安徽省桐城市第二中学2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份安徽省桐城市第二中学2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共10页。
考试时间：120分钟 满分：120分
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话、每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳进项。每段对话读两遍。
1. Hw is the weather nw?
A. B. C.
2. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. B. C.
3. What des the wman think f the pem?
A. Interesting.B. Wnderful.C. Beautiful.
4. What’s the man ding nw?
A. Ging swimming.B. Reading stries.C. Ging shpping.
5. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a restaurant.B. In a shp.C. In a bank.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6. What will Jack d this Saturday?
A. He will play basketball.B. He will g t the library.C. He will watch a mvie.
7. When will they meet?
A. At 1:00 p.m.B. At 2:00 p.m.C. At 3:00 p.m.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. Wh is answering the phne?
A. Mike’s classmate.B. Mike.C. Mike’s father.
9. Hw lng will the talk last?
A. Tw hurs.B. Three hurs.C. Fur hurs.
10. Where is the meeting rm?
A. On the secnd flr.B. On the third flr.C. On the furth flr.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容；在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Hw ld is the speaker’s grandma?
A. 70.B. 75.C. 80.
12. Where did they plan t celebrate the birthday?
A. In a cinema.B. In a restaurant.C. At the speaker’s hme.
13. Wh cked ndles fr Grandma?
A. The speaker’s mm.B. The speaker’s cusin.C. The speaker’s sister.
14. Hw did the speaker’s grandma feel abut her birthday?
A. Excited.B. Surprised.C. Tired.
15. What did Grandma wish fr during the birthday party?
A. She wanted t learn t make scarves.
B. She wanted t take mre trips with her family.
C. She wanted t have mre family celebratins.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Knwledge is wealth fr us because f its great ________ in ur life.
A. ruleB. valueC. hpeD. cause
22. Thanks fr standing ________ me when I was in truble, and nw I can face the prblems bravely.
A. abveB. frmC. verD. beside
23. A dictinary is quite ________ in language learning.
A. helpfulB. cheapC. smthD. lucky
24. —We have been watching TV fr ________ tw hurs. Hw abut taking a walk?
—Gd idea.
A. usuallyB. mstlyC. nearlyD. hardly
25. —What’s the name f this tea? It tastes fantastic.
—It’s Huangshan Mafeng, a kind f green tea. It ________ in Anhui.
A. prducesB. is prducedC. prducedD. was prduced
26. —Is there a high-speed train t Beijing tnight?
—There ________ be ne. But yu’d better make a call t make sure.
A. mightB. willC. canD. must
27. Mr. Wang’s speech aims t ________ mre peple t help the children in pr areas.
A. take ffB. call nC. put upD. leave ut
28. My friend and I talked abut the persns und things ________ we culd remember.
A. thatB. whC. whatD. which
29. —Has Sam finished writing the reprt?
—I have n idea. He ________ it when I saw him yesterday afternn.
A. desB. has dneC. was dingD. did
30. —I feel nervus befre the cmpetitin.
—________. Yu’re the best.
A. With pleasureB. Gd jbC. N prblemD. Take it easy
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Dear Dad,
Hw are yu recently? I’m writing this letter t say srry fr nt understanding yur wrk in the past.
In my mind, yu were always 31 . Yu wrked fr hurs in the hspital and were always n call. 32 yu were patient and kind with patients, yu were always strict with me.
I didn’t 33 cmplaining (抱怨) until last week fr yu had less time t stay with me. When we were ut shpping tgether, we 34 smene shuting fr help. Withut thinking, yu rushed ver and acted quickly, checking the persn and prviding emergency care (急救护理). Later, the man was taken t the hspital 35 . It was then that I knew hw prud I was t have a father wh is a 36 .
My mm ften says that yu are the backbne (支柱) f ur family. When I lk back at the ld days, I 37 that it is true. Yu are an excellent listener. Yu encurage me t 38 when I am dwn and always prvide me with the best advice. Besides, yu are a 39 in my life and teach me the imprtance f wrking hard and fllwing my dreams. Yu shw me that we can all make a 40 t the wrld.
At last, I want t say the mst fitting wrd t describe yu is “perfect”—yu are and will always be.
Yurs,
Anna
31. A. niceB. busyC. gladD. funny
32. A. BecauseB. UnlessC. SinceD. Althugh
33. A. enjyB. stpC. allwD. mind
34. A. heardB. believedC. thughtD. learned
35. A. slwlyB. safelyC. plitelyD. warmly
36. A. teacherB. scientistC. dctrD. musician
37. A. imagineB. realizeC. regretD. guess
38. A. g awayB. cheer upC. shw ffD. hand ut
39. A. hstB. visitrC. relativeD. guide
40. A. differenceB. decisinC. wishD. prmise
B
Niejiazhuang Village in Weifang is famus fr clred clay sculpture handicraft (泥塑手工艺), which dates back t the Ming Dynasty. The Weifang gvernment has 41 lcal peple t learn traditinal handicraft and make mre mney t get rid f pverty (贫困).
Nie Peng is a yung villager in Niejiazhuang. He is 42 abut clay sculpture handicraft. He began learning it frm his father when he was a child. He has led lts f yung craftsmen (手艺人) in and near his 43 t make clred clay sculptures and the handicraft has becme an imprtant way fr lcal peple t get 44 than befre.
The 45 is a typical subject fr clred clay sculptures. Nie started t learn t make clay tigers in 2010, the Year f the Tiger. Over these years, he has seen the 46 f the art frm. At first, the clay tigers were all f the same small 47 . Nw there are tigers f different sizes and the largest can be ver tw meters tall. The tigers used t be clred pink and green, 48 nw have becme mre clrful.
Tday Nie 49 the future f clay sculpture handicraft and encurages yung craftsmen t create mre wrks. He 50 hpes that the sculpture handicraft will be passed dwn t the next generatin (一代人).
41. A. warnedB. frcedC. invitedD. encuraged
42. A. upsetB. carefulC. crazyD. wrried
43. A. twnB. villageC. cityD. capital
44. A. biggerB. harderC. richerD. luckier
45. A. rabbitB. linC. mnkeyD. tiger
46. A. develpmentB. spreadC. intrductinD. reasn
47. A. sizeB. nameC. clrD. shape
48. A. sB. andC. butD. if
49. A. hears frmB. cares frC. lks atD. sticks t
50. A. reallyB. quicklyC. sadlyD. finally
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Excuse me, I’m new here. 51
B: Yes. G alng this street and turn left at the secnd crssing. 52
A: Hw far is it?
B: It’s nly abut 300 meters. 53
A: Thank yu very much.
B: Yu’re welcme. By the way, where are yu frm?
A: I’m frm New Zealand. 54
B: N. But I hpe t g there ne day. 55
A: Me t. Gdbye!
B: Bye!
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分45分）
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每题2分，满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
56. What can readers draw n their psters?
A. B. C. D.
57. Which is the last day t receive a letter with a reader’s pster?
A. April 22nd, 2024.B. April 21st, 2024.
C. May16th, 2024.D. May17th, 2024.
58. What is the purpse f the activity?
A. T teach readers drawing skills.B. T encurage peple t read mre.
C. T ask peple t prtect the Earth.D. T guide peple t enjy the wrld.
B
D yu knw that Asian Games are held every fur years? Did yu watch the 19th Asian Games in 2023? On September 23, Asian Games were held in Hangzhu. D yu still remember wh wn the first gld medal (金牌) fr the Chinese team?
On the first day f the Asian Games in Hangzhu, the Chinese team did very well in the wmen’s lightweight duble sculls (女子轻量级双人双桨) and gt the first gld medal in less than 10 minutes.
Frm the 2002 Asian Games in Busan (釜山) t nw, the Chinese team has been the first ne t win the first gld medal in six Asian Games. This time Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping defeated (击败) the ther players, finishing at 7′06.78″, abut 10 secnds earlier than Team Uzbekistan in secnd. Indnesia wn third place.
Zu, 22, a Hangzhu girl, gt a gld medal in her hmetwn. Qiu, 24, is frm Suth China’s Guangdng. After jining hands, they wn a lt f great results. In 2022, they finished secnd at the Wrld Rwing (划船运动) Cup in Belgrade. Nw the tw are already able t g fr the Paris Olympics thrugh the 2023 Rwing Wrld Champinships (锦标赛).
In men’s lightweight duble sculls, Chinese rwers Fan Junjie and Sun Man wn anther gld medal fr China. Chinese players tried their best at the Asian Games.
59. What sprt are Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping gd at?
A. Swimming.B. Running.C. Jumping.D. Rwing.
60. Which Asian Games happened in Busan?
A. The 13th.B. The 14th.C. The 15thD. The 16th.
61. What can we knw abut Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping?
A. They are f the same age.
B. Bth f them cme frm Hangzhu.
C. They wrked tgether fr three years.
D. They will be in a great game next.
62. Which can be the best title fr the passage?
A. China’s First Asian Games Gld Medal.
B. The Friendship between Tw Girls.
C. A Beautiful City t Visit in China.
D. An Interesting Game.
C
Where d yu paint? Maybe yu c paint n paper, n a piece f clth and even n the wall. But have yu ever thught f creating pictures in the fields? Anhui, very year farmers plant different kinds and clrs f rice t “make” pictures in the fields. This is rice paddy art (稻田画).
Sme villages were trying t d smething t help the farmers make mre mney. They needed a way t attract turists and then the rice field art came int being. During the first few years, the farmers created simple pictures. Later they were able t make mre cmplex (复杂的) nes.
Every April, the villagers meet and decide what t plant fr the year. Befre planting, farmers make the pictures n cmputers t wrk ut where and hw t plant the rice. After that, farmers plant different kinds f rice in different areas f fields. When rice grws tall, different clrs will cme ut in the fields.
Nw, the cuntryside in Anhui has becme ne f the mst ppular places f interest fr bth the yung and ld. S what are yu waiting fr? Just bring yur camera, cme and enjy the beauty f nature fr yurself!
63. Where d peple make rice paddy art?
A. On paper.B. In the fields.C. On the wail.D. On a piece f clth.
64. Why was rice paddy art first started?
A. T help farmers make mney.B. T help farmers grw mre rice.
C. T help artists learn abut art.D. T help villages becme clean.
65. What’s the main idea f Paragraph 3?
A. The advantages f rice paddy art.B. The prblems f rice paddy art.
C. The clrs f rice paddy artD. The steps f creating rice paddy art.
D
Sugar is a sweet thing that is used t ck fd and make drinks. Humans have a natural sweet tth and it can be difficult t stp eating sugar, but hw can it be harmful t ur health?
Withut dubt, naturally prduced sugar is gd fr ur health. Hwever, refined (精制的) sugar is nt healthy and is added int many prcessed fds (加工食品) t make them taste better. Mst imprtantly, refined sugar des n gd t ur health, which is unlike the natural sugar in fruit, s it is unnecessary t eat it. T much sugar als gets ur teeth wrse and even makes us get fatter r fall ill in later life.
S, what can we d abut t much sugar, especially the hidden sugar in ur fd? On ne hand, the gvernment must take actin fr this situatin. It shuld regulate the amunt (数量) f sugar that cmpanies can add t fd s that they wn’t add t much. On the ther hand, schls shuld tell students the health prblems abut eating t much sugar. What’s mre, it is necessary fr students t eat vegetables and fruit with less sugar.
I think it is quite imprtant that we yung peple shuld knw abut the danger f sugar s that we can make wise chices. Althugh it is sweet, we must nt put ur future health at risk.
66. Why d peple ften add sugar t mst fd?
A. T make fd mre expensive.B. T make fd lk better.
C. T make fd mre delicius.D. T make fd becme healthier.
67. What des the underlined wrd “regulate” prbably mean?
A. Chse.B. Prvide.C. Dubt.D. Cntrl
68. What can students d t avid eating t much sugar?
A. Make strict rules abut eating.
B. Eat vegetables and fruit with less sugar.
C. Share health prblems with thers.
D. Make delicius fd at hme.
69. In which part f a newspaper can we find the text?
A. Travel.B. Health.C. Sprts.D. Science.
E
Are yu dreaming f future travels t space? Yur dream will cme true sn.
It’s reprted that peple will have an “ut-f-the-wrld” experience by staying at a htel high abve the place where we live in 2027.
The htel is called Vyager Space Statin (VSS). There will be rms, restaurants, reading rms and scientific research labratries. It’s gd fr the envirnment by getting pwer frm the sun. It will have rms fr up t 400 peple, including scientists, astrnauts and even sme peple t live there fr a lng time. Yu’ll pay 5 millin dllars fr each 3-day stay.
The htel will serve traditinal “space fd”. Yu’re ging t have the tp chefs making really gd fd. Yu can g n spacewalks t enjy the beauty f the place where we live. Yu can enjy 32 sunrises and sunsets each day.
“The building f the VSS will start in 2026 and welcme its first visitrs in 2027. It will be the wrld’s first space htel. We’re trying t make peple realize that this glden age f space travel is just arund the cmer. It’s cming fast.” Scientists say.
70. What is the Vyager Space Statin (VSS)?
A. A space htel.B. A space labratry.
C. A kind f space fd.D. A space supermarket.
71. Hw lng can yu stay at the Vyager Space Statin if yu pay 10 millin dllars?
A. Fr 3 days.B. Fr 6 days.C. Fr 9 days.D. Fr 12 days.
72. What des “It” underlined in the last paragraph refer t?
A. The glden age f space travel.B. The building f the VSS.
C. The beauty f the earth.D. The dream f space travel.
F
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
In the summer vacatin, I decided t vlunteer t teach the kids in a small village. The village is lcated in the muntain area.
When I reached the bttm f a muntain, a cuple f peple frm the village tk me t their place. They were s kind that they made me feel at hme.
I gathered (聚集) the children and created a schedule fr teaching them. On the first class, I placed a bx full f chclates near a tree at a distance (距离) f 200 meters. I annunced that the child wh runs fast and reaches first wuld get all chclates. I wanted t encurage the children t be active thrugh the cmpetitin. Then I cunted “ne, tw and run!” But what happened then was a real surprise! All children ran twards the chclate bx tgether hlding each ther’s hands. There was nly ne winner and it was all the children. The children then happily shared the chclates amng them. I asked the children why they did that. One by replied, “We can get the mst happiness by sharing with thers.”
At that time, I realized that these children had taught me mre than I culd ever teach them. I cntinued t teach them knwledge, but I als learned the true meaning f kindness frm them. That is __________________
73. Hw did the writer think f the villagers? (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
74. Why did the writer hld the cmpetitin? (不超过10个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
75. What wuld the writer say at the end f the text?? (不超过l5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. Careful planning is the s__________ (秘诀) t success.
77. If we t__________ (对待) everyne with kindness, ur life will be much happier.
78. T be f__________ (公正的), Lin Fei behaved better than we expected.
79. I’ve started recrding what I need t d l__________ (最近).
80. These c__________ (外套) in different clrs are n sale.
Ⅺ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
假定你是李辉，你们学校即将开展“巧手制书签，书香满校园”主题活动。你的英国笔友对此次活动很感兴趣，请结合下面图片信息，向你的英国笔友David介绍活动情况。
注意：1. 短文需包含上图所有信息，可增加适当细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名及地名；
3. 词数80-100（开头已为你写好，不计入总词数）。
Dear David,
I’m glad that yu’re in interested in ur schl’s Reading&Bkmark-making activity. _____________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hui
桐城二中2023-2024学年度第一学期期末学情调研
九年级英语答案
Ⅰ. 1—5. CCCBA
Ⅱ. 6—10. ABCAB
Ⅲ. 11—15. ABBAC
Ⅳ. 16. list 17. quiet 18. gal 19. exercise 20. 8/eight
Ⅴ. 21—25. BDACB 26—30. ABACD
Ⅵ. 31—35. BDBAB 36—40. CBBDA
41—45. DCBCD 46—50. AACBA
Ⅶ. 51—55. DGCEA
Ⅷ. 56—58. CDC 59—62. DBDA 63—65. BAD
66—69. CDBB 70—72. ABA
73. They were s kind.
74. T encurage the children t be active.
75. We can get the mst happiness by sharing with thers. (言之有理即可)
Ⅸ. 76. secret 77. treat 78. fair 79. lately 80. cats
Ⅹ. 略
Hw t develp gd study habits
Plan yur time
Make a 16.________ f imprtant things.
Find a gd study place
A cmfrtable and 17.________ place is necessary.
Set a study 18.________
Divide it int smaller nes.
Take care f yurself
Get sme 19.________ and eat healthy fd.
Mst peple need abut 20.________ hurs f sleep a night.
A. Glad t sec yu tday.
B. What d yu cme here fr?
C. Yu can simply walk there.
D. Is there a bank arund here?
E. Have yu ever been there befre?
F. Hw lng des it take?
G. Yu can see the bank n yur right.
Celebrate the Natural Wrld and Win Prizes!
Planet Earth is a beautiful place. Nw, we are asking ur readers t draw a pster that celebrates the natural wrld and write a pledge (誓言) t prtect Planet Earth.
The cmpetitin is inspired (启发) by Earth Day, which takes place n April 22nd each year. It is a time t celebrate the planet and think abut hw t prtect it better. S we are asking readers t think abut what their favrite things are in the natural wrld and then draw them.
We can’t wait t see yur drawings. Gd luck!
Instructins
Draw yur pster n the white card. Then write yur wishes t the planet. Ask a friend t take a pht and send it t theplanetearth.cm by May 17th, 2024.
Prizes
We will give away meaningful prizes t 11 winners.