河北省唐山市路北区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末学业评估英语试题

这是一份河北省唐山市路北区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末学业评估英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了 1， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项: 1. 本试卷共8页, 总分100分, 考试时间90分钟。
2. 选择题答案用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上; 笔答题使用0.5黑色水性笔在答题纸上作答。在试卷上作答无效。
听力部分
I. 听句子, 选出句子中所包含的信息 (共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
1. A. parentsB. pantsC. presents
2. A. phts f my familyB. members f my familyC. phts f my father
3. A. has a cldB. has a headacheC. has a tthache
4. A. I live in Canberra.B. Canberra is a beautiful city.C. Australia’s capital is Canberra.
5. A. I like watching mvies. B. I’m watching a mvie nw. C. I will watch a mve this evening.
II. 听句子, 选出该句的最佳答语 (共5小题: 每小题1分, 满分5分)
6. A. He likes reading.B. He’s driving a car.C. His name is Jim Smith.
7. A. Yes. Here it is.B. Fllw me.C. N, it isn’t mine.
8. A. It’s Wednesday.B. It’s 8:00.C. It’s January16.
9. A. Fine, thank yu.B. Yu are welcme.C. N, thanks.
10. A. The same t yu.B. Have a gd time.C. Hw are yu?
III. 听对话和问题, 选择正确答案 (共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
11. Where are they talking?
A. B. C.
12. Which is the way t the market?
A. B. C.
13. Hw des Jenny’s mther usually g t wrk?
A. In a car.B. On ft.C. By bike.
14. Where are Betty and Tny?
A. In a flwer shp.B. In an art museum.C. In the library.
15. What is Tny’s dream?
A. T sing well.B. T dance well.C. T draw well.
IV. 听短文和问题, 选择正确答案 (共5小题: 每小题1分, 满分5分)
16. Hw des the tiger feel?
A. He feels tired.B. He feels lnely.C. He feels happy.
17. Wh plays with the tiger?
A. The mnkey.B. The elephant.C. The lin.
18. When is the party?
A. This Friday.B. This Saturday.C. This Sunday.
19. Hw many children will g t the party?
A. Five.B. Ten.C. Fifteen.
20. What des Bb like best?
A. Grapes.B. Ckies.C. Cakes.
V. 听短文填空 (共5小题: 每小题1分, 满分5分)
笔试部分
VI. 单项选择 (共7小题; 每小题1分, 满分7分)
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项
26. Lucy and Mary can’t find their basket Can yu help ________?
A. himB. herC. themD. us
27. ________ nises. The baby is sleeping.
A. Dn’t makeB. MakingC. Nt makeD. T make
28. Listen! Tm ________ in the classrm.
A. sangB. singsC. will singD. is singing
29. —________ is yur sister?
—She is thirteen.
A. Hw manyB. Hw ldC. Hw muchD. Hw tall
30. Open the bx. Sarah. Yu will find a nice hat ________ it.
A. abveB. nC. insideD. beside
31. Mr. Zheng has ________ daughters and his ________ daughter is a famus dctr.
A. secnd, twB. tw, secndC. three, threeD. third, three
32. —What abut the new mvie?
—It is ________. I dn’t want t see it again
A. interestingB. funnyC. famusD. bring
VI. 完形填空 (共10小题: 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Tny is Jim’s new classmate. Tny isn’t 33 an English-speaking cuntry. He can’t 34 gd English like the 35 children. The teacher asks Jim t 36 Tny arund the schl and help him.
Jim takes Tny t the schl dining hall (食堂) at lunchtime. He shws Tny 37 t buy the fd. Tny pints t the fd and Jim tries t speak ut the 38 . In this way, Tny 39 many new wrds. He wants t learn mre. Tny is happy that Jim helps 40 . Jim is happy t because Tny wrks s 41 . The tw bys have a gd 42 .
33. A. tB. inC. frmD. f
34. A. drawB. speakC. talkD. say
35. A. therB. thersC. antherD. else
36. A. shwB. carryC. pickD. fight
37. A. whatB. whichC. whenD. hw
38. A. newsB. wrdC. languageD. bk
39. A. learnsB. plansC. writesD. listens
40. A. herB. himC. yuD. me
41. A. quietlyB. slwlyC. hardD. sadly
42. A. fdB. schlC. picnicD. time
VI. 阅读理解 (共10小题: 每小题2分, 满分20分)
阅读 A、B、C三篇材料, 然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
In China sme students usually g t schl by bike, sme by bus and sme n ft. Hw d students in ther cuntries usually g t schl? D yu knw? Let’s see what they tell us.
Jhn: I live in New Yrk. My hme is near the schl. S I ften g t schl by bike. Every day it takes me abut fifteen minutes t get there. I always get t schl n time.
Susan: I study in a middle schl in Tky. The schl is far frm my hme. Every day Id have t g t schl by subway (地铁). It takes me abut frty minutes. I can read my favurite bks during this time.
Sally: My hme is in Lndn. It is far frm my schl. I usually g t schl by schl bus. It takes me an hur every day. S I must get up very early every mrning.
43. Jhn ges t schl ________.
A. by bikeB. n ftC. by carD. by subway
44. Susan ges t schl by subway because ________.
A. she can’t ride a bikeB. she desn’t like walking
C. she lives far away frm schlD. there is n car in her family
45. The passage mainly (主要) talks abut ________.
A. hw t studyB. hw t g t schlC. when t studyD. when t g t schl
B
There are 24 time znes (时区) in the wrld. When it’s nn in China , it’s midnight in the United States. What’s happening at the same time in the wrld?
D yu knw what time it is in Tangshan, China nw?
46. What is Peter ding at 5 in the afternn?
A. He is having breakfast.B. He is watching TV. C. He is playing ftball.D. He is brushing his teeth.
47. Where is Karima nw?
A. At hme.B. At schl.C. In a park.D. In a supermarket.
48. When Lgan is having his breakfast, ________.
A. Brun is playing basketballB. Sanjiv is sleeping
C. Lgan’s mther is making supD. it’s 2:00 in the afternn in Brazil
C
What will the weather be like? Sme peple say they can knw what the weather will be like frm birds. If they see birds flying high ut t the sea, they knw it is a nice day and it’s a gd time t play utside. Because birds dn’t like t fly ut when it rains. When the weather is bad, the birds will cme back t the beach. A big wind may cme with a rain. Birds d nt like t fly in a big wind. They may sit in a tree when the rain is cming. Other animals can als tell the weather. If it’s a cludy day and the rain is cming, chickens aren’t quiet, and they are running here and there. Frgs (青蛙) are making big nise in the pl (池塘). If it is a nice day, the frgs will cme ut f the water.
49. Hw many kinds f animals can we find in the passage?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
50. When can we play beach ftball?
A. When birds fly in the sky.C. When birds sleep.
B. When birds cme back.D. When birds play n the beach.
51. What wn’t frgs d when it rains?
A. Stay in the pl.B. Cme ut f the water. C. Make big nise.D. Run here and there.
52. What’s the best title (标题) fr the passage?
A. Sea in RainB. Rain in SummerC. Weather and AnimalsD. Birds and the Weather
IX. 任务型阅读 (共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 按要求完成53~57题。
Many f us get enugh sleep and fd, but smetimes yu feel tired and hungry during the day. Maybe this is because (因为) we sleep r cat at the wrng times.
There is n best time t sleep because everyne’s bdy clck is different, but sleep expert (专家) Dr. Michael Hwell says the best sleep is six hurs at night and tw hurs in the afternn. The best time t have yur afternn sleep is six hurs after yu get up. but mst peple can’t d this because they are at wrk.
Yu’d better think abut yur eating time. It is imprtant (重要的) t eat breakfast tw hurs after yu get up and dinner three hurs befre yu g t sleep.
Listen t yur wn bdy clck and yu can live a healthy life.
53、54题完成句子; 55题简略回答问题: 56题找出井写下本文的主题句: 57题将文中划线部分句子翻译成汉语。
53. Dr. Michael Hwell says the best sleep is ________ and tw hurs in the afternn.
54. It is imprtant t cat breakfast tw hurs ________.
55. Why is there n best time t sleep?
________________________________________________
56. ________________________________________________
57. ________________________________________________
X. 词语运用 (包括A、B两部分, A部分5分, B 部分5分, 共10分)
A) 根据句意. 用方框中航给单词或短语的适当形式填空. (共5小题每小题1分, 满分5分)
58. My mum cks ________ delicius fd fr the festival.
59. China is a great cuntry with a lng ________.
60. G dwn this street. Tum right at the ________ lights.
61. Tm, dn’t frget t ________ the cat.
62. Tmrrw is Mike’s ________ birthday.
B) 根据句意, 用括号内所给汉语的适当形式填空。(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
63. I had bad ________ (运气) tday, I lst my bk.
64. Li Ming is in Australia nw. His mther ________ (想念) him every day.
65. Dn’t ________ (下) the bus! It is still mving.
66. ________ (东方) pints right n a map.
67. It’s time fr supper. My sister is ________ (摆放) the table nw.
XI. 基础写作 (包括A、B两部分, A部分3分, B部分15分, 共18分)
A) 语段抄写 (满分3分)
68. 请规范抄写下列语段。
We have t many things t d every day. Hw t d mre things in the day? D things at ur waiting time, We can read newspapers r bks when we wait fr ur dctr r meetings.
B) 书面表达 (满分15分)
69. 请根据所给中文提示, 写一篇英文的自我介绍:
假如你是七年级学生Li Ming, 在微博上注册了自己的账号, 想通过微博结交一些外国朋友, 需要用英语写一段自我介绍。
内容包括: 1) 个人信息 (如: 姓名、年龄...);
2) 介绍自己的家庭成员;
3) 描述一下自己房间的三种物品摆放。
要求: (1) 短文须包括所有要点, 可适当发挥。
(2) 短文不要涉及真实的人名和校名。
(3) 词数: 60词左右。
2023-2024 学年度第一学期期末学业抽查评估
七年级英语试卷参考答案 2024. 1
听力部分 (25分)
I. 1-5 CABCC II. 6-10 BACBA III. 11-15 CABBC
IV. 16-20 BACCA
V. 21. friends 22. skating 23. February 24. gifts 25. Canada
笔试部分 (75分)
VI. 26-30 CADBC 31-32 BD
VII. 33-37 CBAAD 38-42 BABCD
VIII. 43-45 ACB 46-48 BDD 49-52 CABC
IX.53. six hurs at night 54. after yu get up
55. Because everyne’s bdy clck is different.
56. Listen t yur wn bdy clck and yu can live a healthy life.
57. 你最好思考一下/想一想你的吃饭时间。
X.58. lts f 59. histry 60. traffic 61. feed 62. seventh
63. luck 64. misses 65. get ff 66. East 67. setting
Susan’s activities (活动)
What t d befre leaving China
say gdbye t her 21. ________ in China
What t d after leaving China
visit her uncle and aunt and learn 22. ________
When t return t China
in 23. ________
What t d back in China
bring sme 24. ________
help the Chinese knw abut 25. ________
Name
Place
Time
Activities
Peter
Lndn, the UK
5 ’clck in the afternn
He is watching TV in the living rm.
Brun
Brazil (巴西)
2 ’clck in the afternn
He is playing ftball with his friends in the park.
Lgan
the US
8 ’clck in the mrning
He is having his breakfast. His mther always makes sup fr him.
Karima
Paris (巴黎), France
6 ’clck in the evening
She is nt at hme. She is shpping with her mther in a supermarket. There’s a big sale. They want t buy sme bread.
Sanjiv
India
half past ten at night
He is brushing his teeth. He usually ges t bed at 11 at night.
seven traffic feed histry lts f