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湖北省孝感市应城市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中检测英语试题
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这是一份湖北省孝感市应城市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中检测英语试题，共8页。
1．答题前，考生务必将自己所在县（市、区）、学校、姓名、考号填写在试卷上指定的位置。
2．所有题目的答案必须写在答题卡的指定位置，在本卷上答题无效。
3．本试卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
第一卷（共88分）
一、听力测试（共三节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段材料，选出与所听到的内容相符的图片，其中一幅图片是多余的。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。
A. B. C. D. E. F.
1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段长对话。每段对话后面有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段材料后，你将有10或15秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6—7小题。
6. When des Bb play the pian？
A. On Mnday.B. On Friday.C. On weekends.
7. What’s Kate ding nw?
A. Ding her hmewrk.B. Watching TV.C. Cleaning her rm
听第7段材料，回答第8—9小题。
8. Why des Jhn like kalas？
A. Because they are cute.B. Because they are interesting.
C. Because they are scary.
9. Where are lins frm?
A. China.B. Australia.C. Suth Africa.
听第8段材料，回答第10—11小题。
10. Wh ften watches TV n weekends?
A. Cindy.B. David.C. Jane.
11. What may they d this Saturday at last?
A. They may play vlleyball.
B. They may watch the Art Festival.
C. They may g t the clthes stre.
听第9段材料，回答第12—14小题。
12. What time des Judy g t schl?
A. At abut 6:30.B. At abut 7:00.C. At abut 7:30.
13. Hw des Judy g t schl?
A. By bus.B. By subway.C. By bike.
14. Hw lng des it take the by t schl?
A. 10 minutes.B. 20 minutes.C. 30 minutes
听第10段材料，回答第15—17小题。
15. Where is the wman?
A. At a fruit stre.B. At a clthes stre.C. At a bk stre.
16. What des the wman think f the red skirt?
A. It’s t shrt.B. It’s t lng.C. It’s t big.
17. Hw much will the wman pay?
A. 35 dllars.B. 20 dllars.C. 11 dllars.
听第11段材料，回答第18—20小题。
18. What is n January 5th?
A. The schl trip.B. English Day.C. Tm’s grandpa’s birthday.
19. Where des Tm g n the last day f this mnth?
A. Shanghai.B. Beijing.C. Wuhan.
20. When can Tm get t schl?
A. On January 3rd.B. On January 5th.C. On January 6th.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，选择能回答所提问题的最佳选项。听完短文后，你将有30秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
21. Is Mr. Black in China nw?
A. We dn’t knw.B. N, he isn’t.C. Yes, he is.
22. When desn’t Mr. Black g t wrk?
A. On Sunday.B. On Saturday.C. On Mnday.
23. Where des Mrs. Black wrk?
A. In a library.B. In a schl.C. In a club.
24. Why des Mrs. Black wrk hard?
A. Because she has t much time.
B. Because she needs mney (钱).
C. Because she likes her wrk and students.
25. What des Mrs. Black usually d after class?
A. She plays vlleyball.B. She plays games with students.
C. She learns Chinese.
二、选择填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
26. 从A、B、C、D中选出划线部分读音不相同的选项。
A. runB. cuteC. drumD. study
27. —D yu g t schl ______ ft?
—N, I usually take ______ subway.
A. by; theB. n; theC. by; /D. n; /
28. —Where is Lisa？
—She is ging t the ______ t buy sme vegetables.
A. zB. kitchenC. supermarketD. pl
29. —Excuse me, I can’t fllw yu. Can yu ______ it in English?
—Srry, I can’t ______ English.
A. say; speakB. speak; tellC. talk; sayD. tell; speak
30. —It usually takes Lisa tw hurs ______ the vilin every day.
—she needs t practice mre fr it.
A. playB. playsC. playingD. t play
31. —Des the apple ______ gd？
—Yes. Yu can have anther ne.
A. sundB. eatC. drinkD. taste
32. —Can yu swim?—______. I think it’s easy.
A. N, I can’tB. Yes, I canC. N, I dn’tD. Yes, I d
33. — Excuse me. ______ is it frm yur hme t schl?
— Abut ten minutes’ walk.
A. Hw farB. Hw lngC. Hw ldD. Hw much
34. —Where are yu, Mm?— I’m in the kitchen. I’m ______.
A. ding the dishesB. watching TVC. making my bedD. brushing my teeth
35. —Becky, d yu want t jin me fr dinner? We can eat ut.
—______. Let’s g!
A. Nt muchB. I’m nt sureC. See yu thenD. Yes, I’d lve t
三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Little Mary’s grandparents have a farm (农场). On the farm there are many kinds f 36 , like dgs and cats. She likes t play with them because they can make her 37 . On the farm there 38 als a little elephant. It has n mther. And it never plays with 39 animals. It always walks arund by itself. Mary thinks this is why she likes it s 40 . Many times, Mary 41 the elephant hw srry she is fr the death (死亡) f its 42 . She lves talking with it and the elephant becmes 43 t Mary. When it sees Mary n the farm, it runs up t her 44 a little dg. Mary always gives sme 45 t it. Bananas are its favrite. Smetimes it 46 her int a wd (树林). There Mary sits n the grund and 47 a bk; the little elephant stands by Mary. Her grandfather always asks her, “ 48 des the elephant like yu s much?” “Oh, because I lve it, Grandpa.” Mary answers. Grandpa thinks Mary is 49 . Animals are ur 50 . We shuld lve them.
36. A. fruitsB. treesC. animalsD. vegetables
37. A. sadB. happyC. srryD. bred
38. A. isB. amC. areD. be
39. A. antherB. therC. thersD. the thers
40. A. muchB. manyC. farD. great
41. A. speaksB. tellsC. saysD. talks
42. A. friendB. mtherC. teacherD. brther
43. A. afraidB. interestingC. smartD. friendly
44. A. likeB. nC. frD. frm
45. A. timeB. mneyC. fdD. luck
46. A. helpsB. wantsC. wishesD. fllws
47. A. readsB. buysC. seesD. draws
48. A. WhatB. HwC. WhyD. When
49. A. funnyB. rightC. strngD. yung
50. A. petsB. childrenC. lifeD. friends
四、阅读理解（共19小题；每小题2分，满分38分）
第一节 阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共14小题；每小题2分，满分28分）
A
Hi, I am Jerry. I am a small muse. There are fur members (成员) in my family. They are my parents, my brther and me. Every evening we have t g ut t lk fr (寻找) fd. There are t many rules in my family and I dn’t feel happy.
I dn’t like the rules. But I have t fllw them.
Here are the rules.
△Dn’t g ut alne. G ut with family members.
△Dn’t g ut in the day.
△Dn’t make friends with dgs.
△Lk everywhere first befre ging utside.
△Dn’t eat utside.
△G t bed in the mrning and get up in the evening.
△Dn’t fight.
51. Jerry and his family have t g ut t ______ every evening.
A. lk everywhere.B. eat vegetableC. lk fr fdD. make friends with dgs
52. The underlined wrd (划线单词) “them” refer t (指的是) ______.
A. Jerry’s parentsB. the rulesC. the dgsD. the members
53. What can Jerry d?
A. G ut alne.B. Make friends with a dg.
C. Eat utside.D. Get up in the evening.
54. What is the passage abut?
A. Family rules.B. Schl rules.C. Making friends.D. Family members.
B
Here is an unusual (特别的) student in a schl in Kenya. He is Steve and he is 85 years ld. “I can’t read r write, and nw this is my chance t learn. It’s very imprtant t me,” says the ld man.
Like his classmates, Steve arrives at the schl at 8:00 every mrning. He wears the schl unifrm — a white shirt, blue shrts and black shes. “Steve is a very gd student. He wrks very hard in class,” his teacher Eric says. “He is s smart. Nw he can read newspapers.”
Jseph is 8 years ld. He and Steve are classmates. Jseph says, “Nw Steve is my friend. He tells me interesting stries abut the ld times.” Charles is in Steve’s class t. He says, “Steve is very friendly. He’s like a grandfather t me.”
Steve really lves his schl life. He says, “I’m ld, but learning makes me yung.”
55. The underlined wrd “chance” means (划线单词意思是) “______”。
A. 责任B. 方法C. 交易D. 机会
56. What clr shirt des Steve wear t schl?
A. Blue.B. White.C. Black.D. Brwn.
57. What des Eric think f Steve?
A. Smart.B. Friendly.C. Interesting.D. Imprtant.
58. Wh is Charles?
A. Steve’s sn.B. Steve’s grandsn.C. Steve’s teacher.D. Steve’s classmate.
59. The best title f the passage is (本文的最佳标题是) ______.
A. An ld studentB. An unusual class
C. The fun f learningD. Stries in a Kenyan schl
C
Nick and Peter are brthers. They are frm Lndn. Nick is 14 years ld and Peter is 12 years ld. They can speak bth English and French very well. Nw they live in China with their parents. They are studying Chinese in N. 11 Middle Schl in Beijing. Their father, Mr. Miller, is a dctr. Their mther, Mrs. Miller, is a teacher. Mrs. Miller teaches English at a primary schl (小学) in Beijing. And she is very busy with her wrk every mrning. Their 4-year-ld sister is t yung t g t schl. Mr. Miller drives her t the kindergarten (幼儿园) in his car.
It’s 6: 10 in the mrning. Nick gets ut f bed and sits dwn at his desk. First, he checks his e-mails. Nick has an e-friend and he writes t him every mrning n his cmputer. Then he has breakfast. He ften has sme bread and milk. After fifty minutes, Nick leaves hme with his brther.
Each schl day, Nick and Peter have fur classes in the mrning and tw in the afternn. After schl, Peter plays sccer fr tw hurs at schl. He wants t be a great sccer player. And Nick ges hme t d his hmewrk. He des well in his schl wrk. In the evening, Peter and Nick talk with their friends in Chinese n the cmputer fr 30 minutes. They say learning Chinese well can help them knw mre abut China.
The family all think China is their secnd hmetwn and enjy being with friendly Chinese peple.
60. Where are Nick’s family frm?
A. America.B. Canada.C. England.D. China.
61. Hw many brthers and sisters des Nick have in his family?
A. 2.B. 3.C. 4.D. 5.
62. Wh takes Nick’s sister t the kindergarten?
A. Nick.B. Peter.C. Mr. Miller.D. Mrs. Miller.
63. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Mrs. Miller teaches French in a primary schl in Beijing.
B. Peter desn’t d his hmewrk at first after schl.
C. The family all speak Chinese well.
D. Nick has breakfast first every mrning.
64. What d yu knw abut Peter?
A. Peter is tw years lder than Nick.
B. Peter leaves hme at 7:10 am.
C. Peter has six classes every schl day.
D. Peter talks with his teachers in Chinese n the cmputer every day.
第二节 阅读还原（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。（提示：每个选项只用一次，选项中有一项为多余选项）
Jeff has a pet. 65.______ It’s white. Jeff likes it very much. 66.______ It can play ball games and it can buy newspapers fr Jeff. Every mrning, Jeff puts ne dllar int the dg’s muth (嘴) and it ges t the shp t buy newspapers fr him.
Jeff has a gd friend — Mark. 67.______ Mark desn’t believe (相信) it. Tday, Mark cmes t see Jeff in the mrning. Mark says, “68.______ I dn’t think it can buy newspapers.” “Have a try (试一下).”says Jeff.
Then Mark puts mney int the dg’s muth and the dg walks ut. After an hur, the dg desn’t cme back. “69.______” Jeff asks. “Five dllars.” “That’s t bad!” says Jeff, “It is watching a mvie nw!”
65. ______ 66. ______ 67. ______ 68. ______ 69. ______
第二卷（共32分）
五、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。（每空不超过三个词）
Hell, Jane! I 70.______ (visit) my aunt in Thailand nw. She is wrking here. It’s really a 71.______ [ˈbju:tɪfl] place. My aunt wants me t have 72.______ gd time here.
Yu can d a lt here. I like utdr activities like 73.______ (swim), biking and diving (潜水). All f these are wnderful. I visit many temples (寺庙) and learn abut 74.______ (they) histry. There is a water festival. Peple can play water 75.w______ thers because they think water can thrw away bad things. I als shp at the special market. It’s n a river and I ften see a man. He always 76.______ (sell) his things t ther peple.
Elephant is ne f Thailand’s 77.______ (symbl). The 78.______ (ne) flag f Thailand had a white elephant n it. Elephants can paint and dance.
I miss yu very much. I like Thailand and my aunt’s family, 79.______ there is still “n place like hme”.
70. ______ 71. ______ 72. ______ 73. ______ 74. ______
75. ______ 76. ______ 77. ______ 78. ______ 79. ______
六、完成句子（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
阅读下列各小题，根据汉语及句末括号内的动词提示，用相关动词短语的适当形式完成句子。（每空不超过四个词）
80. 她不喜欢猫是因为它有点无聊。(kind)
She desn’t like cats because it’s _______________ bring.
81. 我们学校的老师对我们很严格。（strict）
In ur schl, the teachers _______________ us.
82. 你觉得鲍勃的梦想能实现吗？(cme)
D yu think Bb’s dream can _______________?
83. 你擅长下棋吗？(play)
Are yu gd at _______________?
84. 现在朱莉正在她屋子里听音乐。(listen)
Nw Julie _______________ music in her rm.
85. 不要上课迟到，这点很重要。(late)
Dn’t _______________ class. It’s very imprtant.
86. 人们砍掉了许多树，所以很多动物正失去它们的家园．(cut)
Peple _______________ many trees, s many animals are lsing their hmes．
七、书面表达（本题共15分）
假如你是Lucy，你来到了一所新学校，你的老师请你用英语做一下自我介绍。请根据以下提示，写一篇70词左右的发言稿。
提示：1．你的个人爱好和特长；2．你的日常活动；3．你的出行方式；4．你最喜欢的动物。
Hell! My name is Lucy. _______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
.
应城市（2022—2023）第二学期期中考试七年级
英语参考答案
听力部分
1—5 EDFBA 6—10 CAACA 11—15 BACBB 16—20 ABAAC 21—25 CABCC
笔试部分
26—30 BBCAD31—35 DBAAD
36—40 CBABA41—45 BBDAC46—50 DACBD
51—54 CBDA55—59 DBADA
60—64 CADBC65—69 ADECF
70. am visiting 71. beautiful 72. a 73. swimming 74. their
75. with 76. sells 77. symbls 78. first 79. but
80. kind f 81. are (very) strict with 82. cme true 83. playing chess
84. is listening t 85. arrive /be late fr 86. cut dwn
书面表达（略）
My name is Lucy. I’m 14 years ld, I’m frm China. (基本信息) I like playing basketball because it’s very relaxing.【高分句型一】I als like playing the guitar, and I play it very well. My favrite subject is English. I think it’s easy fr me. I’m gd at math, t. (爱好和擅长的科目) And my favrite animals are cats because they are lvely and friendly. (喜欢的动物及原因) I always get up at 6:30, I g t schl at 7:00. It’s abut five kilmeters frm my hme t schl. It takes me 25 minutes by bike. I like riding a bike because it’s gd fr my health.【高分句型二】
注意：以上答案中，首字母未按要求大写的每处扣0.5分A. It’s a dg.
B. He asks Mark t see his dg.
C. I can give yur dg mney.
D. He thinks the dg is very smart.
E. Jeff tells Mark abut his smart dg.
F. Hw much mney d yu give the dg?
1．答题前，考生务必将自己所在县（市、区）、学校、姓名、考号填写在试卷上指定的位置。
2．所有题目的答案必须写在答题卡的指定位置，在本卷上答题无效。
3．本试卷满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
第一卷（共88分）
一、听力测试（共三节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段材料，选出与所听到的内容相符的图片，其中一幅图片是多余的。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。
A. B. C. D. E. F.
1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段长对话。每段对话后面有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段材料后，你将有10或15秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6—7小题。
6. When des Bb play the pian？
A. On Mnday.B. On Friday.C. On weekends.
7. What’s Kate ding nw?
A. Ding her hmewrk.B. Watching TV.C. Cleaning her rm
听第7段材料，回答第8—9小题。
8. Why des Jhn like kalas？
A. Because they are cute.B. Because they are interesting.
C. Because they are scary.
9. Where are lins frm?
A. China.B. Australia.C. Suth Africa.
听第8段材料，回答第10—11小题。
10. Wh ften watches TV n weekends?
A. Cindy.B. David.C. Jane.
11. What may they d this Saturday at last?
A. They may play vlleyball.
B. They may watch the Art Festival.
C. They may g t the clthes stre.
听第9段材料，回答第12—14小题。
12. What time des Judy g t schl?
A. At abut 6:30.B. At abut 7:00.C. At abut 7:30.
13. Hw des Judy g t schl?
A. By bus.B. By subway.C. By bike.
14. Hw lng des it take the by t schl?
A. 10 minutes.B. 20 minutes.C. 30 minutes
听第10段材料，回答第15—17小题。
15. Where is the wman?
A. At a fruit stre.B. At a clthes stre.C. At a bk stre.
16. What des the wman think f the red skirt?
A. It’s t shrt.B. It’s t lng.C. It’s t big.
17. Hw much will the wman pay?
A. 35 dllars.B. 20 dllars.C. 11 dllars.
听第11段材料，回答第18—20小题。
18. What is n January 5th?
A. The schl trip.B. English Day.C. Tm’s grandpa’s birthday.
19. Where des Tm g n the last day f this mnth?
A. Shanghai.B. Beijing.C. Wuhan.
20. When can Tm get t schl?
A. On January 3rd.B. On January 5th.C. On January 6th.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面一篇短文。根据你所听到的短文内容，选择能回答所提问题的最佳选项。听完短文后，你将有30秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
21. Is Mr. Black in China nw?
A. We dn’t knw.B. N, he isn’t.C. Yes, he is.
22. When desn’t Mr. Black g t wrk?
A. On Sunday.B. On Saturday.C. On Mnday.
23. Where des Mrs. Black wrk?
A. In a library.B. In a schl.C. In a club.
24. Why des Mrs. Black wrk hard?
A. Because she has t much time.
B. Because she needs mney (钱).
C. Because she likes her wrk and students.
25. What des Mrs. Black usually d after class?
A. She plays vlleyball.B. She plays games with students.
C. She learns Chinese.
二、选择填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
26. 从A、B、C、D中选出划线部分读音不相同的选项。
A. runB. cuteC. drumD. study
27. —D yu g t schl ______ ft?
—N, I usually take ______ subway.
A. by; theB. n; theC. by; /D. n; /
28. —Where is Lisa？
—She is ging t the ______ t buy sme vegetables.
A. zB. kitchenC. supermarketD. pl
29. —Excuse me, I can’t fllw yu. Can yu ______ it in English?
—Srry, I can’t ______ English.
A. say; speakB. speak; tellC. talk; sayD. tell; speak
30. —It usually takes Lisa tw hurs ______ the vilin every day.
—she needs t practice mre fr it.
A. playB. playsC. playingD. t play
31. —Des the apple ______ gd？
—Yes. Yu can have anther ne.
A. sundB. eatC. drinkD. taste
32. —Can yu swim?—______. I think it’s easy.
A. N, I can’tB. Yes, I canC. N, I dn’tD. Yes, I d
33. — Excuse me. ______ is it frm yur hme t schl?
— Abut ten minutes’ walk.
A. Hw farB. Hw lngC. Hw ldD. Hw much
34. —Where are yu, Mm?— I’m in the kitchen. I’m ______.
A. ding the dishesB. watching TVC. making my bedD. brushing my teeth
35. —Becky, d yu want t jin me fr dinner? We can eat ut.
—______. Let’s g!
A. Nt muchB. I’m nt sureC. See yu thenD. Yes, I’d lve t
三、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Little Mary’s grandparents have a farm (农场). On the farm there are many kinds f 36 , like dgs and cats. She likes t play with them because they can make her 37 . On the farm there 38 als a little elephant. It has n mther. And it never plays with 39 animals. It always walks arund by itself. Mary thinks this is why she likes it s 40 . Many times, Mary 41 the elephant hw srry she is fr the death (死亡) f its 42 . She lves talking with it and the elephant becmes 43 t Mary. When it sees Mary n the farm, it runs up t her 44 a little dg. Mary always gives sme 45 t it. Bananas are its favrite. Smetimes it 46 her int a wd (树林). There Mary sits n the grund and 47 a bk; the little elephant stands by Mary. Her grandfather always asks her, “ 48 des the elephant like yu s much?” “Oh, because I lve it, Grandpa.” Mary answers. Grandpa thinks Mary is 49 . Animals are ur 50 . We shuld lve them.
36. A. fruitsB. treesC. animalsD. vegetables
37. A. sadB. happyC. srryD. bred
38. A. isB. amC. areD. be
39. A. antherB. therC. thersD. the thers
40. A. muchB. manyC. farD. great
41. A. speaksB. tellsC. saysD. talks
42. A. friendB. mtherC. teacherD. brther
43. A. afraidB. interestingC. smartD. friendly
44. A. likeB. nC. frD. frm
45. A. timeB. mneyC. fdD. luck
46. A. helpsB. wantsC. wishesD. fllws
47. A. readsB. buysC. seesD. draws
48. A. WhatB. HwC. WhyD. When
49. A. funnyB. rightC. strngD. yung
50. A. petsB. childrenC. lifeD. friends
四、阅读理解（共19小题；每小题2分，满分38分）
第一节 阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共14小题；每小题2分，满分28分）
A
Hi, I am Jerry. I am a small muse. There are fur members (成员) in my family. They are my parents, my brther and me. Every evening we have t g ut t lk fr (寻找) fd. There are t many rules in my family and I dn’t feel happy.
I dn’t like the rules. But I have t fllw them.
Here are the rules.
△Dn’t g ut alne. G ut with family members.
△Dn’t g ut in the day.
△Dn’t make friends with dgs.
△Lk everywhere first befre ging utside.
△Dn’t eat utside.
△G t bed in the mrning and get up in the evening.
△Dn’t fight.
51. Jerry and his family have t g ut t ______ every evening.
A. lk everywhere.B. eat vegetableC. lk fr fdD. make friends with dgs
52. The underlined wrd (划线单词) “them” refer t (指的是) ______.
A. Jerry’s parentsB. the rulesC. the dgsD. the members
53. What can Jerry d?
A. G ut alne.B. Make friends with a dg.
C. Eat utside.D. Get up in the evening.
54. What is the passage abut?
A. Family rules.B. Schl rules.C. Making friends.D. Family members.
B
Here is an unusual (特别的) student in a schl in Kenya. He is Steve and he is 85 years ld. “I can’t read r write, and nw this is my chance t learn. It’s very imprtant t me,” says the ld man.
Like his classmates, Steve arrives at the schl at 8:00 every mrning. He wears the schl unifrm — a white shirt, blue shrts and black shes. “Steve is a very gd student. He wrks very hard in class,” his teacher Eric says. “He is s smart. Nw he can read newspapers.”
Jseph is 8 years ld. He and Steve are classmates. Jseph says, “Nw Steve is my friend. He tells me interesting stries abut the ld times.” Charles is in Steve’s class t. He says, “Steve is very friendly. He’s like a grandfather t me.”
Steve really lves his schl life. He says, “I’m ld, but learning makes me yung.”
55. The underlined wrd “chance” means (划线单词意思是) “______”。
A. 责任B. 方法C. 交易D. 机会
56. What clr shirt des Steve wear t schl?
A. Blue.B. White.C. Black.D. Brwn.
57. What des Eric think f Steve?
A. Smart.B. Friendly.C. Interesting.D. Imprtant.
58. Wh is Charles?
A. Steve’s sn.B. Steve’s grandsn.C. Steve’s teacher.D. Steve’s classmate.
59. The best title f the passage is (本文的最佳标题是) ______.
A. An ld studentB. An unusual class
C. The fun f learningD. Stries in a Kenyan schl
C
Nick and Peter are brthers. They are frm Lndn. Nick is 14 years ld and Peter is 12 years ld. They can speak bth English and French very well. Nw they live in China with their parents. They are studying Chinese in N. 11 Middle Schl in Beijing. Their father, Mr. Miller, is a dctr. Their mther, Mrs. Miller, is a teacher. Mrs. Miller teaches English at a primary schl (小学) in Beijing. And she is very busy with her wrk every mrning. Their 4-year-ld sister is t yung t g t schl. Mr. Miller drives her t the kindergarten (幼儿园) in his car.
It’s 6: 10 in the mrning. Nick gets ut f bed and sits dwn at his desk. First, he checks his e-mails. Nick has an e-friend and he writes t him every mrning n his cmputer. Then he has breakfast. He ften has sme bread and milk. After fifty minutes, Nick leaves hme with his brther.
Each schl day, Nick and Peter have fur classes in the mrning and tw in the afternn. After schl, Peter plays sccer fr tw hurs at schl. He wants t be a great sccer player. And Nick ges hme t d his hmewrk. He des well in his schl wrk. In the evening, Peter and Nick talk with their friends in Chinese n the cmputer fr 30 minutes. They say learning Chinese well can help them knw mre abut China.
The family all think China is their secnd hmetwn and enjy being with friendly Chinese peple.
60. Where are Nick’s family frm?
A. America.B. Canada.C. England.D. China.
61. Hw many brthers and sisters des Nick have in his family?
A. 2.B. 3.C. 4.D. 5.
62. Wh takes Nick’s sister t the kindergarten?
A. Nick.B. Peter.C. Mr. Miller.D. Mrs. Miller.
63. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Mrs. Miller teaches French in a primary schl in Beijing.
B. Peter desn’t d his hmewrk at first after schl.
C. The family all speak Chinese well.
D. Nick has breakfast first every mrning.
64. What d yu knw abut Peter?
A. Peter is tw years lder than Nick.
B. Peter leaves hme at 7:10 am.
C. Peter has six classes every schl day.
D. Peter talks with his teachers in Chinese n the cmputer every day.
第二节 阅读还原（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。（提示：每个选项只用一次，选项中有一项为多余选项）
Jeff has a pet. 65.______ It’s white. Jeff likes it very much. 66.______ It can play ball games and it can buy newspapers fr Jeff. Every mrning, Jeff puts ne dllar int the dg’s muth (嘴) and it ges t the shp t buy newspapers fr him.
Jeff has a gd friend — Mark. 67.______ Mark desn’t believe (相信) it. Tday, Mark cmes t see Jeff in the mrning. Mark says, “68.______ I dn’t think it can buy newspapers.” “Have a try (试一下).”says Jeff.
Then Mark puts mney int the dg’s muth and the dg walks ut. After an hur, the dg desn’t cme back. “69.______” Jeff asks. “Five dllars.” “That’s t bad!” says Jeff, “It is watching a mvie nw!”
65. ______ 66. ______ 67. ______ 68. ______ 69. ______
第二卷（共32分）
五、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。（每空不超过三个词）
Hell, Jane! I 70.______ (visit) my aunt in Thailand nw. She is wrking here. It’s really a 71.______ [ˈbju:tɪfl] place. My aunt wants me t have 72.______ gd time here.
Yu can d a lt here. I like utdr activities like 73.______ (swim), biking and diving (潜水). All f these are wnderful. I visit many temples (寺庙) and learn abut 74.______ (they) histry. There is a water festival. Peple can play water 75.w______ thers because they think water can thrw away bad things. I als shp at the special market. It’s n a river and I ften see a man. He always 76.______ (sell) his things t ther peple.
Elephant is ne f Thailand’s 77.______ (symbl). The 78.______ (ne) flag f Thailand had a white elephant n it. Elephants can paint and dance.
I miss yu very much. I like Thailand and my aunt’s family, 79.______ there is still “n place like hme”.
70. ______ 71. ______ 72. ______ 73. ______ 74. ______
75. ______ 76. ______ 77. ______ 78. ______ 79. ______
六、完成句子（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
阅读下列各小题，根据汉语及句末括号内的动词提示，用相关动词短语的适当形式完成句子。（每空不超过四个词）
80. 她不喜欢猫是因为它有点无聊。(kind)
She desn’t like cats because it’s _______________ bring.
81. 我们学校的老师对我们很严格。（strict）
In ur schl, the teachers _______________ us.
82. 你觉得鲍勃的梦想能实现吗？(cme)
D yu think Bb’s dream can _______________?
83. 你擅长下棋吗？(play)
Are yu gd at _______________?
84. 现在朱莉正在她屋子里听音乐。(listen)
Nw Julie _______________ music in her rm.
85. 不要上课迟到，这点很重要。(late)
Dn’t _______________ class. It’s very imprtant.
86. 人们砍掉了许多树，所以很多动物正失去它们的家园．(cut)
Peple _______________ many trees, s many animals are lsing their hmes．
七、书面表达（本题共15分）
假如你是Lucy，你来到了一所新学校，你的老师请你用英语做一下自我介绍。请根据以下提示，写一篇70词左右的发言稿。
提示：1．你的个人爱好和特长；2．你的日常活动；3．你的出行方式；4．你最喜欢的动物。
Hell! My name is Lucy. _______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
.
应城市（2022—2023）第二学期期中考试七年级
英语参考答案
听力部分
1—5 EDFBA 6—10 CAACA 11—15 BACBB 16—20 ABAAC 21—25 CABCC
笔试部分
26—30 BBCAD31—35 DBAAD
36—40 CBABA41—45 BBDAC46—50 DACBD
51—54 CBDA55—59 DBADA
60—64 CADBC65—69 ADECF
70. am visiting 71. beautiful 72. a 73. swimming 74. their
75. with 76. sells 77. symbls 78. first 79. but
80. kind f 81. are (very) strict with 82. cme true 83. playing chess
84. is listening t 85. arrive /be late fr 86. cut dwn
书面表达（略）
My name is Lucy. I’m 14 years ld, I’m frm China. (基本信息) I like playing basketball because it’s very relaxing.【高分句型一】I als like playing the guitar, and I play it very well. My favrite subject is English. I think it’s easy fr me. I’m gd at math, t. (爱好和擅长的科目) And my favrite animals are cats because they are lvely and friendly. (喜欢的动物及原因) I always get up at 6:30, I g t schl at 7:00. It’s abut five kilmeters frm my hme t schl. It takes me 25 minutes by bike. I like riding a bike because it’s gd fr my health.【高分句型二】
注意：以上答案中，首字母未按要求大写的每处扣0.5分A. It’s a dg.
B. He asks Mark t see his dg.
C. I can give yur dg mney.
D. He thinks the dg is very smart.
E. Jeff tells Mark abut his smart dg.
F. Hw much mney d yu give the dg?
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