湖南省永州市新田县2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末英语试题(含答案)
展开新田县2022年下期义务教育学业质量监测卷
八年级英语
满分:150分 考试时量:120分钟
第一部分 听力技能(共两节,20分)
第一节(共5分,每小题 1分)听下面五段材料,每段材料后各有1个小题,从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
( )1. What did Andy do last night?
A. B. C.
( )2. What does Grace want to be?
A. B. C.
( )3. What book is Tony reading?
A. B. C.
( )4. What will the woman get for the man?
A. B. C.
( )5. Who like eating vegetables?
A. B. C.
第二节(共15分,每小题1分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第一段材料,回答第6~7题。
( )6. What does Joan think of game shows?
A. She can’t stand them. B. She doesn’t mind them. C. She loves them.
( )7. Which program will Joan and her father watch?
A. The Voice of China. B. Street Dance of China. C. A Bite of China.
听第二段材料,回答第8~9题。
( )8. How was John’s vacation?
A. It was boring. B. It was relaxing. C. It was great.
( )9. Who didn’t go out on vacation?
A. Jeny. B. John. C. John’s parents.
听第三段材料,回答第10~11题。
( )10. What does Tony think the future will be like?
A. Cities will be more beautiful.
B. Cities will be more polluted.
C. There will be more tree.
( )11. What are they talking about?
A. How to plant trees. B. How to use less water. C. How to save the earth.
听第四段材料,回答第12~14题。
( )12. What does the man say about the Miller’s?
A. It has the best service. B. It has the best clothes. C. It’s six kilometers away.
( )13. How will the speakers go to Dream Clothes?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. On foot.
( )14. What can the speakers do in the Dave’s?
A. Buy cheaper clothes. B. Have some pizza. C. See a movie.
听第五段材料,回答第15~17题。
( )15. What day is it tomorrow?
A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
( )16. Which is the largest swimming pool?
A. Park Swimming Pool. B. Green Swimming Pool. C. Center Swimming Pool.
( )17. Why don’t Sally and Nick go to Green Swimming Pool?
A. Because it’s the most crowded.
B. Because it has the worst service.
C. Because it’s the most expensive.
听第六段材料,回答第18~20题。
( )18. When did Kelly invite her friends to her party?
A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Sunday.
( )19. How many friends will come to Kelly’s party?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 9
( )20. What will Kelly and her friends do if they feel tired?
A. Watch TV. B. Dance together. C. Listen to music
第二部分 阅读技能(共两节,50分)
第一节 阅读选择(共40分,每小题2分)阅读下面的材料,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳答案,并填涂在答题卡上。
A
·The 22nd World Cup Football Match
·The first World Cup football match in the Middle East countries, the second time in Asia
·The Qatar World Cup is the first World Cup football match that isn’t held in summer.
·Start on November 21, end on December 18.
( )21. The 22nd World Cup Football Match is ______ time held in Asia.
A. first B. second C. third
( )22. When is the World Cup held in 2022?
A. In summer. B. In winter. C. In autumn.
B
Recipe
Ingredients:
2 kilos of duck (鸭肉), some duck blood (血), 5 green peppers and 5 red peppers, 6 pieces of ginger (姜), half cup of oil, 3 spoons of salt, some garlic (蒜)
Steps:
*Wash the duck and cut it into pieces.
*Cut all the peppers, ginger and garlic into pieces.
*Put the pan on the gas cooker and turn on the gas cooker. When the pan is warm, pour the oil into it.
*Fry the duck for 10 minutes.
*Then add the peppers, ginger, salt, garlic and some water, cook for another 10 minutes.
*Add the blood to the meat and mix them together.
*Finally, place it in a big bowl and enjoy it.
( )23. In this recipe, we need ______ peppers.
A. 5 B. 6 C. 10
( )24. How many steps do we need to cook the dish?
A. Eight. B. Six. C. Seven.
( )25. The reading material above tells us how to make ______.
A. Xintian Fried Duck B. Xintian Blood Duck C. Xintian Pepper Duck
C
A Foolish (愚蠢) Chicken
Christmas was coming. Mr Smith had no money to buy any presents for his children. His wife was ill and he spent a lot of money on her medicine. And the harvest was bad and all his family were going go be hungry the next spring. He was quite worried about it.
“We had only a cock (公鸡),” said Mrs Smith one day. “You’d better take it to the town. Sell it there and buy some cakes and sweets for our children.”
“It’s a good idea!” the man said and caught the cock the next morning and put it into a box. It was difficult to walk on the road covered with thick snow. Two hours later he was very tired and wanted to have a rest. He put the box to the ground and sat down.
“The air in the box must be close,” the man said to himself. “I should let the cock walk outside for a while, or it’ll die.”
So he put the cock to the ground. When he started again, he couldn’t catch it any longer.
“How foolish you are!” Mr Smith called out angrily. “You can herald (预测) the break of day at night but you can’t find the way to the town in the daytime!”
( )26. Why did Mr Smith had no money to buy any presents for his children?
A. Because he was ill.
B. Because the harvest was bad
C. Because his family were going go be hungry.
( )27. What did Mr. Smith want to buy for his childre on Christmas?
A. Some cakes and sweets B. A cock C. A box.
( )28. How was Mr. Smith after he walked for two hours?
A. He was relax. B. He was cold. C. He was tired.
( )29. From the story, we know the cock ______.
A. died B. didn’t find the way C. was lost
( )30. Who do you think was foolish?
A. Mrs. Smith. B. Mr. Smith. C. The cock.
D
Do you know what a smart city is like? A smart city uses digital technology (数字技术), such as 5G network (网络), to make people live a more comfortable life. For example, we can use cameras and 5G network to check our houses. So we can easily know how much water and electricity (电) we used in the past month. And we can find out any problems in our houses in time.
In fact, some cities around the world are already using smart technologies to improve people’s lives. In Baltimore, the US, every family has a smart rubbish bin (垃圾箱). It will ask you to clean it when it is full. In Amsterdam, there is a machine that can tell you the latest traffic situation. You can always know the newest information about the road. And then you can choose a right time to go out, so there are fewer traffic jams (堵车) in the city. In Qingdao, China, people’s homes, government buildings, hospitals and streets are all “online”. By using a smart card, people can open doors, pay money and check their health information.
Of course, it will take time to build smart cities. Today the world has a population of about seven billion. Although not all the people can live in a smart city, it’s expected that more than 60 percent of the world’s population will live in smart cities by 2050.
( )31. What can we know about a smart city?
A. It uses 5G network to build the houses.
B. It uses digital technologies to improve people’s lives.
C. It needs more water and electricity than a common city.
( )32. The underlined word “latest” in Paragraph 2 means ______ in Chinese.
A. 正确的 B. 最新的 C. 繁忙的
( )33. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. All cities around the world are using smart technologies.
B. The rubbish bin can clean itself in Baltimore.
C. People can use a smart card to open the door in Qingdao, China.
( )34. It’s expected that about ______ people can live in smart cities by 2050.
A. 4.2 billion B. 7 billion C. 2.8 billion
( )35. The best title of this passage is ______.
A. What Are Smart Cities Like
B. How to Build Smart Cities
C. 5G Network in Smart Cities
E
Do you know Black Friday? It is the day following Thanksgiving Day (the fourth Thursday of November) in the United States. People think it means the beginning of the Christmas shopping season in the US, and most stores and shopping malls open very early. Things will be on great sale for people to buy.
Black Friday is not a holiday, but California and some other states (州) in the USA see it as a holiday just for some people who don’t work in shops like officers, teachers and students. They can have holidays both on Thanksgiving and on the following Friday. In this way, they make it a four-day weekend, so more people can go shopping during these days. It is the busiest shopping day of the whole year in America. Like the Double Eleventh Day in China.
Black Friday first appeared in Philadelphia. People used the word to describe the heavy traffic jam (堵塞) and the most crowded streets on the day after Thanksgiving, because people all went into the shopping malls and shops to buy things they wanted. It brought a lot of trouble to the drivers and policemen. And also on this day, the business could move into “black”, and this meant that it helped the shop owners make a lot of money. That was why people called it “Black Friday”. More than twenty years later, the phrase became more and more popular.
( )36. Black Friday is ______.
A. on the fourth Friday of November
B. the day following Christmas
C. the day before Thanksgiving
( )37. ______ don’t have a four-day weekend in the states in some states in the USA.
A. The students B. The salesmen C. The officers
( )38. Which of the following is NOT the reason why people called it “Black Friday”?
A. The traffic jam was heavy.
B. The business could move into “black”.
C. It couldn’t help shop owners make money.
( )39. Where did Black Friday start?
A. California. B. China. C. Philadelphia
( )40. The best title for this passage is ______.
A. The Meaning of Thanksgiving Day
B. The story about Black Friday
C. Black Friday in the USA
第二节 阅读匹配(共10分,每小题2分)阅读下面的短文,从所给的A~F六个选项中,选出正确的答案填空,使短文通顺,内容完整,并填涂在答题卡上,其中选项中有一项是多余的。
Some students don’t like math. 41 But others think it is easy and interesting. And here is what you can do.
Listen well in class.
The math teacher knows much. When you listen well, you can know much, too. 42 And you can ask your math teacher for help if you don’t know in class.
43 Your math teacher isn’t always with you. When you find a problem is too difficult, you can ask your classmate, too. A classmate is a good friend. 44
Practice it every day.
Do you want to be good at math? It needs time. You can’t learn it well in a day. 45 Math is a great subject. Let’s learn it well.
A. Ask your classmate for help.
B. They think it’s difficult.
C. He or She must be happy to help you.
D. So be a careful student and listen well.
E. So practice it every day, and you can find it easy.
F. We should help each other.
第三部分 知识运用(共两节,20分)
第一节 词语填空(共10分,每小题1分)通读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并填涂在答题卡上。
One day, I came home from school and I felt terrible. I had tried out for (参加…选拔) the school volleyball team, 46 I didn’t make it. I didn’t want to talk to anyone. My mother was worried and she sent me to 47 my uncle who lived close by.
My uncle welcomed me at his home. Over dinner, he gave me some good 48 . He said, “Tommy, I’m proud (自豪的) of you for trying out for the volleyball team. Do you know what I do? Every year, I make a promise to myself to try one new thing— 49 a new sport, a new book, a new friend or a new hobby. Trying new things helps you 50 .”
It sounded interesting. I decided to try his advice that day. I took a 51 route (路线) to go home first.
On the new route I saw some boys playing baseball. I thought about what my 52 had said. It took some courage (勇气) to walk to the boys, but soon I was playing with 53 and having fun. From then on, I played with them every week.
A year later, I made the school baseball team. And I’m 54 having fun playing baseball with those boys every week. I found this happiness because I 55 something new.
( )46. A. so B. if C. but
( )47. A. serve B. visit C. invite
( )48. A. advice B. promises C. practice
( )49. A. from B. like C. with
( )50. A. put up B. wake up C. grow up
( )51. A. different B. similar C. long
( )52. A. mother B. uncle C. teacher
( )53. A. her B. him C. them
( )54. A. ever B. only C. still
( )55. A. saw B. played C. tried
第二节 语法填空(共10分,每小题1分)阅读下面的材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(限1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式,使句子通顺完整。
56. —What’s your sister’s job?
—She is ______ actress and she acted in many movies
57. Can you speak a little ______ (loud), please? I didn’t hear you just now.
58. Nothing is ______ (possible) if you work hard.
59. I like Irving and Curry very much, and I ______ (be) a basketball player like them in the future.
60. My little sister is ______ young to go to school alone.
61. Study hard and we can look forward to ______ (have) a better future.
62. ______ Susan keeps eating junk food like that, she’ll get fatter and fatter.
63. —How often do you shop?
—I shop ______ (one) a month.
64. —How many ______ (language) can you speak? —Three.
65. Mulan dresses ______ (she) up like a boy and takes her father’s place to fight in the army.
第四部分 写作技能(共三节,30分)
第一节 回答问题(共10分,每小题2分)阅读下面的短文,然后根据短文内容回答问题,并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Every year on April 22, people all over the world celebrate Earth Day. It is a time to work to keep our earth clean. People plan projects to clean up the land, air and water. U. S. Senator Gay lord Nelson first thought of the idea for Earth Day in 1962 when he saw polluted rivers and cities with smoke. He needed to get support from Americans to clean up the earth. Finally, on April 22, 1970, 20 million Americans celebrated the first Earth Day! Now many countries around the world celebrate it, and you can, too.
How can you celebrate Earth Day? Here are a few ideas:
·Join a clean-up project: Clean up your street or a favorite beach.
·Save energy: Turn off the lights when you leave a room, and use public transportation.
·Use less water.
·Reduce (减少)/Reuse (再使用)/ Recycle (回收): Practice the three Rs. First, reduce how much you use. Then reuse or recycle what you can.
You can make a difference on Earth Day and every day!
66. When is Earth Day? __________________________________________________________
67. What’s the idea for Earth Day? _________________________________________________
68. How many people celebrated the Earth Day first in the US? __________________________
69. Should we take a bus or subway more to save energy? ______________________________
70. What are the three Rs? _______________________________________________________
第二节 语篇翻译(共8分,每小题2分)阅读下面的短文,然后将划线部分的句子译成汉语或英语,并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Today is my birthday. 71.今天是星期六,7月28号。 I had an English lesson in the afternoon. My foreign teacher, Iryan had a birthday party for me in the lesson.
72. When I came into the classroom, I saw a big card on the blackboard. It was very beautiful. And everybody blessed me. Oh, our teacher came in and said “Hi, children. Today is Angel’s birthday. Let’s have a birthday party.” “Ok”, we cheered. First, we ate a cake. It was big and nice. 73.蛋糕上有一只米老鼠。We all liked Mickey Mouse. Then we ate the cake. Finally, we took some photos. How happy we were!
74. On the second class, our teacher asked us to make a birthday card. She prepared a lot of materials. There was pleating paper, plastic paper, cloth, two kinds of paperboard, caddice, color pens, glue and scissors. I must make a card for my teacher. We all did very well. Everyone was very happy today.
I like the birthday party. I will remember the fourteenth birthday of mine because of the party.
71. _________________________________________________________________________________________
72. _________________________________________________________________________________________
73. _________________________________________________________________________________________
74. _________________________________________________________________________________________
第三节 情景作文(12分)
北京时间2022年 11月30日7时33分,翘盼已久的神舟十四号航天员乘组顺利打开“家门”,热情欢迎远道而来的亲人入驻“天宫”。随后,“胜利会师”的两个航天员乘组,一起在中国人自己的“太空家园”里留下了一张足以载入史册的太空合影。看到这么令人激动的场面,你想在下周的英语演讲中告诉同学们你的“宇航员梦”。
请根据下面的提示,以“My dream job”为主题写一篇英语演讲稿,介绍你的梦想。
要求:70词左石,开头和结尾已经给出,不计入总词数。
梦想做一名字航员(astronaut)原因:
1.对太空的一切很感兴趣;2.想知道没有重力(gravity)的时候怎么生存
最想去的星球:月球(因为想漫步月球,拍很多照片)
为实现梦想会做的努力:1.多读有关太空的书;2.至少补充两点
My dream job
Hello, everyone!
Last week, I saw the news about the astronauts in Shenzhou 15 and the astronauts in Shenzhou 14 got together in space. I was very excited. Because my dream is ____________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you for listening
新田县2022年下期义务教育学业质量监测卷
八年级 英语
听力技能
1--5 BCCBB 6--10 CACAB 11--15 CBABB 16--20 CACBA
阅读技能
21--25 BBCCB 26--30 BACCB 31--35 BBCAA 36--40 ABCCC
41--45 BDACE
知识运用
46--50 CBABC 51--55 ABCCC
语法填空
56.an 57.more loudly 58.impossible 59.will be 60.too
61.having 62.If 63.once 64.languages 65.herself
写作技能
66. On April 22. / It’s on April 22.
67. To keep our earth clean.
68. 20 million.
69. Yes ,we should./Yes.
70. Reduce, reuse and recycle.
71. It is Saturday, the twenty-eighth of July./ It is Saturday, July 28.
72. 当我进入教室,我看见黑板上的一张大卡片。
73. There was a Mickey Mouse on the cake.
74. 在第二课时,我们老师要求我们制作一张生日卡片。
75. 书面表达
One possible version
My dream of being an astronaut
Hello, everyone!
Last week, I saw the news about the astronauts in Shenzhou 15 and the astronauts in Shenzhou 14 got together in space. I was very excited. Because my dream is to be an astronaut. Why? Because I’m interested in everything in space. And I want to know how people live without gravity.
The planet I’d like to go to best is the Moon. If I get to the Moon one day, I’ll walk on it. I’ll also take many photos of it.
In order to make my dream come true, I will read a lot of books about space and watch many films about space. I will also do exercises every day to keep healthy. And I have to study hard and I can go to the university after high school.
I think as long as I work hard, my dream can come true one day.
That’s all. Thank you for listening.
三、评分标准
1.客观题(选择题)第1~20小题,第46~55小题,每小题1分。第21~45小题,每小题2分。
评分说明:
只选唯一正确答案才给分;多选、错选、不选、涂改不清的答案均不给分。
2.主观题(非选择题)第56~65小题(语法填空),每小题1分,满分10分;第66~70小题(回答问题),每小题2分,满分10分;第71~74小题(语篇翻译),每小题2分,满分8分;第75小题(书面表达),满分12分。
评分说明:
(1)语法填空(第56~65小题):
①单词错误,漏写或多写单词,记0分;
②全对记1分。
(2)回答问题(第66~70小题):
①无可读信息,记0分;
②有可读信息,但有个别单词错误,漏写或多写不影响理解的词汇,记1分;
③信息完整记2分。
(3)语篇翻译(第71~74小题):
①英译汉:
句意表达基本完整,但有不影响理解的中文错别字,记1分;
句意表达准确、完整,记2分。
②汉译英:
无有效信息,记0分;
有可读信息,但有个别单词错误,漏写或多写不影响理解的词汇,记1分;
句子无结构性错误,句意表达准确、完整,记2分。
(4)书面表达(第75小题):
①无词或与主题不相关的语句,记0分;
②无可读句,但有较多与主题相关词汇,记1~3分;
③有可读句,但有较多不影响理解的错误,记4~6分;
④基本可读,主题明确,有部分不影响理解的错误,记7~9分;
⑤语句完整,意思连贯,主题明确,语法正确,字数足够,句式多样,记10~12分;
⑥没有达到规定词数,或书写潦草、涂改且看不清楚的,酌情扣1~3分。
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