2023年广东省广州市中考英语真题（含答案）

这是一份2023年广东省广州市中考英语真题（含答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

秘密★启用前
2023年广州市初中学业水平考试
英语
考生号：________ 姓名：________
本试卷共12页（改A4纸后只有9页），四大题，满分90分。考试用时100分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的考生号、姓名；将自己的条形码粘贴在答题卡的“条形码粘贴处”。
2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。答案不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题答案必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔写在答题卡各题目指定区域内的相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，改动后的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔，涂改液和修正带。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁，考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、语法选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1~15各题所给的A，B，C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was a beautiful spring day in a forest in ancient China. High up in a tree, a mother bird was watching 1 six baby birds come out of the eggs lovingly. Five of them were strong. They chirped loudly. But 2 last one that came out was not strong at all. This little one 3 Little Six. He was weak and quiet. He was not fast enough 4 the worms (虫子) Mama Bird brought back. Little Six ate 5 food, so he was always hungry. And he didn't like that.
Little Six didn't have a strong body. 6 he had a strong will. He decided 7 he would get stronger. He would do exercises and flap (拍动) his wings every day.
Every morning, Little Six would rise 8 the sun even came up. When his brothers and sisters woke, Little Six had already finished all his exercises. Morning after morning, he practiced 9 his wings, and they were getting stronger and stronger. He always got the first worms Mama brought back home.
All through the spring. Little Six woke up 10 than his brothers and sisters. Week after week, he worked harder than they did. He 11 eat big meals and did not go hungry any more.
After a couple of months, all the baby birds had grown well. Mama Bird brought them together and 12 them to fly. 13 everyone's surprise, Little Six was the first to start flying!
"Chirp! Chirp! 14 at me!" Little Six cried 15 while his brothers and sisters still fought hard, trying to fly up.
1. A. she B. her C. hers D. herself
2. A. a B. an C. the D. /
3. A. called B. was calling C. was called D. were called
4. A. get B. got C. getting D. to get
5. A. little B. few C. much D. many
6. A. and B. but C. because D. so
7. A. what B. why C. when D. that
8. A. before B. after C. until D. if
9. A. flap B. to flap C. flapping D. flapped
10. A. early B. earlier C. earliest D. the earliest
11. A. could B. might C. should D. must
12. A. teach B. teaches C. taught D. will teach
13. A. In B. To C. For D. At
14. A. Look B. Looks C. To look D. Looking
15. A. happy B. happier C. happiness D. happily
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从16~25各题所给的A，B，C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Almost everyone has a dream job, and for Susan, it is being a whale (鯨) trainer at her city's aquarium (水族馆). Last year, Susan finally had a (n) 16 , but it was more than just signing up. People who wanted this job had to take part in a competition. They need to show how 17 they could go down into the seven-metre-deep pool that housed the whales and how long they could stay there. The one who could reach the deepest and stay the longest underwater would get the job.
Susan signed up to try out, and everything went 18 at first. But then, as she went down to about five metres under the icy water, her legs stopped 19 . The cold water caused a huge pain in her legs. She was unable to swim back to the surface. She was in great fear and couldn't think. This only caused her to 20 farther into the pool. Just as Susan 21 hope, she suddenly felt herself being pushed to the surface.
It was Mila, a whale in the pool. She noticed Susan's 22 , held her leg in her mouth and pushed Susan up to the surface. Susan was 23 , thanks to Mila's quick action. The aquarium spokesperson said Susan was really 24 , because Mila had realized Susan needed help before any of the working group did, which saved valuable time.
"Whales are 25 animals-they live and play together. In the wild, they show great interest in humans and often swim close to boats and divers."
16. A. chance B. job C. dream D. idea
17. A. soon B. far C. often D. hard
18. A. close B. deep C. late D. well
19. A. trying B. hurting C. working D. resting
20. A. drop B. swim C. jump D. search
21. A. gave away B. gave in C. gave out D. gave up
22. A. look B. trouble C. move D. place
23. A. changed B. lost C. chosen D. saved
24. A. lucky B. brave C. afraid D. sad
25. A. funny B. lonely C. social D. strong
三、阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从26~40各题所给的A，B，C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
(A)

My friend keeps copying my look, but I like looking special.
What should I do?-Ann

The important thing is to tell your friend the truth without hurting her feelings. To do that, you can talk to her using kind words and not feeling angry. You can offer her your advice on popular dressing or even suggest wearing clothes that go together. This way you'll still look like each other, but not twins!
My room is always messy.
No matter what I do, I can't keep it clean!-Mike
Here are some great ways to make your room a bit tidier. Start by picking up things you don't use or want anymore. You can give them away to those in need. Less things means less mess! Then, try to make it a habit to put away things after you use them. Done with your sports shoes for the day? Back where they should be. Finally, set a timer for five minutes each night to clean any mess!
I'm sad because I have to go to a summer camp.
I just want to have a summer like my friends. Help me out!-Jessie
We're sorry you're feeling this way! The best thing to do is to look at things on the bright side. There, a new group of kids will become your friends. They'll know exactly how you feel and help you. What's more, going to a summer camp doesn't mean a terrible summer. You'll still have fun in the sun with your friends. The only question is, what are you guys going to do together?!

26. Who might be most interested in reading this passage?
A. Young sports lovers. B. Teenagers in need of help.
C. Summer camp planners. D. Kids looking for dressing ideas.
27. What problem does Mike need to solve?
A. Having an unwanted holiday plan. B. Failing to manage his time wisely.
C. Not knowing how to tidy his room. D. Unable to get on well with his friends.
28. What advice does the writer give to Jessie?
A. Tell your parents how you feel. B. Be ready to help other students.
C. Study harder in the summer camp. D. See the advantage of what you dislike.
(B)
Come on, Amy. You must TRY HARDER. Amy told herself silently. She was in her class' Second-Day-of-School Game with her teammates, whom she only met yesterday. This was her first chance to make new friends, and she was nervous.
So far Amy hadn't given any useful suggestions-after all, she was totally new to this town. Luckily, no one seemed to care about it. This relaxed her a lot.
Since the Blue Team left the park, they had worked out the first two clues (线索) and had been to the post office. Now they were in front of the cinema.
Henry was reading aloud the third clue: Go to our town founder's last resting place.
I know THIS ONE! Amy thought, excited.
"To the cemetery (墓地)" Cindy said.
"No, wait!" Amy said. "I've read about it. The founder was buried near the library."
"Wow. I've walked by every day," Tyler said. "Never knew that!"
"Good job! That will save valuable time, "Cindy smiled at Amy.
"We still need to hurry," Tyler reminded, pointing to the Yellow Team coming near.
"I know a shortcut!" Henry suggested. "Follow me!" No one moved.
"No, seriously," Henry said. "You know I'm always running late. I know every shortcut in town. "The others finally agreed.
A few sharp turns, and they were there! This time Amy read the clue aloud: Now go to the place where the football is running around!
"The football stadium!" They called out together and started to run…
Now they'd got the final clue: Look where you've been, see where you are. Use your map wisely and you'll be a star!
Looking closely at the map, everyone thought hard.
"Aha! A star!" Cindy suddenly broke the silence. She quickly took out a pencil.
As they watched her drawing lines on the map, everyone understood.
They began running back to where they started. They were closer and closer, and finally crossed the finish line-just one step behind the Red Team!
"So…close…" Tyer made a face, and they all laughed together.
"Nice job, new girl," Cindy gave Amy a high-five.
"That was really fun," said Henry. "I hope we'll be on the same team soon."
"Me, too, "Amy agreed, smiling.

29. What does the beginning of the story tell us about Amy?
A. She didn't want to play the game. B. She was a new student in her class.
C. She was a member of the Red Team. D. She didn't understand the game rules.
30. Why did the team let Henry lead the way at last?
A. He ran fastest in the team. B. They didn't know the way.
C. They trusted his rich experience. D. He was best at playing the game.
31. Where was the finish line of the game?
A. In the park. B. Next to the post office.
C. In front of the cinema. D. Outside the library.
32. Why did Amy smile at the end of the story?
A. Her team came in first. B. She was accepted as a friend.
C. She no longer felt nervous. D. There would be a game soon.
(C)
Computer scientist Mary has an idea for a new robot to help her work with children. How should it look? The robot should have arms to be able to lift things. And if it is going to communicate with people, it will also need a face. Scientists believe that giving a robot a face can make it seem more friendly. Humans would also like to pay more attention to robots with faces. But what kind?
For Mary, she wants to make sure that her new robot doesn't look too much like a human. She wants people to just treat it as a machine-person. If it looks more like a human than a machine, she thinks users might find it a bit creepy and feel afraid. Mary also believes that robot faces don't need to look a lot like ours. Her research shows that we can enjoy communicating with robots whether or not they look like humans, because our brains are able to look for faces. Just put two circles on top of a robot's body, and we will see a face.
Dave feels differently. He believes that although at first we might be afraid when seeing a robot with a lifelike face, we may soon get used to it. If robots are going to work closely with humans, they should look as much like us as possible. After all, faces are an important part of the way we communicate.
To make his robots look as much like real people as possible, Dave invented a special skin 皮肤) for their faces. With this skin, robots can show human-like expressions and appear to be angry, sad, happy or surprised. Dave's robots are also programmed to copy expressions. How? Just imagine his robot is looking at you. The cameras in its eyes send pictures of your face to its central computer!
33. Why do scientists think a robot needs a face?
A. It will become more beautiful. B. It can do better in lifting things.
C. It will pay more attention to children. D. It can better communicate with people.
34. What does the underlined word "creepy" mean in paragraph 2?
A. Uncomfortable to look at. B. Impossible to touch.
C. Boring to talk to. D. Difficult to understand.
35. Which of the following would Dave most probably agree with?
A. People should treat robots as humans.
B. Robots need to express their own feelings.
C. Robots shouldn't look too much like humans.
D. People can easily accept robots with a human face.
36. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To explain the reasons why robots should have faces.
B. To suggest what humans can do with robots with faces.
C. To share ideas on what kind of faces robots should have.
D. To show how scientists invent robots with different faces.
(D)
People believe that every word has its correct meaning(s). When we are not sure, we usually check online, or turn to our teachers or dictionaries. But do you know how dictionaries were made in the past?
Dictionary writers first read the important books of the period or the subject that the dictionary was about. As they read, they copied necessary information on cards: interesting words, common words-both in their daily uses and unusual uses, and also the sentences where they were used. That is to say, the words, along with the uses of each word, were collected. For a really big dictionary, millions of such cards were collected. This task could last for years. As the cards were collected, they were put in alphabetical order (A-Z). When this was done, there would be several hundred cards for each single word.
Then, to define (定义) a word, the dictionary writer placed its hundreds of cards before him. He read the cards closely, threw away some, read the rest again, and divided up the cards according to what he thought were the common uses of the word. Finally, he wrote the definitions, following the hard-and-fast rule: each definition must come from an example on a certain card in front of him.
So, the writing of a dictionary was not a task of inventing meanings of words, but a task of recording their meanings. The writer of a dictionary was a historian, not a law maker.
As time develops, the way of producing dictionaries has greatly changed. Nowadays, we can use online dictionaries too. When choosing our words in speaking or writing, we can be guided by the dictionary. However, we cannot be controlled by it, because new situations, new experiences, new inventions, and new feelings, are always pushing us to give new uses to old words.
37. Why did dictionary writers read important books?
A. To know more about the period. B. To collect words and their uses.
C. To understand different subjects. D. To learn to use interesting words.
38. Which shows the correct steps of how dictionaries were made in the past?

A. ①-③-④-② B. ①-②-④-③ C. ③-④-②-① D. ③-①-④-②
39. What can we learn from the passage about dictionary writing in the past?
A. It should be done by historians. B. It was a task of inventing and recording.
C. It was long-time hard work. D. It had to use the law-making rules.
40. What does the writer advise us to do when we choose words in communication?
A. Be open to the new uses of words. B. Follow the dictionary strictly.
C. Use online dictionaries instead. D. Try to create new words.
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读短文及文后A~E选项，选出可以填入41-45各题空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Years ago, green was simply a color. Now it's much more! In the 1970s, some people began to worry about what we did to mother Earth. 41 It is a big idea that touches governments all over the world, and a small idea that touches us all in our homes.
Architects (建筑师) and building engineers are thinking about how to make buildings greener. These days, green architecture is becoming more and more popular. 42
We need to be very careful about the materials (材料) we use. It is better to choose renewable materials-those that the Earth replaces quickly. 43 Also, for those materials that are not renewable, we need to use them as little as possible. Our mother Earth has offered us many other possibilities, such as wind and solar power.
Planners must think about the needs of those who will spend time in green buildings. In many cases, green energy is more comfortable for people. 44 Natural lighting is often kinder to the eyes than electric lighting. In fact, many people who live or work in green buildings report feeling happier and healthier.
45 For example, they might try to use as little land as possible. If a building covers a large area, there will be less space for plants and trees. They also have to think about cutting down waste and pollution while the building work is going on.
Although green buildings are more expensive to build, they are less expensive to run.
A. Or we can reuse some materials.
B. As a result, green thinking was born.
C. To understand it, we have to look at three different areas.
D. For example, natural wind brings people cleaner and fresher air.
E. Architects must consider what the building will do to the environment.
四、写作（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读短文，根据上下文和所给的首字母写出所缺单词。注意使用正确形式，每空限填一词。答卷时，要求写出完整单词。
Today is Duanwu Jie, or Dragon Boat Festival, one of the most important festivals in China. Chinese people (46) r________ the great patriotic poet (爱国诗人) QuYuan by rowing dragon boats and making zongzi on this day.
My village is famous for its great protection of traditional (47) c________ and we have the best dragon boat race team of the city. Every year, villagers raise our dragon boats from under the river about a month before the festival. And then it is (48) c________ cleaned and repainted. Our dragon boat is already 40 years old. Made of a special kind of wood, it is still strong enough to (49) l________ for a long time.
This year, my elder brother is accepted into our dragon boat race team as its youngest member. He's only 18, and I'm so (50) p________ of him.
第二节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所给的汉语内容，用英语完成下列句子。每空限填一词。
51. 你是否听说过一群广州学生做的数学项目？
________ you ever ________ about a maths project done by some students in Guangzhou?
52. 这些学生不但把数学学得更好，而且优化了飞镖技能。
These students ________ ________ learned their maths better, ________ ________ improved their darting skills.
53. 他们还赢得了广东省飞镖比赛冠军。多么棒的项目啊！
They won the Championship of Guangdong Darts Match, too. ________________________ project it is!
54. 我最喜爱的科目是美术。我也在思考我怎样能借助数学把画画得更好。
My favourite subject is art. I am also thinking about ________ ________ ________________ better with the help of maths.
55.我希望有一天我的绘画作品会在美术馆展出。
I hope one day my art works ________ ________ ________ in the artgallery.
第三节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
你是校志愿队队长李华。你校将于下周六组织主题（theme）为“健康你和我”的志愿服务活动，交换生Sam也报名参加。请你根据以下内容写一封电子邮件，向他介绍活动的安排。
Theme
Healthy You and Me
Time
8:30 a.m.-11:30 a.m.
Place
Sports Center
Activities
…
Purpose
…
注意：1. 可在内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息；
2. 词数80词左右（邮件的开头已给出，不计入词数）；
3. 不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息，否则不予评分。
Dear Sam,
Thank you for joining us in our voluntary work next Saturday.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua


2023年广州中考英语
参考答案
一、语法选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
1-15 BCCDA BDACB ACBAD
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
16-25 ABDCA DBDAC
三、阅读（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
A篇 26-28 BCD B篇 29-32 BCAB
C篇 33-36 DADC D篇 37-40 BDCA
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
41-45 BCADE
四、写作（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
46. remember 47. culture /customs/ ceremony 48. carefully/ completely/ cautiously 49. last 50. proud
第二节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
51. Have…heard 52. not only…but also 53. What a wonderful 54. how I can draw 55. will be shown
第三节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
Possible version