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河北省唐山市迁安市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题
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这是一份河北省唐山市迁安市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了 请将答案写在答题卡上， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项： 1. 本试卷共6页， 总分100分， 考试时间90分钟
2. 请将答案写在答题卡上。
听力部分
I. 听句子， 选出句子中所包含的信息。 (共5小题，每小题1分.计5分)
1. A. leg B. luck C. life
2. A.6:45 B.7:00 C 7:15
3. A. take a walk B. take a shwer C. take a pht
4. A. She is a kind girl.
B. She is a little bit lazy.
C. She is a kind but lazy girl.
5. A. He is telling yu t have dinner quickly.
B. He is asking yu what t have fr dinner.
C. He is inviting(邀请) yu t have dinner with him.
II.听句子， 选出该句的最佳答语。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
6. A. I want t jin the art club. B. Yes, I can. C . I can play sccer.
7. A. By bike. B. At eight ’clck. C. Five kilmeters.
8. A. They like bananas. B. They're black and white. C. Because they're cute.
9. A. Yeah, I'd lve t. B. See yu then. C. Nt much.
10. A. It's windy. B. Hell, Alice speaking. C. She is frm Mexic.
III.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
11. Where is Alice?
12. What is Jane ding?
13. What can Tm d nw? Play sccer.
A. D his hmewrk. B. Watch TV.
14. When des Susan get up very late? On Sunday.
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday.
15. What des Mary mean(意思是)?
A. She will g t the shw.
B. She can't g t the shw.
C. She ften ges t the shw.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
16. Hw many peple are there in Green's family?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
17. Where is Mrs. Green?
A. On the playgrund. B. In the dinning hall. C. In the kitchen.
18. What dcs Sam d after he gets up?
A. He puts n his ld T-shirt. B. He washes his face. C. He finds a new T-shirt.
19. What des Sam have this mrning?
A. Fruits. B. Bread. C. Nthing
20. What d we knw frm the stry?
A. Sam is in the basketball team.
B. Mum will drive Sam t schl.
C. Bth Sam and his mum get up late.
V. 听短文填空。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
Infrmatin Sheet
21. The rms: n the flr
22. The price: $100 fr a
23. The : free frm 7:00 t 9:00
24. One mre thing: a statin nearby
25. Arriving time: n 20th
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择(共10小题， 每小题1分， 计 10分。选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项)
26. Her is t be a great musician.
A. dream B. habit C. wrk D. hmewrk
27. I can't play tennis, but I am gd playing ftball.
A. with B. at C. f D. fr
28. Let's g t the t see the lins this weekend.
A. bridge B. pl C. z D. club
29. Cars, buses and bikes st p when the traffic light(交通灯) is red.
A. can B. may C. need D. must
30.——D yu like yur new math teacher?
——Yes, she is very . But smetimes she is strict with us.
A. friendly B. lazy C. scary D. dirty
31. Please the rules. Be quiet and be a gd visitr in the museum!
A. practise B. fllw C. frget D. save
32. Yu can take fthe tw bks and leave the ther fr yur brther.
A. any B. it C. either D. sme
33.——Hw abut with me after dinner?
—Sunds gd. It's gd exercise.
A. taking a walk B. taking a shwer
C. ging t the mvies D. ding the hmewrk
34. Judy kids(孩子们) English in a schl frm Mnday t Friday.
A. teach B. teaches C. is teaching D. taught
35. Mr Green thebus. Dn't talk t him. It's dangerus.
A. drive B. drives C. is driving D. drve
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 计10分)
Summer vacatin is cming. The Greens are taking a 36 t Sanya in Hainan Prvince.Hw will 37 g there? The Green family have 38 ideas.
The sn Dale says,“Let's take the train. Taking a jurney(旅程) by train is really 39 .We 40 enjy the beautiful scenery(风景) frm utside the windw.”
The daughter Alice says,“But the train statin is far frm ur hme. If we get there by train,we have t leave hme early. S let's drive a car.”
“Why?”asks Dale.
“Because we can 41 at any time n ur way.”answers Alice.
“But I think taking a jurney by car is bring. What abut taking a bus?”asks Dale.
“Oh, I dn't like that. There are always 42 peple n the bus, and it takes a(n) 43time.”says Alice.
Then they g t ask their parents fr ideas. Mr. Green wants t take the plane because it's the fastest way. He says that they shuldn't spend t much time n the way, 44 they wn't have much time t visit the city. But Mrs. Green wants t g by ship, because it is cheap and they can 45 sme mney. Which d yu think is the best way?
36. A. class B. trip C. walk D. shwer
37. A. she B. he C. it D. they
38. A. big B. different C. gd D. interesting
39. A. tiring B. surprising C. relaxing D. bring
40. A. can B. have t C. need D. must
41. A. stp B. start C. drink D. eat
42. A. t much B. much t C. t many D. a few
43. A. easy B. hard C. lng D. shrt
44. A. but B. and C. s D. r
45. A. waste B. save C. need D. use
VIII. 阅读理解(共 10 小题,每小题2分, 计 20分)
A
46. Which wrd (s) can be filled in the blank (空格) ?
A. Cmputer Rm. B. Library. C. Classrm. D. Supermarket.
47. Which f the fllwing is right?
A. Yu can g t bed after 10:00 pm.
B. Yu must wear skirts and T-shirts.
C. Yu can nt meet friends at any time.
D. Yu can't talk ludly in bth f the tw kinds f rules.
B
My name is James. I am in Grade 7. Many students in ur schl g t schl by bike. I am ne f them, t. I think it is healthy and it is a kind f exercise.
One day, I am n my way hme. It is nt fine, s I want t g hme early. I listen t music and dn't watch a car. Then it hits(撞) me. Luckily, the driver and I are fine.
After that, I dn't ride fr a lng time, and I learn sme things abut riding safely(安全地). Wear right clthes and shes t ride a bike. T ride safely, we can wear red r yellw but nt black clthes at night, in the early mrning r in bad weather. We need t wear trusers but nt a skirt. The shes can be sprts shes. Dn't listen t music when riding a bike.
It is really fun t g t schl by bike, but please ride safely.
48. Hw des James g t schl?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus. D. On ft.
49. What can yu d t ride safely?
①wear black clthes at night ②ride in gd weather
③wear sprts shes ④listen t music when riding
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ③④ D. ①④
50. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. James is in Grade Eight.
B. Riding a bike is a kind f exercise..
C. A bike hits James n his way hme.
D. After the accident James never rides t schl.
C
Every student wants t have a gd schl day. Hw can we d that? I think my schl life can give yu sme help.
Every day I get up early. After that I make my bed tidy and clean. Then I brush my teeth and wash my face. It's imprtant t wear right clthes. If I have P. E. that day, I'll wear my sprts clthes and shes. Befre I g t schl, I usually have smething t eat at hme. My favrite fd is bread and milk.
At schl, I listen t my teachers carefully(认真地). I'll ask my teachers and classmates fr help if I dn't understand. I als like t make friends. I make many friends at schl. I always talk with them r play sprts with them after class.
After schl, I usually walk hme. I take a walk after dinner. Then I d my hmewrk.After I finish the hmewrk, I g t take a shwer. Then I g t bed.
51. What des the writer(作者) like best?
A. Playing sccer. B. Playing chess. C. Mil k and bread D. Eggs and milk.
52. What des the underlined wrd“understand”mean in Chinese?
A. 听说 B. 理解 C. 举手 D. 回答
53. Wh prbably(可能) wrte this passage?
A. Lisa, a student. B. Lucy, a teacher. C. Bill, a musician. D. Bb, a wrker.
54. What can we knw abut the writer frm this passage?
A. He talks with his friends after class. B. He wears the same clthes every day.
C. He finishes his hmewrk at schl. D. He desn't like t d sprts.
55. What's the best title fr this passage?
A. Hw Can I Make Gd Friends B. Hw Can I Be a Gd Student
C. Hw Can I Get Up Early D. Hw Can I Have a Gd Schl Day
IX.任务型阅读。 根据短文内容， 完成下面任务。 (共5小题， 每小题2分， 计10分)
Suth Australia is a very great place t visit. It's beautiful and clean. There are a lt f animals, beautiful flwers and interesting places. The weather is usually very nice. Yu can d many things there.
It's a gd place fr children t d many things. They can have a lt f fun. They can run arund with the animals. They can swim with sea lins and dlphins(海豚). They can als tuch (抚摸) the kalas because they are very friendly. The kala is ne f Austrilia's symbls.
The lng beach is a gd place t relax. Children can play guitar and sing sngs under trees.They can g swimming, t. What abut the parents? Fathers usually play with their children.Mthers can have a nice cl drink n the beach. What a happy time!
56、57题简略回答问题；58题找出文中第三段画线“They”指代内容并写在横线上；59题将文中第二段划线句子译成汉语；60题找出并写下第二段的主题句。
56. Hw many kinds f animals are there in the passage?
57. Where can mthers have a nice cl drink?
58.
59.
60.
X. 词语运用(共10小题, 每小题1分, 计10分)
根据短文内容及所给提示，补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
Linda is my gd friend. She is an 61. (America) girl. She is frm New Yrk,the USA. Linda ften 62. (write) t me. Frm her letters, I learn smething abut her .
There are many 63. (rule) at Linda's hme. She desn't have t help her mther make dinner 64. sh e has t d the dishes. She has t help her mther d sme 65. (clean) every weekend. Every day she has t help her little brther with 66. (he) hmewrk. Linda likes animals very much. On weekends, she ften ges 67. the z near her huse. There, she takes phts f the animals and plays with them. Linda likes music, t. She can play 68. pian, and she can als sing very 69. (gd). Her dream is t be a 70. (sing).
XI. 基础写作(15 分)
A.连词成句 (共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 计 5 分)
将所给单词连成句子， 标点已给出。要求： 符合语法， 语句通顺， 大小 写正确， 词语不得重复使用。
71. yu, may, questins, I, ask, sme
?
72. up, d, time, yu, get, what
?
73. five, at, in the mrning, get, I, up
74. a, is, habit, that, gd
75. late, dn't, fr, arrive, schl
B) 书面表达(10分)
76. 假如你是 Tm，请给你的新笔友 Mike 写一封信，介绍你的一些具体情况。
提示: 1. What can yu d?
2. Hw d yu g t schl?
3. What's yur favrite fd?
4. What's yur favrite animal?
注意： 1.包含提示中所有内容，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得涉及真实的人名、校名和地名；
3.词数： 60个左右。 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)
七年级英语参考答案
听力部分：每小题1分，计25分。
1-5 AABBC 6-10 CBCAB 11-15 ABABB 16-20 CCACC
21. furth 22. night 23. breakfast 24. subway 25. August
单选：（每小题1分，计10分） 26-30. ABCDA 31-35. BCABC
完形填空：（每小题1分，计10分） 36-40. BDBCA 41-45. ACCDB
阅读理解：（每小题2分，计20分） 46-50. ADABB 51-55. CBAAD
任务型阅读.（每小题2分，计10分）
56. Three. 57. On the beach. 58. Children 59. 考拉是澳大利亚的标志之一。
60. It’s a gd place fr children t d many things.
词语运用：（每小题1分，计10分）
61. American 62. writes 63. rules 64. but 65. cleaning
66. his 67. t 68. the 69. well 70. singer
连词成句（每小题1分，计5分）
71.May I ask yu sme questins?72. What time d yu get up?
73.I get up at five in the mrning.74. That is a gd habit.
75. Dn’t arrive late fr schl.
书面表达:（计10分）
Dear Mike，
I’m yur new pen pal. My name is Tm. I want t tell yu smething abut me.
I like t play the guitar and I can play it well. What’s mre, I am gd at telling stries. I usually walk t schl. It takes me 20 minutes t g t schl. I like t eat vegetables and fruit. I think they are gd fr my health. I like pandas because they are cute and smart. But they are in great danger. I want t help and save them .
Can I knw mre abut yu ? I hpe t get yur e - mail sn.
Tm
评分标准：
一档9~10分包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档7~8分基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档5~6分包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档3~4分只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档0~2分只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
Family Rules
1. Get up at 6:00 am and g t bed by 10:00 pm.
2. Dn't talk ludly in the rm.
3. Clean yur bedrm every day.
4. Wash yur skirts and T-shirts.
5. Dn't meet friends befre yu finish yur hmewrk.
. Rules
1. Cme int the rm with clean shes.
2. Dn't eat r drink in the rm.
3. Dn't talk ludly in the rm.
4. Turn n the cmputers and turn ff them after class.
Dear Mike,
I'm yur new pen pal. My name is Tm. I want t tell yu smething abut me.
Can I knw mre abut yu? I hpe t get yur e-mail sn.
Tm
注意事项： 1. 本试卷共6页， 总分100分， 考试时间90分钟
2. 请将答案写在答题卡上。
听力部分
I. 听句子， 选出句子中所包含的信息。 (共5小题，每小题1分.计5分)
1. A. leg B. luck C. life
2. A.6:45 B.7:00 C 7:15
3. A. take a walk B. take a shwer C. take a pht
4. A. She is a kind girl.
B. She is a little bit lazy.
C. She is a kind but lazy girl.
5. A. He is telling yu t have dinner quickly.
B. He is asking yu what t have fr dinner.
C. He is inviting(邀请) yu t have dinner with him.
II.听句子， 选出该句的最佳答语。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
6. A. I want t jin the art club. B. Yes, I can. C . I can play sccer.
7. A. By bike. B. At eight ’clck. C. Five kilmeters.
8. A. They like bananas. B. They're black and white. C. Because they're cute.
9. A. Yeah, I'd lve t. B. See yu then. C. Nt much.
10. A. It's windy. B. Hell, Alice speaking. C. She is frm Mexic.
III.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
11. Where is Alice?
12. What is Jane ding?
13. What can Tm d nw? Play sccer.
A. D his hmewrk. B. Watch TV.
14. When des Susan get up very late? On Sunday.
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday.
15. What des Mary mean(意思是)?
A. She will g t the shw.
B. She can't g t the shw.
C. She ften ges t the shw.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
16. Hw many peple are there in Green's family?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
17. Where is Mrs. Green?
A. On the playgrund. B. In the dinning hall. C. In the kitchen.
18. What dcs Sam d after he gets up?
A. He puts n his ld T-shirt. B. He washes his face. C. He finds a new T-shirt.
19. What des Sam have this mrning?
A. Fruits. B. Bread. C. Nthing
20. What d we knw frm the stry?
A. Sam is in the basketball team.
B. Mum will drive Sam t schl.
C. Bth Sam and his mum get up late.
V. 听短文填空。 (共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
Infrmatin Sheet
21. The rms: n the flr
22. The price: $100 fr a
23. The : free frm 7:00 t 9:00
24. One mre thing: a statin nearby
25. Arriving time: n 20th
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择(共10小题， 每小题1分， 计 10分。选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项)
26. Her is t be a great musician.
A. dream B. habit C. wrk D. hmewrk
27. I can't play tennis, but I am gd playing ftball.
A. with B. at C. f D. fr
28. Let's g t the t see the lins this weekend.
A. bridge B. pl C. z D. club
29. Cars, buses and bikes st p when the traffic light(交通灯) is red.
A. can B. may C. need D. must
30.——D yu like yur new math teacher?
——Yes, she is very . But smetimes she is strict with us.
A. friendly B. lazy C. scary D. dirty
31. Please the rules. Be quiet and be a gd visitr in the museum!
A. practise B. fllw C. frget D. save
32. Yu can take fthe tw bks and leave the ther fr yur brther.
A. any B. it C. either D. sme
33.——Hw abut with me after dinner?
—Sunds gd. It's gd exercise.
A. taking a walk B. taking a shwer
C. ging t the mvies D. ding the hmewrk
34. Judy kids(孩子们) English in a schl frm Mnday t Friday.
A. teach B. teaches C. is teaching D. taught
35. Mr Green thebus. Dn't talk t him. It's dangerus.
A. drive B. drives C. is driving D. drve
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 计10分)
Summer vacatin is cming. The Greens are taking a 36 t Sanya in Hainan Prvince.Hw will 37 g there? The Green family have 38 ideas.
The sn Dale says,“Let's take the train. Taking a jurney(旅程) by train is really 39 .We 40 enjy the beautiful scenery(风景) frm utside the windw.”
The daughter Alice says,“But the train statin is far frm ur hme. If we get there by train,we have t leave hme early. S let's drive a car.”
“Why?”asks Dale.
“Because we can 41 at any time n ur way.”answers Alice.
“But I think taking a jurney by car is bring. What abut taking a bus?”asks Dale.
“Oh, I dn't like that. There are always 42 peple n the bus, and it takes a(n) 43time.”says Alice.
Then they g t ask their parents fr ideas. Mr. Green wants t take the plane because it's the fastest way. He says that they shuldn't spend t much time n the way, 44 they wn't have much time t visit the city. But Mrs. Green wants t g by ship, because it is cheap and they can 45 sme mney. Which d yu think is the best way?
36. A. class B. trip C. walk D. shwer
37. A. she B. he C. it D. they
38. A. big B. different C. gd D. interesting
39. A. tiring B. surprising C. relaxing D. bring
40. A. can B. have t C. need D. must
41. A. stp B. start C. drink D. eat
42. A. t much B. much t C. t many D. a few
43. A. easy B. hard C. lng D. shrt
44. A. but B. and C. s D. r
45. A. waste B. save C. need D. use
VIII. 阅读理解(共 10 小题,每小题2分, 计 20分)
A
46. Which wrd (s) can be filled in the blank (空格) ?
A. Cmputer Rm. B. Library. C. Classrm. D. Supermarket.
47. Which f the fllwing is right?
A. Yu can g t bed after 10:00 pm.
B. Yu must wear skirts and T-shirts.
C. Yu can nt meet friends at any time.
D. Yu can't talk ludly in bth f the tw kinds f rules.
B
My name is James. I am in Grade 7. Many students in ur schl g t schl by bike. I am ne f them, t. I think it is healthy and it is a kind f exercise.
One day, I am n my way hme. It is nt fine, s I want t g hme early. I listen t music and dn't watch a car. Then it hits(撞) me. Luckily, the driver and I are fine.
After that, I dn't ride fr a lng time, and I learn sme things abut riding safely(安全地). Wear right clthes and shes t ride a bike. T ride safely, we can wear red r yellw but nt black clthes at night, in the early mrning r in bad weather. We need t wear trusers but nt a skirt. The shes can be sprts shes. Dn't listen t music when riding a bike.
It is really fun t g t schl by bike, but please ride safely.
48. Hw des James g t schl?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus. D. On ft.
49. What can yu d t ride safely?
①wear black clthes at night ②ride in gd weather
③wear sprts shes ④listen t music when riding
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ③④ D. ①④
50. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. James is in Grade Eight.
B. Riding a bike is a kind f exercise..
C. A bike hits James n his way hme.
D. After the accident James never rides t schl.
C
Every student wants t have a gd schl day. Hw can we d that? I think my schl life can give yu sme help.
Every day I get up early. After that I make my bed tidy and clean. Then I brush my teeth and wash my face. It's imprtant t wear right clthes. If I have P. E. that day, I'll wear my sprts clthes and shes. Befre I g t schl, I usually have smething t eat at hme. My favrite fd is bread and milk.
At schl, I listen t my teachers carefully(认真地). I'll ask my teachers and classmates fr help if I dn't understand. I als like t make friends. I make many friends at schl. I always talk with them r play sprts with them after class.
After schl, I usually walk hme. I take a walk after dinner. Then I d my hmewrk.After I finish the hmewrk, I g t take a shwer. Then I g t bed.
51. What des the writer(作者) like best?
A. Playing sccer. B. Playing chess. C. Mil k and bread D. Eggs and milk.
52. What des the underlined wrd“understand”mean in Chinese?
A. 听说 B. 理解 C. 举手 D. 回答
53. Wh prbably(可能) wrte this passage?
A. Lisa, a student. B. Lucy, a teacher. C. Bill, a musician. D. Bb, a wrker.
54. What can we knw abut the writer frm this passage?
A. He talks with his friends after class. B. He wears the same clthes every day.
C. He finishes his hmewrk at schl. D. He desn't like t d sprts.
55. What's the best title fr this passage?
A. Hw Can I Make Gd Friends B. Hw Can I Be a Gd Student
C. Hw Can I Get Up Early D. Hw Can I Have a Gd Schl Day
IX.任务型阅读。 根据短文内容， 完成下面任务。 (共5小题， 每小题2分， 计10分)
Suth Australia is a very great place t visit. It's beautiful and clean. There are a lt f animals, beautiful flwers and interesting places. The weather is usually very nice. Yu can d many things there.
It's a gd place fr children t d many things. They can have a lt f fun. They can run arund with the animals. They can swim with sea lins and dlphins(海豚). They can als tuch (抚摸) the kalas because they are very friendly. The kala is ne f Austrilia's symbls.
The lng beach is a gd place t relax. Children can play guitar and sing sngs under trees.They can g swimming, t. What abut the parents? Fathers usually play with their children.Mthers can have a nice cl drink n the beach. What a happy time!
56、57题简略回答问题；58题找出文中第三段画线“They”指代内容并写在横线上；59题将文中第二段划线句子译成汉语；60题找出并写下第二段的主题句。
56. Hw many kinds f animals are there in the passage?
57. Where can mthers have a nice cl drink?
58.
59.
60.
X. 词语运用(共10小题, 每小题1分, 计10分)
根据短文内容及所给提示，补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
Linda is my gd friend. She is an 61. (America) girl. She is frm New Yrk,the USA. Linda ften 62. (write) t me. Frm her letters, I learn smething abut her .
There are many 63. (rule) at Linda's hme. She desn't have t help her mther make dinner 64. sh e has t d the dishes. She has t help her mther d sme 65. (clean) every weekend. Every day she has t help her little brther with 66. (he) hmewrk. Linda likes animals very much. On weekends, she ften ges 67. the z near her huse. There, she takes phts f the animals and plays with them. Linda likes music, t. She can play 68. pian, and she can als sing very 69. (gd). Her dream is t be a 70. (sing).
XI. 基础写作(15 分)
A.连词成句 (共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 计 5 分)
将所给单词连成句子， 标点已给出。要求： 符合语法， 语句通顺， 大小 写正确， 词语不得重复使用。
71. yu, may, questins, I, ask, sme
?
72. up, d, time, yu, get, what
?
73. five, at, in the mrning, get, I, up
74. a, is, habit, that, gd
75. late, dn't, fr, arrive, schl
B) 书面表达(10分)
76. 假如你是 Tm，请给你的新笔友 Mike 写一封信，介绍你的一些具体情况。
提示: 1. What can yu d?
2. Hw d yu g t schl?
3. What's yur favrite fd?
4. What's yur favrite animal?
注意： 1.包含提示中所有内容，可适当发挥；
2.文中不得涉及真实的人名、校名和地名；
3.词数： 60个左右。 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)
七年级英语参考答案
听力部分：每小题1分，计25分。
1-5 AABBC 6-10 CBCAB 11-15 ABABB 16-20 CCACC
21. furth 22. night 23. breakfast 24. subway 25. August
单选：（每小题1分，计10分） 26-30. ABCDA 31-35. BCABC
完形填空：（每小题1分，计10分） 36-40. BDBCA 41-45. ACCDB
阅读理解：（每小题2分，计20分） 46-50. ADABB 51-55. CBAAD
任务型阅读.（每小题2分，计10分）
56. Three. 57. On the beach. 58. Children 59. 考拉是澳大利亚的标志之一。
60. It’s a gd place fr children t d many things.
词语运用：（每小题1分，计10分）
61. American 62. writes 63. rules 64. but 65. cleaning
66. his 67. t 68. the 69. well 70. singer
连词成句（每小题1分，计5分）
71.May I ask yu sme questins?72. What time d yu get up?
73.I get up at five in the mrning.74. That is a gd habit.
75. Dn’t arrive late fr schl.
书面表达:（计10分）
Dear Mike，
I’m yur new pen pal. My name is Tm. I want t tell yu smething abut me.
I like t play the guitar and I can play it well. What’s mre, I am gd at telling stries. I usually walk t schl. It takes me 20 minutes t g t schl. I like t eat vegetables and fruit. I think they are gd fr my health. I like pandas because they are cute and smart. But they are in great danger. I want t help and save them .
Can I knw mre abut yu ? I hpe t get yur e - mail sn.
Tm
评分标准：
一档9~10分包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档7~8分基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档5~6分包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档3~4分只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档0~2分只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
Family Rules
1. Get up at 6:00 am and g t bed by 10:00 pm.
2. Dn't talk ludly in the rm.
3. Clean yur bedrm every day.
4. Wash yur skirts and T-shirts.
5. Dn't meet friends befre yu finish yur hmewrk.
. Rules
1. Cme int the rm with clean shes.
2. Dn't eat r drink in the rm.
3. Dn't talk ludly in the rm.
4. Turn n the cmputers and turn ff them after class.
Dear Mike,
I'm yur new pen pal. My name is Tm. I want t tell yu smething abut me.
Can I knw mre abut yu? I hpe t get yur e-mail sn.
Tm
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