安徽省宿州市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷

这是一份安徽省宿州市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷，共10页。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分 120分，考试时间为 120 分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷”(6页)和“答题卷”(2页)两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What is David ding nw?
2. Hw des the girl want t g t the radi statin?
3. What time is it in Tky nw?
A. 4 pm. B. 5 pm. C. 6 pm.
4. What club des Lily want t jin?
A. The music club. B. The art club. C. The swimming club.
5. What des Jenny think f playing tennis?
A. Difficult. B. Imprtant. C. Exciting.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. What des the wman ask Jim t d?
A. T g shpping. B. T eat ut. C. T play sprts.
7. When will the tw speakers meet?
A. At 4:30. B. At 5:00. C. At 5:30.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8. Where des Linda need t g n Saturday mrning?
A. T the stre. B. T the z. C. T the library.
9. What's Tm's favrite sprt?
A. Vlleyball. B. Basketball. C. Sccer.
10. Hw far is the stre frm the schl?
A. 2 kilmeters. B. 3 kilmeters. C. 4 kilmeters.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。 请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出 一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Hw lng des Tina have t run in the mrning?
A. Fr 30 minutes. B. Fr 40 minutes. C. Fr 50 minutes.
12. What des Tina have t eat fr breakfast?
A. Hamburgers. B. Bread. C. Eggs.
13. What can't Tina d befre finishing her hmewrk?
A. She can't g t bed. B. She can't watch TV. C. She can't g ut.
14. When can Tina play cmputer games?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Sunday.
15. What des Tina think f hme rules?
A. Bring. B. Strict. C. Useful.
Ⅳ.信息转换( 共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分30 分)
V.单项填空(共10 小题；每小题1分，满分 10分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. —— Amy, what's yur mther's ?
——She is a teacher in a middle schl.
A. day B. jb C. fun D. art
22. —— My ruler is lst. Can I yurs, Jack?
——Sure. Here yu are.
A. use B. cut C. ask D. let
23. —Tny never makes his bed r des the dishes at hme.
——Oh, hw he is!
A. smart B. funny C. quiet D. lazy
24.—I can't play chess. What abut yu, Mlly?
—— I can't play chess, .
A. t B. als C. either D. then
25. —Tm, can yu watch TV in the evening?
—— N. My parents are very me.
A. afraid f B. strict with C. late fr D. gd at
26. ---Where is yur grandmther?
—— She in the park. She ften there.
A. is walking; exercises B. walks; exercises
C. is walking; is exercising D. walks; is exercising
27. is it frm here t the radi statin?
—It's abut six kilmeters.
A. Hw much B. Hw ld C. Hw lng D. Hw far
28. These trees are s beautiful. Dn't , please.
A. cut dwn them B. cut them dwn C. cut it dwn D. ut dwn it
29. in the classrm, Eric.
——Srry, Miss Green.
A. Nt eat B. Nt t eat C. Dn't eat D. Can't eat
30. ——I have a Chinese test this afternn.
——
A. Gd luck! B. Have fun! C. Thank yu. D. See yu.
11.完形填空(共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
David is a six-year-ld by. His mther Mrs Smith is very strict. There are many rules fr David t 31
One day、 David and his mther 32 a bus t the stre. It is David's first time t get n a bus, s David is very 33 and he runs here and there n the bus.
“Dn' t 34 n the bus, dear. It's nisy and implite,” says his mther.
David listens t his mther and sits dwn. Then he sees a man playing the guitar in the street, s he pens the windw and lks ut f the 35 .
“Dn't d that, dear. It's dangerus,” says his mther. Again David listens t her.
When Mrs Smith finds David wants t say smething, she says, “Dn't 36 , dear.” David lk s at his 37 and desn't say anything.
After they get t the 38 , Mrs Smith says t David, “What d yu want t say, dear?”
“Yu drpped yur 39 ~ n the bus. Yu dn't want me t talk, and it's t 40 . Yu can't call Daddy,” David says.
31. A. spell B. teach C. fllw D. arrive
32. A. take B. lve C. make D. cme
33. A. dirty B. happy C. true D. early
34. A. get B. eat C. buy D. run
35. A. bus B. car C. train D. subway
36. A. sell B. play C. talk D. need
37. A. father B. mther C. uncle D. aunt
38. A. stre B. village C. library D. schl
39. A. watch B. radi C. ring D. phne
40. A. cl B. busy C. late D. easy
B
The students are having a science class. They are 41 Miss Green. She is saying smething abut 42 .
After that, she asks, “Bys and girls! What is water like?” But after tw minutes, n ne answers 43 . Then Miss Green asks again, “Why dn't yu answer my 44 ?I have tld yu what water is like, right?”
Then a by says, “Miss Green, yu think water has n clr and n smell. But when I 45 my hands in it, the water is black.”
All the 46 laugh. Miss Green laughs, t.
Then anther by puts up his hand and says, “Miss Green, where can we 47 water that has n clr and n smell?”
“ 48 d yu say that, Ben?” Miss Green asks.
“Because the water in the river next t my huse is always black and it has a bad smell.” answers Ben. And many f the children think he is 49
“I'm srry abut that,” says Miss Green. “Our water is dirty nw. That's a bad 50 . All f us must d smething t clean it.”
41. A. asking fr B. listening t C. thinking f D. talking t
42. A. fd B. time C. wrk D. water
43. A. her B. me C. yu D. him
44. A. number B. dream C. questin D. subject
45. A. relax B. wash C. drink D. need
46. A. students B. musicians C. parents D. villagers
47. A. keep B. sell C. tell D. find
48. A. Hw B. When C. Why D. Where
49. A. yung B. right C. nisy D. afraid
50. A. thing B. party C. sprt D. mvie
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题，满分45 分)
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hey, Lily. Can I ask yu sme questins?
B: Sure. A. Hw far is it frm yur hme t schl?
A: 51 B. I t take abut 30 minutes.
B: Yes, I d. My hme is far frm schl. C. When d yu g t schl?
A: 52 D. What d yu usually d n the bus?
B: It's abut haven kilmeters. E, D yu always g t schl by bike?
A: I see. 53 F. D yu live fr frm schl?
B: I take the bus. C. Hw d yu get t schl?
A: Hw lng des it take t get t schl?
B: 54
A: Oh, that's a lng time. 55
B: I usually listen t music n it. It's relaxing.
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题；每小题2分，满分 40 分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A 、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
56. Where des Lin cme frm?
A. Australia. B. America. C. China. D. Africa.
57. neck is very lng.
A. Lin's B. Giraffe's C. Wallaby's D. Tiger's
58. What d we knw abut Tiger?
A. It can swim. B. It is cute.
C. It likes eating leaves. D. It likes playing with dgs.
B
Hi Jane,
I am writing this email frm Crete. It's ur third day here and we are having a great time. We are living in a small family htel. It is great and it is nt far frm the beach.
Mr Miller, the htel wner, is an ld man. He started the htel abut 40 years ag. He is very friendly and he speaks English well. Mrs Miller cannt speak English but she is gd with children.
Frank gets up early every day and takes the children t the beach. I get up at abut 8 am and then I have a lng breakfast. There is a garden and peple usually eat there. Nw, the weather is great and I am sitting here in the garden.
Oh, here's Bill. He is cming int the garden. He wants me t g t the beach. I must say gdbye nw. We have tw mre days here and I'll see yu this Sunday.
Yurs,
Grace
59. What des Grace think f the htel?
A. Small but nice. B. Old and dirty. C. Small and dirty. D. Old ha t nice.
60. What is Grace ding nw?
A. Having breakfast. B. Talking with Frank.
C. Playing n the beach. D. Writing in the garden.
61. Hw lng des Grace live in Crete in all?
A. Three days. B. Fur days. C. Five days. D. Six days.
62. Grace writes the email t tell Jane abut
A. her great dream B. her fun trip C. her bus y wrk D. her family life
C
Gerge is an ld man. He has much mney but he always wants mre. One day, Gerge walks in a park and sees a black and white dg. It lks cl. Gerge thinks he can sell it t make sme mney. He walks quickly t the dg and gets it.
“Why d yu want me?” the dg asks.
“Because I want t make mney, says Gerge.
“But yu have lts f mney. And yu dn't have t sell me. If yu let me g, I can't teach yu three easy rules.”
“What can I d with the rules? I nly want mney,” says Gerge.
“These rules are very imprtant and useful.” says the dg.
“Really? Then I can let yu g. Nw teach me the rules.”
“OK,” says the dg. “The first rule is: Never believe what thers say. The secnd rule is: Never be unhappy abut the things yu dn't have. The third rule is: Never let g what yu have.”
After saying these, the dg runs away quickly.
63. Why des Gerge want t have the dg?
A. T help it. B. T live with it.
C. T make mney. D. T make friends with it.
64. What des the dg think f the rules?
A. Strict. B. Imprtant. C. Interesting. D. Bring.
65. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text?
A. The dg is yellw. B. Gerge is a yung man.
C. Gerge likes the dg very much. D. In the end, the dg runs away.
66. What's the best title fr this text?
A. Three Easy but Useful Rules B. An Old Man and His Mney
C. A Happy Dg and a Busy Man D. A Funny Stry abut a Strict Man
D
Dear Uncle Charlie,
Thank yu fr the birthday presents. I like it very much. Just between yu and me——I always want a new cmputer. Yu are the best uncle in the wrld.
Nw, I'd like t talk t yu abut smething. My friends are jining all kinds f clubs this term. Jhn can play the pian and he wants t jin the Music Club. Nancy is a tennis player. She wuld like t jin the Sprts Club. As fr Bb, well, he is gd at swimming. And he is ging t jin the Swimming Club. All f them have plans! I dn't like music r sprts, and I'm afraid f water. But I really want t jin a club t, just like my friends. I dn't want t lse them. I'm wrrying abut this day and night.
As yu knw, I like ding cleaning at hme and at schl. And I like reading bks in my free time. But there is n Cleaning Club r Reading Club in ur schl. What can I d abut this? Can yu help me?
67. What club des Jhn want t jin? Timmy
A. The Swimming Club. B. The Cleaning Cub.
C. The Sprts Club. D. The Music Club.
68. What is Timmy wrrying abut?
A. Lsing his friends. B. Planning a party.
C. Ding his hmewrk. D. Ding sme reading.
69. Uncle Charlie may tell Timmy t .
A. make new friends B. teach Bb t swim
C. start a Reading Club D. jin the Cleaning Club
E
There are all kinds f festivals and hlidays in the wrld. But d yu knw there is a festival that peple celebrate nce a mnth? It's Bnza Bttle r Day.
Peple celebrate Bnza Bttler Day when the number f the day is the same as that f the mnth (January 1st, February 2nd... ). When the number f the year als matches the number f the day and mnth (August 8th, 2008), peple usually have a bigger celebratin. A baby brn n a Bnza Bttler Day is called a“Bnza Bttler Baby”.
Elaine Fremn t frm America created Bnza Bttler Day n August 8th, 1985. She did s t give herself a reasn t have a party and sme fun with her friends n the special day f every mnth.
Bnza Bttler Day has n traditin. Peple can celebrate it in the ways they like. The day can be Candy Day, Pienic Day , N Hmewrk Day and s n.
Hw d yu celebrate the day? D yu have any great ideas?
70. Hw many times d peple celebrate Bnza Bttler Day in a year?
A. Nine times B. Ten times. C. Eleven times. D. Twelve times.
71. What des the underlined wrd“created” in the text mean in Chinese?
A. 创造 B. 删除 C. 庆祝 D. 增加
72. Peple shuld celebrate Bnza Bttler Day by .
A. having a big party B. ding the things they like
C. enjying delicius fd D. ging t the mvies
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
Mike is eleven years ld. He lives with his parents in the USA. Mike's birthday is cming. He wants t get sme nice gifts.
Mike has an aunt. She is in Kenya. She gives sme mney t a grup t celebrate Mike's birthday. The grup helps save elephants.
On Mike's birthday, he gets an email frm the grup. Mike is very happy. The by lves the animals and he wants t help save them, t. S he finds time t g t Kenya with his mther.
When Mike cmes back, he sets up a grup. It tells peple t save the elephants in Kenya.Mike als wrks t make mney fr an elephant park in Thailand. “On my next birthday.”he says.“I dn't need any gifts. I want my friends t give mney t the elephant park.”
Mike lves his wrk and he is happy he can help elephants.
73. Where des Mike live? (不超过 10个词)
74. What des Mike get frm the grup?(不超过5个词)
75. What des Mike want fr his next birthday? (不超过 15 个词)
第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分)
X.单词拼写(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. On Mnday we have t w (穿) the schl unifrm.
77. The by ften f (忘记) t bring his hmewrk t schl.
78. Smetimes I have t (可怕的) dreams at night.
79. There is an ld b (桥) ver the river.
80. Alice usually c (打扫) the huse after breakfast.
(.书面表达(共1 小题;满分 20 分)
假如你是李华，请根据下列提示问题，用英语写一篇短文介绍自己最喜欢的动物 词数70~90，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
提示: 1. What's yur favrite animal? 2. What des it lk like? 3. Why d yu like it?
4. Where des it cme frm? 5. What fd des it like?
My Favrite Animal
My name is Li Hua.
七年级英语听力语文及参考答案
Ⅰ.短对话理解
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Hell, this is Frank. Is David here?
W: Wait a minute. He is ding his hmewrk.
2. M: Let's take the bus t the radi statin.
W: Hw abut taking the subway? It runs quickly.
3. M: It's five in the afternn nw in Hefei. What are yu ding, Kate?
W: I'm having dinner. It's 6 pm in Tky.
4. M: Hey, Lily! D yu want t jin the art club with me?
W: N, I dn't. I want t jin the music club.
5. M: Jenny, hw abut playing tennis after schl?
W: Sunds great! I think it's very exciting.
Ⅱ.长对话理解
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
W: Hell, Jim! Where are yu?
M: I'm at hme. I'm shpping n the cmputer.
W: D yu want t eat ut with me?
M: OK. When?
W: Let's meet at my hme first. Cme at half past five.
M: OK. See yu then.
W: See yu. Bye!
听下面一段对话，回答第8至 10题。
M: Linda, what d yu want t d this Saturday afternn?
W: I need t g t the library in the mrning, but I'm free in the afternn. Why d yu ask?
M: Tm's birthday is cming. I want t buy him a basketball.
W: It's nice. Basketball is his favrite sprt.
M: Can yu g t the stre with me? It's nly tw kilmeters away frm ur schl.
W: Sure, n prblem.
Ⅲ.短文理解
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Dear Linda,
Yu want t knw the rules at my hme. Let me tell yu abut them. First, I have t run fr half an hur after I get up in the mrning. I must have eggs and milk fr breakfast. And then I can't watch TV befre I finish my hmewrk. Yu knw, I like playing cmputer games, but I can nly d that n the weekend.I can't g ut t play after 8:00 'clck in the evening. Many peple think hme rules are bring, but I dn't think s. These rules are useful fr us. We can be healthy and we can finish what we shuld d very well, s I always fllw them at hme.
D yu have sme hme rules?
Yurs,
Tina
Ⅳ.信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Hi, I'm Grace Brwn. There is an animal shw in the z n Wednesday. The z is next t a bus statin, s yu can g t watch the shw by bus. The shw is usually frm 3:00 pm t 5:00 pm. On the shw yu can see abut 15 kinds f animals. My favrite animals are the elephants there. They can dance t the music. Every time I watch the shw, I feel very happy. Cme t the shw when yu are free. Yu will like it.
参 考 答 案
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ .1-5 BACAC
Ⅱ.6-10 BCCBA
Ⅲ.11-15 ACBCC
Ⅳ.16. Wednesday 17. bus 18. fifteen/15 19. elephants 20. happy
第二部分 英语知识运用(21-50 小题，每小题1 分，共 30分)
V.21-25 BADCB 26-30 ADBCA
Ⅵ.31-35 CABDA 36-40 CBADC 41-45 BDACB 46-50 ADCBA
第三部分 阅读理解(51-55 小题,每小题1分,56-75 小题,每小题2分,共45 分)
Ⅶ.51-55 FAGBD
Ⅷ.56-58 DBA 59-62 ADCB 63-66 C BDA 67-69 DAC 70-72 DAB
73. He lives in the USA.
74. He gets an email.
75. He wants his friends t give mney t the elephant park.
.76. wear 77. frgets 78. terrible 79. bridge 80. cleans
X. One pssible versin:
My Favrite Animal
My name is Li Hua. My favrite animal is the panda. This black and white animal lks very cute and it always makes me happy. It cmes frm Sichuan, China. It likes eating very much. It eats plants and a little fruit. Bamb is its favrite fd. It als likes sleeping. It sleeps fr abut ten hurs every day. There aren't many pandas in the wrld. I think we shuld prtect them.The Animal Shw
Place
In the z
Time
Frm 3:00 pm t 5:00 pm n 16
Transprtatin
By _17.
Animals
There are abut _18_ kinds f animals n the shw.
The _19_ can dance t the music.
Feeling
Grace feels 20 after watching the shw every time.
I'm Lin frm Africa. Meat is my favrite. I
think I am cute, but sme peple say I am scary.
I'm Giraffe. I have a very lng neck. I
can eat abut 134 kg f leaves a day!
We are Wallabies frm Australia. We are
gd at swimming. We are friendly t peple, t.
Haha, I'm Tiger, a kind f big cat. I'm
very smart. I like meat and I can swim, t.