________ useful advice yu've given me!
    —I'm glad t hear that.
    A. Hw B. What C. Hw a D. What a
    9. I used t ________TV after dinner, but nw I am used t _________ a walk.
    A. watching; taking B. watching; take C. watch; taking D. watch; take
    10. —Culd yu please tell me ______________?
    —Sure, in Pairs, the capital f France.
    A. when will the 33rd Summer Olympics be held
    B. when the 33rd Summer Olympics will be held
    C. where will the 33rd Summer Olympics be held
    D. where the 33rd Summer Olympics will be held
    第二节 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分, 满分10分)
    从题中所给的A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
    In a twn, there was a wise man. He usually listened t peple's 11 and tried t give them advice. He didn't like it when peple cmplained abut the 12 things ver and ver again.
    The wise man gave gd advice t these peple in rder t help them t slve their prblems. But they 13 really tk his advice. In fact, mst peple just enjyed cmplaining. They didn't want t 14 the wise man.
    The wise man thught f a gd idea. Every time smene came t him 15 their cmplaints, he wuld tell them a funny stry. The first time they heard it, they laughed 16 they came back again with the ld cmplaints, the man wuld 17 them the same ld stry. It became less and less interesting as time went by.
    Finally ne man said, “Wise man, 18 d yu always tell the same stry ver and ver? It isn't funny at all. ”
    The wise man 19, “If yu can't laugh at the same stry ver and ver, then why d yu always cmplain abut the same things ver and ver again? ”
    There is n meaning in wrrying r cmplaining abut. 20 if yu can't r wuldn't slve it. Remember that yu are in charge f yur life. The wrld is what yu make it.
    11. A. wishesB. situatinsC. questinsD. prblems
    12. A. sameB. easyC. niceD. different
    13. A. smetimesB. usuallyC. alwaysD. never
    14. A. talk withB. care frC. listen tD. pint at
    15. A. frB. withC. frmD. withut
    16. A. ThughB. BefreC. UnlessD. When
    17. A. speakB. talkC. tellD. say
    18. A. whyB. hwC. whatD. where
    19. A. askedB. shutedC. answeredD. suggested
    20. A. nthingB. smethingC. anythingD. everything
    第二部分 阅读理解(共三节, 满分30分)
    第一节 (共5小题;每小题1. 5分, 满分7. 5分)
    根据短文内容, 判断正误(正确“T”, 错误“F”), 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
    Every spring, there are sprts meetings at many middle schls. When students n the playgrund crwd int a circle and shut ludly, “One, tw, ne, tw. ”D yu knw what game it is? It is tug f war(拔河).
    Tug f war is a team sprt between tw teams at each end f a rpe. It first came int being in China 2, 400 years ag. It is very ppular in China and many ther cuntries. But in ther cuntries, their tug-f-war match is nt the same as urs. They have eight men fr each team, while we may have the match between tw sides with equal number f men r wmen players. Of curse, they are usually tall, strng and heavy.
    Fr a tug-f-war match, we need a lng thick rpe. Each team stands at ne end f the rpe, hlding it. There is a white line in the middle f the field. Then they try t pull the center f the rpe t each f their wn sides. The winning team is the ne that pulls the ther ver the line.
    Tug f war was nce an Olympic sprting event. It lasted until 1920. Thugh it isn't an Olympic sprt nw, peple in many cuntries like playing it very much.
    21. Tug f war first came int being in China 2, 500 years ag.
    22. In ther cuntries, a tug-f-war team has eight men players.
    23. The team that pulls the ther ver the line is the lsing team.
    24. Nw tug f war is still an Olympic sprt and many peple like playing it.
    25. The passage mainly talks abut a ppular team sprt—tug f war.
    第二节 (共15小题;每小题1分, 满分15分)
    根据短文内容, 从题中所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选出最佳选项, 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
    A
    Nwadays, peple arund the wrld are wrking t help ur earth. Check ut hw the fur
    yung adults made a difference.
    26. Wh started a grup t teach kids abut pandas?
    A. Michael. B. Helen. C. Sally. D. Dale.
    27. Hw ld was Sally when she invented Super E?
    A. 11. B. 12. C. 13. D. 14.
    28. What was the gal f Michael's prject?
    A. T fight plastic pllutin. B. T create electricity.
    C. T prtect pandas in danger. D. T learn abut native plants.
    29. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text?
    A. Dale jined the Ocean Heres Camp last year.
    B. Michael hpes mre peple t care abut pandas.
    C. Sally's inventin is mre harmful t the envirnment.
    D. Helen setup an rganizatin t educate peple abut grwing right plant in right places.
    30. Where can we mst prbably read the passage?
    A. In a strybk. B. In a fd magazine.
    C. In a newspaper. D. In an advertisement.
    B
    One day, a hunter went hunting with his dg. He saw a rabbit running ut f a hle nt far in frnt and quickly raised his gun t sht. The rabbit was hurt. It ran away in fear. The hunter rdered his dg t catch it. The well-trained dg began t run after the rabbit, running very fast and
    full f cnfidence t catch it.
    Hwever, the dg was surprisingly left behind. The rabbit ran s fast that it seemed nt t have been hurt at all. Gradually, the dg culdn't sec the rabbit. At last, when the dg returned empty-handed, the hunter was very angry and blamed it, "Hw useless! Unable t catch an injured rabbit! N supper fr yu. "Feeling sad, the dg tried t explain fr itself, “Thugh I didn't catch it, I had dne my best. ”
    When the rabbit gt hme, all the ther rabbits were surprised at its luck. They asked, “Hw did yu run away frm the dg running after yu? It's unbelievable! "
    The scared rabbit answered, "The dg wuld nly be blamed fr nt catching me at mst, s all it did was t d its best. The situatin is cmpletely different fr me. I wuld surely lse my life if I was caught. I had t g all ut(竭尽全力)! ”
    We can learn a lessn fr ur daily life frm the stry. Have we ever examined urselves and asked whether we really did ur best r went all ut when we lked fr an excuse fr ur failure?
    31. Hw did the dg feel when it began t run after the rabbit?
    A. It felt upset. B. It felt excited
    C. It felt nervus. D. It felt cnfident.
    32. What des the underlined wrd “blamed” in Paragraph 2 mean in Chinese?
    A. 责备 B. 夸奖 C. 表扬 D. 讨厌
    33. Why was the hunter angry with his dg?
    A. Because his dg hurt itself. B. Because his dg was very lazy.
    C. Because his dg didn't catch an injured rabbit. D. Because his dg ran very slwly.
    34. What can we knw frm the passage?
    A. The injured rabbit gt lst. B. The dg will have n dinner.
    C. The injured rabbit lst its life at last. D. The dg was sent t anther place.
    35. What des the stry mainly want t tell us?
    A. Dn't give up when we meet difficulties.
    B. Try t explain fr urselves when we fail.
    C. Nthing is difficult t the men wh will try.
    D. We shuld g all ut instead f lking fr an excuse fr ur failure.
    C
    There are 56 ethnic(民族的)grups in China. Different ethnic grups have their wn special
    cultures. Let's enjy sme f them.
    The Bai peple use a very ld way, tie-dye(扎染), t dye clthes. Tic-dye has a histry f nearly
    1, 500 years. During the Tang and Sng dynasties, peple chse tic-dyed clthes as gifts.
    The Mnglian peple live in the Mnglian yurts(蒙古包). These yurts are large rund tents and their tps lk like umbrellas. They are the traditinal hmes f the Mnglian peple. The
    yurts are usually white because they're made f sheep's wl. And white is a symbl f happiness.
    The Zhuang peple like singing even mre than talking. On the third day f the third Chinese lunar mnth, they hld a big singing festival. It is exciting and wnderful. All the peple can't help singing happily. Men and wmen singers sing in pairs. The winners are the “king", and “queen” f
    singing.
    The Mia peple have a special festival, Mangha Festival. It's in the first Chinese lunar mnth every year. The Mia peple cnsider Mangha as a her wh helped t prtect their hmes. At the festival, yung men dress up like Mangha and tuch thers t express gd wishes.
    36. When did peple chse tie-dyed clthes as gifts?
    A. During the Yuan and Sng dynasties. B. During the Tang and Ming dynasties.
    C. During the Tang and Sng dynasties. D. During the Ming and Qing dynasties.
    37. What's the Mnglian yurt accrding t the text?
    A. A big umbrella. B. A traditinal building.
    C. A sheep's hme. D. A symbl f happiness.
    38. Wh likes singing even mre than talking in this passage?
    A. The Bai peple. B. The Mia peple.
    C. The Zhuang peple. D. The Mnglian peple.
    39. Hw d the Mia peple celebrate Mangha Festival?
    A. By chsing tie-dyed clthes as gifts. B. By prtecting their hmes like a her.
    C. By sending sme gd wishes t thers. D. By dressing up and tuching ther peple.
    40. Which can be the best title fr the passage?
    A. Special Cultures f Sme Ethnic Grups. B. Special Fd f Sme Ethnic Grups.
    C. Special Festivals f Sme Ethnic Grups. D. Special Clthes f Sme Ethnic Grups.
    第三节 (共5小题;每小题1. 5分, 满分7. 5分)
    根据短文内容, 从短文后所给的选项中, 选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 选项中有两项
    为多余选项, 并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
    Flu easily spreads frm ne persn t anther. If yu are weak, yu prbably catch flu easily. D yu knw hw yu can avid flu? 41___________
    Keep in gd health.
    Yu can eat everything yu want but make sure that yur diet is healthy. 42 ________ Mst dctrs suggest drinking lts f fresh fruit juice and water is helpful t avid flu.
    43_____________
    If a member f family r a friend has flu, stay away frm him/her until he/she is well. Flu is very cmmunicable(会传染的). If yu stay with the persn with flu, yu can catch flu easily. Wear a mask(口罩)and avid using things that the persn with flu is using.
    Exercise.
    Exercising will make yu strnger, which means a strnger immune system(免疫系统), t. 44___________ It desn't matter what kind f exercise it is.
    Be happy
    45 _____________Their life isn't stressed ut, s they may be safe frm illness. If yu are unhappy, yu will easily get sick
    Aviding the flu is easy. Just bst(增强)yur immune system and it will take care f the rest.
    A. Have a gd rest
    B. Stay away frm peple with flu.
    C. Happy peple are healthy peple.
    D. Here are sme suggestins fr yu.
    E. Smetimes the flu is just like a cmmn cld.
    F. Exercise ften s that yur bdy will keep healthy.
    G. The healthier yu eat, the better it is fr yu t avid any type f illness arund.
    第三部分 写作(共三节, 满分20分)
    第一节 (共5小题;每小题1分, 满分5分)
    根据句意, 用括号中所给词的适当形式填空, 并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
    46. ______________, I gt tw tickets t the cncert. (Lucky)
    47. Gd learning __________ can increase ur interest in learning. (methd)
    48. The sft music always makes me feel __________ after a day's wrk. (relax)
    49. I lk frward t ________ a trip t Sanya with my family this summer. (take)
    50. The _________ Natinal Cnference n Reading was held in Kunming last mnth. (three)
    第二节 (共5小题;每小题1分, 满分5分)
    将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语, 注意使用适当的形式, 并将答案写在答题卡的相应位
    置上。
    51. Wasting fd is nt a __________ . (好习惯)
    52. _____________, saving water is very necessary. (依我看来)
    53. Lk! My schlbag ____________ Kangkang's. (与……不同)
    54. The ld man decided t __________ his mney t the pr children. (捐赠)
    55. The ____________ is serius these days. We must take actins t deal with it. (食品安全)
    第三节 书面表达(满分10分)
    A Meaningful Schl Activity
    提示:校园生活中, 我们开展了各种各样活动, 如运动会、文艺汇演、班会活动、节日活动、 学科活动等。这些活动都是非常有意义的, 请以“A Meaningful Schl Activity”为题, 用英语写一篇短文。叙述一次你经历过的有意义的校园活动, 并谈谈你的感悟。
    要求:1. 根据所给题目, 写一篇短文, 词数不少于80个;
    2. 语言流畅, 书写规范, 卷面整洁;
    3. 文中不得使用真实姓名, 校名, 否则以零分计;
    4. 请将内容写在答题卡上, 写在本试题卷上无效。
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    绥江县 2024 年初中学业水平考试模拟卷二
    英语 参考答案
    第一部分 英语知识运用(共两节, 每小题 1 分;满分 20 分)
    第一节 1~5: DCABD6~ 10: BABCD
    第二节 11~ 15:DADCB16~20:DCACB
    第二部分 阅读理解(共三节, 21~25 、41~45 , 每小题 1. 5 分;26~40 每小题 1 分, 满分 30 分)
    第一节 21~25:FTFFT
    第二节 26~30:DBADC 31~35:DACBD 36~40:CBCDA
    第三节 41~45:DGBFC
    第三部分 写作(共三节, 46~55 每小题 1 分;书面表达 10 分, 满分 20 分)
    第一节 词形填空
    46. Luckily 47. methds 48. relaxed 49. taking 50. Third/3rd
    第二节 词语翻译
    51. gd habit 52. In my pinin/view 53. is different frm
    54. give away 55. fd safety
    第三节 书面表达
    One pssible versin:
    A Meaningful Schl Activity
    I have lts f schl activities during the three years ’ study. What impressed me mst is the schl charity sale.
    When I was in Grade Eight, ur schl planned t hld a charity sale t help the children in pr areas. The charity sale was held n ur playgrund n May 10th. First f all, we made sme pstcards, bkmarks, and even sme kites. Secndly, we began t sell them. But we felt nervus, then ur teachers came t jin us, gave us sme help and ur class gt nearly 800 yuan in the end. Last but nt the least, we sent the mney t Prject Hpe t help thse pr children.
    What a meaningful experience it was! And I als learn if everyne gives a helping hand t thse in need, the wrld will be much better.
    书面表达评分标准
    一档(9~ 10 分):内容切题、层次清楚、语言流畅、基本无语言表达错误。
    二档(7~ 8 分):内容切题、层次比较清楚、语言比较流畅、语言表达错误较少。 三档(5~ 6 分):内容基本切题、层次不够分明、语言表达错误较多。
    四档(1~ 4 分):有一定的内容、但语言表达错误很多。
    (注意:书面表达语法错误全卷扣分不得超过 2 分;单词拼写错误全卷扣分不得超过 2 分; 抄袭卷中阅读材料的, 抄袭部分不给分。)Saving Pandas
    When Dale was 11, he started a grup t teach kids abut pandas. He als sld
    ty pandas t raise mney t prtect pandas in danger. “I hpe t encurage mre peple t care abut pandas, "he says.
    Creating Energy
    At the age f 12, Sally invented a machine called Super E. It cllects heat frm
    fields t make electricity. Sally says her inventin creates electricity in a way that is less harmful t the envirnment.
    Cleaning Up
    Michael, 13, jined the Ocean Heres Camp last year. He started a prject and picked up plastic waste arund nearby lakes with his friends. The gal f the prject was t fight plastic pllutin.
    Grwing Right
    Helen, 14, set up an rganizatin t educate peple abut grwing right plant in right places. She als wrte a bk t help peple learn what plants are native(本土的)t their area.
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